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General neurology Flashcards

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1
Q

What % of those with ALS have FTD?

A

13%

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2
Q

What is the major genetic cause shared by ALS and FTD?

A

C9orf72

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3
Q

TDP-43 is found in which diseases?

A

FTD and ALS

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4
Q

What is Onuf’s nucleus responsible for?

A

Sphincter control

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5
Q

How do triptans work (in migraine)?

A

Activators of 5-HT receptors, 1B/1D/1F

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6
Q

What options are available for migraine prophylaxis?

A

Amitriptyline, nortriptyline, pizotifen, candesartan, propranolol, sodium valproate, topiramate, verapamil

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7
Q

Which nerves pass through the jugular foramen?

A

IX, X, XI

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8
Q

What passes through the cavernous sinus?

A

CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI

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9
Q

What causes autonomic dysreflexia?

A

Spinal cord injuries above T6.

  • HTN and bradycardia
  • Below T6 allows splanchnic innervation and therefore dilatation to bring down BP
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10
Q

What are the common side effects of phenytoin?

A

Gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, rash, folic acid depletion, osteoporosis, cerebellar signs

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11
Q

What is the prognosis at diagnosis?

A

3-5 years

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12
Q

What does reinnervation look like on EMG?

A

High amplitude CMAPs

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13
Q

How is conduction block defined on Nerve Conduction Studies?

A

A reduction in CMAP area/amplitude of at least 20% compared with distal CMAP area/amplitude.
The duration of the proximal CMAP should not increase by >20% (see temporal dispersion)

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14
Q

Which antibody is multifocal motor neuropathy associated with?

A

anti-GM1

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15
Q

How is primary lateral sclerosis distinguishable?

A

Affects upper motor neurons only

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16
Q

How is progressive muscular atrophy distinguishable?

A

Affects lower motor neurons only

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17
Q

What are the 2 most commonly found mutations in ALS?

A

C9orf72 and SOD1

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18
Q

How is EPHA4 implicated in prognosis in ALS?

A

Lower EPHA4 = longer survival

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19
Q

Which exposure is the strongest risk factor for ALS?

A

Military service.

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20
Q

How does riluzole work in ALS?

A

Suppresses excessive motor neuronal firing

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21
Q

How does edaravone work in ALS?

A

Suppresses oxidative stress

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22
Q

What is the treatment for cluster headaches?

A

Acute: 100% O2, triptan
- Severe refractory => indomethacin or dihydroergotamine
Bridging: prednisone or occipital nerve block with methylpred
Prophylactic: Verapamil

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23
Q

What is the genetic mutation responsible for Wilson’s disease?

A

ATP7B mutation on chromosome 13 (autosomal recessive)

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24
Q

Which mutation is associated with the highest risk of multiple sclerosis?

A

HLA DRB1*1501

Other risk = *0801

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25
What is first line treatment in primary progressive MS and what is its mechanism of action?
Ocrelizumab - fully humanised anti-CD20 that suppresses B cell
26
What does downbeating nystagmus represent?
Lesion in the foramen magnum
27
What does upbeating nystagmus represent?
Lesion in the midbrain or floor of the fourth ventricle
28
How do you distinguish between myositis and myopathy on EMG?
Spontaneous firing in myositis, but not myopathy
29
What are the causes of predominantly sensory neuropathy?
``` Diabetes B12 deficiency Uraemia HIV Malignancy Sjogren's Hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathy Amyloid ```
30
What are the causes of predominantly motor neuropathy?
``` AIDP Acute motor axonal neuropathy Hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy Lead Porphyria Multifocal motor neuropathy Diphtheria Diabetic Amyloid ```
31
Painful neuropathy
``` EtOH Diabetes Cryoglobulinaemia HIV Paraneoplastic GBS B6 toxicity Amyloid ```
32
Which antibodies may be positive in GBS?
GM1, GM2 and GD1
33
What is the triad found in Miller-Fisher and what is the antibody associated with it?
Ataxia, ophthalmoplegia and areflexia | Anti-GQ1
34
What does CSF show in GBS and CIDP?
Albuminocytologic dissociation - high protein / low cells
35
What is the treatment for GBS?
IVIG or plasma exchange
36
What are the treatment options for CIDP?
Steroids IVIG or plasma exchange Steroid-sparing agents: AZA or MMF (faster action)
37
In which variant of CIDP is asymmetry classic?
MADSAM
38
What is POEMS? Which serum level is diagnostic?
``` Polyneuropathy Organomegaly Endocrinopathy Monoclonal protein Skin changes ``` VEGF level is doagnostic
39
What pedal changes would be seen in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?
Pes cavus | Hammer toes
40
What is the mutation responsible for hereditary sensitivity to pressure palsies (HSPP)?
PMP22 | - Prolonged distal motor latencies
41
What does nerve biopsy show in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?
Onion bulbs
42
Where is a biopsy taken form for diagnosis of amyloidosis? What does it show?
Fat pad | Apple-green birefringence on congo red stain
43
What are the treatment options for diabetic neuropathy?
1 Amitriptyline, | 2 duloxetine or pregabalin or gabapentin
44
What are the features of Morvan Syndrome and which antibody is implicated?
Features: - Fasciculations - Paraesthesia - Thymoma - Encephalophathy - Neuromyotonia Antibody: - Caspr-2 => directed at Voltage-gated K channels
45
Which antibodies are implicated in 60% of cases of stiff person syndrome?
Anti-GAD
46
What antibodies are associated with myasthenia gravis?
``` ACh receptor Ab - 80-90% sensitive MuSK Ab - positive in 40% of AChR-negative patients. - more severe weakness, not affecting eyes or limbs - not associated with thymic disease. LRP4 Ab - mild-moderate disease - not associated with thymic disease. Anti-striated muscle Ab - positive in 90% of thymomas Ryanodine receptor Ab - positive in 70% of thymomas with MG - marker for severe disease Titin Ab (in addition to ACh R Ab) - thymoma and late-onset MG Agrin Ab - poor sensitivity but specific for MG ```
47
What should be specifically checked for on examination in myasthenia gravis?
- Sustained upward gaze - weakness of eyelid elevators and oculomotor muscles - Peek sign - eyelids separate after 30sec of closing, and sclera is visible. - Dysarthria - palate weakness - Dysphonia on counting - bulbar weakness - Smiling causes snarling expression - Neck flexion weakness - Flap 1 arm then test muscle strength together - asymmetrical due to fatigue of one arm - Improvement of ptosis with ice cube application
48
What does EMG show in myaesthenia gravis?
Repetitive stimulation shows progressive decrease in amplitude of action potentials Needle examination - motor unit potential variation and, sometimes, fibrillation potentials and myopathic changes Single-fibre EMG - increased jitter (variable interpotential interval). 80% sensitive.
49
What other investigations should be performed in myaesthenia gravis?
Thymoma search - CXR, chest CT or MRI | Respiratory function tests - weakness in muscles of respiration
50
What is myasthenic crisis and how is it treated?
Crisis involves respiratory weakness causing respiratory failure. Often caused by an infection. Treatment: Antibacterial IVIG or plasma exchange
51
What is first line treatment for myaesthenia gravis?
Acetylcholinesterases - pyridostigmine | K supplements and K-sparing diuretics may improve symptoms but are rarely used
52
What if acetylcholinesterase inhibitors fail in myaesthenia gravis?
Steroids - may worsen symptoms and therefore should be monitored closely during initiation. Immunosuppressants next line - azathioprine may be used as steroid-sparing agent, however should never be used as monotherapy. Rituximab in desperate cases
53
What % of myasthenia gravis have isolated ocular signs?
15%
54
Which antibodies are implicated in isolated ocular myasthenia gravis?
Acetylcholine and LRP4 (not MuSK)
55
What autoimmune diseases are often associated with myasthenia gravis?
``` Thyroiditis (most commonly) SLE and RA Polymyositis NMO ALS ```
56
Kv1.4, ryanodine and titin antibodies in myasthenia gravis are associated with which coexisting cardiac condition?
Myocarditis
57
What is the most effective cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis? Which subpopulation is it less effective in?
Pyridostigmine | Less effective in MuSK positive patients
58
What is second line Rx for myasthenia gravis? | Third? Fourth?
2nd - Prednisone + AZA 3rd - Mycophenolate (mild) or rituximab (moderate) 4th - Methotrexate, cyclosporin, tacrolimus
59
How is myasthenic crisis treated?
IVIG or plasmapheresis
60
Which myasthenia patients should have a thymectomy?
Recommended in: - Those with thymomas - Early-onset myasthenia gravis - Generalised myasthenia gravis and ACh receptor Abs. 70% of these show improvement after thymectomy. - Seronegative MG with generalised disease and biomarkers similar to early-onset MG Not recommended in: - MuSK or LRP4 Ab positive - Ocular MG - Seronegative MG
61
Which medications may precipitate a myasthenic crisis?
``` Aminoglycosides Tetracyclines Fluoroquinolones Macrolides Muscle relaxants Beta blockers Calcium channel blockers Botox Iodine Penicillamine ```
62
What side effects are associated with pyridostigmine?
Abdominal cramps, diarrhoea
63
Which features of Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome distinguish it from myasthenia gravis?
- No ophthalmoparesis, facial weakness or bulbar involvement - Poor response to cholinesterase inhibitors - Autonomic symptoms - Reduced deep tendon reflexes - Increase in size of CMAP on repetitive nerve stimulation
64
Anti-Hu antibodies are associated most strongly with which cancer? What paraneoplastic syndromes are they associated with?
- Lung cancer (mostly small cell) - Encephalomyelitis, limbic encephalitis, brain stem encephalitis, cerebellar degeneration, multi-segmental myelitis, sensory neuronopathy, sensorimotor neuronopathy, autonomic neuronopathy
65
Anti-Yo antibodies are associated with which cancers? | Which paraneoplastic syndrome are they associated with?
- Ovarian and breast | - Subacute cerebellar degeneration
66
Anti-CRMP5 antibodies are associated with which cancers?
- Small cell lung cancer, thymoma
67
Anti-Ma2 antibodies are associated with which cancers?
- Testicular cancer
68
Anti-Ri antibodies are associated with which cancers? Which syndrome is most associated with it?
- Breast, ovarian, SCLC | - Associated with opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome
69
Anti-amphiphysin antibodies are associated with which cancers? Which paraneoplastic syndrome are they associated with?
- Breast, SCLC | - Limbic encephalitis, stiff person syndrome
70
Lhermitte's sign is suggestive of a lesion in which part of the nervous system?
Dorsal columns of C-spine or caudal medulla
71
Which antibodies in neuromyelitis optica are associated moreso with optic neuritis than myelitis?
MOG antibodies | - Also found in ADEM
72
What is the order of progression in multiple sclerosis medications?
1. Glatiramer acetate, beta-interferon 2. Daclizumab, teriflunomide 3. Fingolimod, dimethyl fumarate 4. Natalizumab, alemtuzumab 5. Autologous HSCT
73
What is the mechanism of action of fingolimod?
- S1P receptor agonist. Causes | - Prevention of lymphocytes from migrating out of lymph nodes
74
What side effects are associated with alemtuzumab?
Autoimmune thyroid disease Immune thrombotic thrombocytopenia Membranous GN and anti-GBM disease
75
What does CADASIL stand for and what is the mutation responsible for it?
CADASIL = Cerebral Autosomal Dominant Arteriopathy with Subcortical Infarcts and Leucoencephalopathy Notch 3 mutation - chromosome 19q12
76
Which 2 areas of the brain are classically involved in CADASIL?
Anterior temporal lobes | External capsule
77
What is the mechanism of action of glatiramer?
- Competition with myelin antigens for binding to T cells | - Induction of Th2 suppressor cells that downregulate inflammation
78
What is the mechanism of action of alemtuzumab?
CD52 mAb - stimulates antigen dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
79
What side effects of dimethyl fumarate should be monitored for?
Lymphopenia | LFT derangement
80
What side effects are associated with fingolimod?
Herpes infections Macular oedema Bradycardia
81
What are the 3 main clinical presentations associated with neuromyelitis optica? What are 3 less common presentations?
Most common: - Optic neuritis - Longitudinally extensive transverse myelitis - Area postrema syndrome (nausea/vomiting/hiccups) Less common: - Other brainstem lesion - Narcolepsy or diencephalic syndrome with MRI lesion - Symptomatic cerebral syndrome with MRI lesion
82
What is the treatment for neuromyelitis optica?
Plasma exchange
83
What does dimethyl fumarate act on to down-regulate inflammation?
Nrf2
84
How does teriflunomide act?
Inhibition of DHODH, which is necessary for pyimidine synthesis in prolferating lymphocytes.
85
What are the risk factors for Sudden Unexplained Death in EPilepsy (SUDEP)?
``` Multiple antiepileptics Nocturnal seizures Long duration of therapy Early onset epilepsy Male ```
86
What is the approximate incidence of SUDEP in epileptic adults?
1 in 1000
87
What is the most common genetic generalised epilepsy? | What are the typical features of it?
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy - Typical absence seizures, usually precede myoclonic jerks by 1-9 years - Myoclonic jerks on wakening - Generalised tonic clonic seizures develop months to years after myoclonic jerks - Very sensitive to EtOH and sleep deprivation - Autosomal dominant
88
What is first line treatment for juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?
Sodium valproate
89
What is the most commonly affected area in temporal lobe epilepsy?
Mesial temporal lobe (hippocampus) - 65%
90
During which period of sleep do sleep-related hypermotor epileptic seizures usually occur?
Non-REM
91
What is the classic finding in GLUT1 deficiency and how is it treated?
Low CSF glucose | Treat with ketogenic diet
92
What is the classic finding in GLUT 2 deficiency?
Paroxysmal exercise-induced dystonia
93
Which 2 HLA genes are associated with Stevens Johnson Syndrome?
HLA-B*1502: Taiwan | HLA-A*3101: Europeans and Japanese
94
Which form of epilepsy is anti-GAD antibody associated with?
Temporal lobe epilepsy
95
What does levetiracetam bind to?
Presynaptic SVA2
96
Where do gabapentin and pregabalin act on?
Post-synaptic calcium channels
97
What are the 2 sites of action of lacosamide?
CRMP-2 pathway (pre-synaptic) | Na channel inactivation (pre-synaptic)
98
What is the primary site of lamotrigine?
Na channels
99
Which antiepileptic is 1st line in absence seizures?
Ethosuxamide
100
What % of patients become seizure-free after their first antiepileptic agent?
47%
101
What happens in coadministration of COCP and lamotrigine?
Lamotrigine metabolism increased by COCP - dose must be increased
102
What is the main teratogenic risk involved with sodium valproate and carbamazepine?
Spina bifida
103
What side effects are associated with sodium valproate?
``` Weight gain Drowsiness Alopecia Liver dysfunction Tremor PCOS ```
104
What side effects are associated with carbamazepine?
SIADH Drowsiness OP
105
What side effects are associated with phenytoin?
``` Gum hypertrophy Coarsening of facial features Hirsutism OP Cerebellar atrophy ```
106
What side effects are associated with topiramate?
Weight loss Renal calculi Word-finding difficulties Suicidality
107
What is the most effective treatment in mesial temporal lobe epilepsy?
Temporal lobectomy
108
What are the first line antidepressants for epileptics?
Citalopram and sertraline
109
What are the 2 main genetic forms of Parkinson's Disease?
Parkin, DJ-1 (recessive) also PINK1 | Lrrk2, SNCA (Dominant)
110
Name the 3 main synucleinopathies?
Parkinson's Disease Lewy Body Dementia Multiple System Atrophy
111
What is the main part of the brain affected in Parkinson's Disease?
Substantia nigra pars compacta
112
Which receptors do pramiprexole and ropinirole act on?
D2/3
113
Which receptor does rotigotine act on? | Which population are they useful in?
D2 | Useful in dysphagia
114
What are the ergot-derived dopamine agonists and which receptors do they act on?
Cabergoline, pergolide | D1/2
115
What are the MAO-B inhibitors used in Parkinson's Disease?
Rasagiline and selegiline | - Reserved for late disease
116
What is the mechanism of action of apomorphine?
D2 receptor agonist
117
What is amantadine used for?
Dyskinesias in Parkinson's Disease
118
Which part of the brain is deep brain stimulation targeted at?
Subthalamic nucleus | Globus pallidus internus
119
Which antipsychotic has evidence supporting treatment of psychosis in Parkinson's Disease?
Clozapine | Trial reduction in anti-PD meds first
120
What is the first line treatment for depression in Parkinson's Disease?
Nortriptyline
121
What are the approved treatments for dementia in Parkinson's Disease?
Rivastigmine | Donepezil may be useful for hallucinations and cognitive impairment
122
What are the treatment options for REM sleep behaviour disorder?
Clonazepam | Amitriptyline
123
How do Parkinsonian tremor and essential tremor differ from each other?
PD - Rest tremor, 5Hz, asymmetrical | Essential tremor - Postural tremor, 10Hz, symmetrical
124
What is the putaminal slit sign specific for?
MSA Parkinsonian type
125
What is the classic pontine finding in multiple system atrophy - cerebellar type?
Hot cross bun type
126
How does midodrine act?
apha-1 agonism
127
What is the mechanism of action of mirabegron?
Beta3 agonism
128
What is a side effect of levodopa in MSA?
Exacerbation of orthostatic hypotension
129
What is the first eye movement to be affected in Progressive Supranuclear Palsy?
Downward gaze
130
What is the MRI brain classic finding in PSP?
Hummingbird sign - midbrain atrophy
131
What are the treatment options in PSP?
Levodopa and amantadine
132
Which Parkinsonian condition demonstrates myoclonus and limb apraxia?
Corticobasal degeneration
133
Which of the Parkinsonian syndromes has the worst median survival from diagnosis?
Corticobasal degeneration
134
What can be used to treat dystonias in corticobasal degeneration?
Botox if painful
135
What is the genetic mutation responsible for Huntington's disease? When does it become symptomatic?
CAG triplet repeat disorder of the huntingtin gene on chromosome 4. Symptomatic at >37 repeats
136
Which neurons are affected in Huntingtin's Disease?
GABAergic neurons
137
Which part of the brain may show atrophy in Huntington's Disease?
Caudate
138
What is the treatment for tardive dyskinesia?
Tetrabenazine, benztropine
139
Which brain structure is damaged in hemibalism?
Subthalamic nucleus
140
How does Brown-Sequard syndrome present and what is it caused by?
- Ipsilateral paralysis - Ipsilateral vibration, proprioception and light touch discrimination - Contralateral pain and temperature Caused by cord hemisection.
141
What is the genetic mutation responsible for Wilson's Disease? What is its mode of inheritance?
ATP7B | Autosomal recessive
142
How is Wilson's Disease diagnosed?
Low caeruloplasmin High urinary copper Kayser-Fleischer rings High copper levels on liver biopsy
143
What are the treatment options in Wilson's Disease?
Penicillamine Trientene if intolerant of penicillamine Levodopa
144
What is the genetic mutation responsible for Fragile X-associated tremor/ataxia syndrome (FXTAS)? What is the mode of inheritance?
CGG triplet repeat 55-200 in FMR1 gene | X-linked dominant
145
What is the classic MRI sign found in FXTAS?
Middle cerebellar peduncle sign
146
Name 3 dopamine receptor agonists approved for restless legs syndrome
Pramipexole, ropinirole, rotigotine
147
Name 5 causes of restless legs syndrome
``` Iron deficiency ESRF Pregnancy Drug induced - metoclopramide Multiple sclerosis Neuropathy ```
148
What ar the windows for IV thrombolysis and IA thrombectomy?
thrombolysis - 4.5 hours | thrombectomy - 6 hours
149
What is the mechanism of action of idaracizumab?
Monoclonal antibody that competitively inhibits dabigatran (competes with FIIa)
150
In cervical artery dissection, is anticoagulation or antiplatelet therapy more effective?
No difference
151
What is the prefered class of antihypertensives in ischaemic stroke?
- Calcium channel blockers | - Beta blockers may increase risk of ischaemic stroke, however are indicated in concurrent ischaemic heart disease
152
When should patients be mobilised after an ischaemic stroke?
After 24 hours
153
What is the mechanism of action of evolocumab?
- PCSK9 inhibitor - increases hepatocyte LDL receptors available to degrade LDL - PCSK9 degrades LDL receptors
154
How does amyloid angiopathy present and in which population?
Lobar, juxta-cortical haemorrhages in the elderly
155
Where do hypertensive intracerebral haemorrhages tend to present?
Putamen, thalamus, pons
156
Which levels of the Modified Rankin Scale qualify for thrombolysis?
MRS 0-2
157
Which medication should be used for DVT prophylaxis post-ischaemic stroke?
Enoxaparin (more effective than heparin in this population)
158
Which patiets with an ischaemic stroke would benefit from hemicraniectomy?
Large ischaemic MCA stroke and age<60
159
When should a NOAC be commenced post-stroke in non-valvular AF?
small stroke - day 3 moderate stroke - day 6 large stroke - day 12
160
When is TIA or stroke recurrence highest?
3 weeks to 3 months
161
What consitutes valvular atrial fibrillation
AF with the absence of mitral stenosis or mechanical heart valve
162
Which patients should have carotid endarterectomies and within what time frame?
- Treat SYMPTOMATIC carotid artery stenosis 70-99%. | - Carotid endarterectomy within 2 weeks of event
163
When should patent foramen ovale be closed?
1. PFO + atrial septal aneurysm + large shunt | 2. Young patient with ambolic ischaemic stroke and no other cause identified for stroke
164
How does the OCP affect stroke risk?
Elevated risk with oestrogen but not progesterone
165
What are the 4 clinical features associated with Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease?
Myoclonus Visual or cerebellar disturbance Pyramidal/extrapyramidal disturbance Akinetic mutism
166
Which tumour are NMDA receptor antibodies associated with?
Teratoma
167
What should be tested for in hypokalaemic periodic paralysis?
Thyrotoxicosis
168
Alexia without agraphia is specific for which arterial territory?
Dominant PCA
169
What are the 4 types of Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease?
Sporadic - most common (85%) Iatrogenic - from dural grafts, etc Variant - from bovine spongiform encephalopathy Familial
170
What is the classic MRI finding in CJD?
FLAIR and DWI: Cortical ribboning and basal ganglia hyperintensity
171
What is necessary to diagnose CJD?
- Brain biopsy showing PrPsc | - PRNP gene testing must be performed to exclude familial CJD
172
What might CSF show in CJD?
- Pleocytosis (lymphocytes) - Elevated protein - 14-3-3 protein
173
Which muscles are affected in a deep peroneal nerve palsy? Which sensory distribution?
Muscles: - Tibialis anterior: ankle dorsiflexion, foot eversion - Extensor hallucis: big toe extension - Extensor digitorum longus: lateral 4 toes extension - Extensor digitorum brevis: big toe and medial 3 toes extension Sensory: first dorsal webspace
174
How can an L5 nerve palsy be distinguished from common peroneal nerve palsy?
L5: Foot inversion and hip abduction affected, unlike peroneal nerve
175
How might CSF help distinguish between multiple sclerosis and neuromyelitis optica?
MS: oligoclonal bands NMO: NO oligoclonal bands
176
What is the treatment for neuromyelitis optica?
Rituximab and MMF
177
A lesion in which vascular territory is responsible for the syndrome of alexia without agraphia?
Dominant PCA
178
What is the mechanism of action of pimavanserin and what is it used for?
Inverse agonist of 5-HT2A receptor. | Used for psychosis in Parkinson's Disease.
179
What are the first and second line treatments for trigeminal neuralgia?
1. Carbamazepine | 2. Oxcarbazepine
180
What are the first and second line treatments for greater occipital neuralgia?
1. Occipital nerve block | 2. Gabapentin or pregabalin
181
Which nerves are most likely to be affected by a cerebellopontine angle tumour?
V, VII, VIII
182
Which muscle flexes the distal interphalangeal joints in the fingers?
Flexor digitorum profundus
183
What is the mechanism of action of benztropine in Parkinson's Disease?
Atypical competitive inhibitor of dopamine reuptake
184
How can central retinal artery occlusion and central retinal vein occlusion be differentiated on fundoscopy?
CRAO - Grossly swollen and pale retina - Prominent fovea (cherry red spot) CVRO - Disc is massively swollen with splotches of haemorrhage and cotton wool spots
185
How does an ophthalmic artery occlusion differ on fundoscopy from central retinal artery occlusion?
Ophthalmic artery occlusion | - No cherry red spot and vision is reduced to light perception only.
186
What are the tauopathies?
``` Alzheimer’s disease Frontotemporal dementia PSP Corticobasal degeneration Dementia pugilistica / chronic traumatic encephalopathy ```
187
What are the synucleinopathies?
Parkinson’s Disease Dementia with Lewy Bodies Multiple system atrophy
188
Huntington's Disease and spinocerebellar ataxia are examples of what type of neurodegenerative diseases?
Polyglutamine diseases
189
CSF neurofilament light proteins (cNFL) elevation distinguishes between which diseases?
Elevated in fronto-temporal dementia and HIV dementia | Elevated in idiopathic Parkinson's Disease vs Parkinson's Plus syndromes
190
What is the classic MRI finding in MSA?
Slit-like void sign: hypointense putamen with hyperintense rim on T2

Neurology (3 decks)

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