General Micro Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

Pregnant woman with no previous antenatal care.

What test would need to be done?

A

URGENT - HIV, syphillis, hep B

  • urgent if presenting later than 20/40
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2
Q

Gay man presents with inguinal lymphadenopathy and maculopapular rash on his trunk, palms and soles.
10 weeks ago had unprotected sex.

What test would need to be done?

A
  • clotted blood for HIV and syphillis
  • urine and swabs for chlamydia/ gonorrhoea testing.

Hepatitis viruses not part of routine sexual health screening.

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3
Q

33M brought in by ambulance. Found unresponsive in street - injecting legal highs

What test would need to be done?

A
  • clotted blood for HIV, hep B core Ab, Hep C Ab testing
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4
Q

22F attends family planning clinic for long acting reversible contraceptive as she has a new partner. Asymptomatic

What test would need to be done?

A
  • clotted blood for HIV and syphillis testing
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5
Q

Describe antibiotic prescribing decisions likely to induce C diff infection?

A

4 C’s - clindamycin, cephalosporin, co-amoxiclav, ciprofloxacin

Unnecessary, broad spectrum, against gram -ve
excess duration
inappropriate route/ dose

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6
Q

What cleaning agent would be needed in C diff isolated rooms?

A

HCl

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7
Q

What tests are required to assess the severity of c diff?

A
Temp >38.5C
CT scan /xray - severe colitis
WBC
Creatinine
lactate
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8
Q

What drugs are risk factors for c diff?

A

PPI and histamine inhibitors

- always review indication and see if can be stopped

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9
Q

C diff infection - what treatment should be given in mild or severe cases?

A

no severity markers - metronidazole

1 or more severity markers - vancomycin

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10
Q

What should you use in initial assessment of pneumonia?

A

CURB 65

  • confused (AMT score of 8 or less; new disorientation in person, place, time)
  • urea - greater or equal to 7 mmol/L
  • RR - greater or equal to 30/minute
  • BP - systolic <90 or diastolic less than or equal to 60
    65 - age 65 or older
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11
Q

Antibiotic treatments in community-acquired pneumonia
CURB 0-1
CURB 2
CURB 3-5

A

CURB 0-1
Amoxicillin or doxycycline (if penicillin allergy)

CURB 2
Amoxicillin plus clarithromycin
- if penicillin allergy - doxycycline or clarithromycin

CURB 3-5
Co-amoxiclav plus clarithromcyin
- if penicillin allergy - ciprofloxacin plus vancomycin

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12
Q

What should you recommend to everyone who has had a pneumococcus infection?

A

pneumococcal vaccine

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13
Q

What additional test should you do in someone presenting with pneumococcal sepsis?

A

HIV test

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14
Q

What test should you do in a pregnant lady suspected of having a UTI?

What is a complication of pyelonephrititis in pregnancy?

A

MSU culture

premature rupture of membranes

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15
Q

What is the treatment in asymptomatic bacteria?

A

dont treat unless pregnant or going for surgery of urinary tract

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16
Q

Infections that Staph aureus causes

A

SOFT PAINS

S - SSTI (cellulitis)/ surgical site infections
O - osteomyelitis and septic arthritis
F - food posioning
T - Toxic shock syndrome

P - pneumonia
A - abscesses (psoas amongst others)
I  - infective endocarditis
N - nec. fas. 
S - scalded skin syndrome
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17
Q

Staph aureus lab investigations

A

Gram stain = gram +ve, grape like clusters

Blood agar - aureus = golden (techoic acid)

Coagulase - converts fibrinogen to fibrin
positive = s. aureus

18
Q

Staph aureus screening

A

swab throat, nose, groin, axilla

19
Q

Where is s. aureus carried?

A

upper resp. tract 20-30% population
normal vaginal flora in some women
skin

20
Q

Pathophysiology of s aureus

A

toxin production

  • recurrent SSTI and necrotizing pneumonia
  • enterotoxins = gastroenteritis
  • TSST1 = toxic shock syndrome
  • Epidermolytic toxin (A and B) = scalded skin syndrome (severe infection in babies with shedding of skin)
  • Exfoliative toxin = allows it to disrupt skin barrier

DNAse

Adhesion = techoic acid allows it to adhere to skin/upper resp. tract

Evasion of immune system

  • anti-opsonizing protein and protein A = anti-phagocytic
  • leukotoxins - PVL - kills WBC (recurrent SSTI and necrotizing pneumonia)
  • superantigens - subvert normal immune system by inducing strong polyclonal stimulation and expansion of T cells
  • Biofilms - can produce bio-films on damaged skin, medical devices, heart valves - protection against immune cells
21
Q

Risk factors for s aureus infection

A

Loss of skin barrier
Immunocompromised
Prosthetic material

22
Q

Management for staph. aureus cellulitis

A

mark around border of erythema and limb elevation
IV flucloxacillin
if penicillin allergy or MRSA = IV vancomycin

Dont forget to US leg if might have DVT (swelling not going down while on antibiotics)

23
Q

S aureus bacteremia

  • mortality rate
  • what might make patient at greater risk of relapse?
  • management
  • deep source infections
A

mortality rate = 26%

at greater risk of relapse if on short course of antibiotic

Guidance

  • minimum of 2 week IV therapy - need longer course if have complication or deep site infection
  • review blood culture 48-72 hours to ensure bacteremia resolving
  • check for deep source infections - osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, disci tis, endocarditis, stroke, prosthetics?

Deep source infections

  • endocarditis = do ECHO;
  • if septic - check clotting as may bleed out = DIC
  • rule out = psoas abscess (back/hip pain); discitis (palpate down spine); prosthetic related infection (graft infection, prosthetic joint)
24
Q

MRSA

  • what causes resistance to methicillin
  • risk factors
  • management
A
  • mec

RF: history of MRSA; nursing home resident; family member with MRSA; prolonged hospitalization

Treatment = Vancomycin

If MRSA +ve isolate in single room and offered decolonization.

25
What infections is PVL linked to and what would be possible treatment?
Staph aureus toxin recurrent SSTI and necrotizing pneumonia Clindamycin
26
Pathogenesis of C diff
2 toxins - A and B A - binds to apical side of cell = disrupts tight junctions and loosens epithelial barrier; cell death; attract neutrophils B - basolateral cell membrane Cytotoxic and induce release of various immunomodulatory mediators from epithelial cells, phagocytes and mast cells leading to inflammation and accumulation of neutrophils
27
C diff testing
Do not test asymptomatic No test of cure/follow up two step testing 1 - GDH 2 - toxin Equivocal - +ve first test and -ve second test
28
Treatment in c diff relapse
vancomycin or fidaxomicin
29
Pneumonia | - investigations
1st line - CXR if suspect complications do CT must do follow up CXR to check for resolution of consolidation and screen for underlying malignancy if suspected microbiology not needed if managed in community - otherwise do sputum culture, PCR testing for respiratory viruses and M pneumonia Blood culture if moderate-severe
30
CURB65 pneumonia assessment
``` C - confusion U - urea >7mmol/l R - RR >/= 30/min B - BP - SBP <90 or DBP = 60mmHg 65 - >/= 65 years old ``` if more than 2 - admit to hospital 1 - amoxicillin 2 - oral antimicrobials - amoxicillin + clarithromycin 3 - IV antimicrobials - coamoxiclav + clarithromycin
31
Pneumonia | most common microbes
``` Bacterial Strep pneumonia H. influenza Moraxella catarrhalis Staph aureus Klebsiella pneumonia Mycoplasma pneumonia Less common: Legionella pneumophilia, chlamydia pneumonia or psittaci, Coxiella burnetii ``` Viruses Influenza A or B Rhinovirus; adenovirus; Respiratory syncytial virus Less common: Varicella zoster virus; CMV; measles Atypical Mycoplasma pneumoniae Chlamydia
32
Pneumonia - when should you consider empyema?
persistent fever despite antimicrobials | pleural fluid pH <7.2; needs drained
33
S pneumoniae pneumonia treatment
amoxicillin
34
M pneumoniae pneumonia treatment
clarithromycin
35
H influenzae pneumonia treatment
Non-beta lactamase producer: amoxicillin beta lactamase producer: co-amoxiclav
36
S aureus pneumonia treatment
flucloxacillin or vancomycin if MRSA
37
C psittaci
doxycyline
38
P aeruginosa
ciprofloxacin
39
Legionella spp
levofloxacin or clarithromycin
40
Influenza A or B
oseltamivir
41
Microbes involved in hospital acquired pneumonia | - and possible treatments
Gram –ve bacilli - E coli - P aeruginosa - E cloacae - K oxytoca S aureus (MSSA or MRSA) Nosocomial influenza virus outbreaks Treatment - Doxycyline (mild illness) - Piperacillin-tazobactam - Vancomycin (if MRSA colonisation) - Oseltamavir (if influenza virus exposure/ +ve test; consider as prophylaxis)
42
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
Fever, non-productive cough & dyspnoea Insidious onset (gradual, no sudden deteroration) Exercise-induced hypoxia (desaturate on walking) Chest auscultation may be normal CXR can be normal/non-specific; classically peri-hillar interstitial changes High resolution CT more sensitive – ‘ground glass’ inflammatory changes Microbiological diagnosis via PCR on induced sputum or BAL Treatment with high dose Co-trimoxazole and adjunctive corticosteroids if pO2 <9.3kPa; started within 72h of co-trimoxazole