General Operational Subjects (GOS) Study Questions Flashcards
(213 cards)
1
Q
Exemption 10248 allows us to:
A
Operate temporarily without the certificates of registration or airworthiness on board.
2
Q
CPZ is authorized to conduct what type of operation(s):
A
Domestic and Flag Operations (NOT supplemental)
3
Q
You can fly off airways provided that you: (three things)
A
Stay within the operational service volume of the facilities used, stay within standard route width and MEA criteria, and have adequate navigational facilities, and are cleared by ATC.
4
Q
What are the requirements to cancel IFR when landing at an uncontrolled airport:
A
Reported ceiling must be 1,000 feet or greater, must be able to maintain base cloud clearance (91.155), ceiling and cloud clearance must allow minimum safe altitudes. In addition for uncontrolled: air/ground communication facility for traffic, flight is operated within 10nm of destination or visual reference with landing surface is established and can be maintained throughout the approach and landing.
5
Q
You are landing at a controlled airport and want to cancel IFR, in addition to appropriate weather, what are the three other requirements?
A
Operation within Class B, C, or D airspace, be operating within 10nm of the destination, use radar-monitored traffic advisories and be in direct communication with ATC.
6
Q
The visibility for takeoff is 1,600 RVR. What is necessary for you to takeoff?
A
HIRL, or CL, or RCLM
7
Q
The visibility for takeoff is 1,200 RVR. What is necessary for you to takeoff?
A
A minimum of two RVR reports, excluding the “Far End” RVR
HIRL, CL, or RCLM during the daytime; CL or HIRL at night.
BOTH OF THE ABOVE STATEMENTS ARE REQUIRED.
8
Q
If TDZ RVR and rollout RVR are 1,000’ (no MID available), you need operative runway CL and RCLM to takeoff. (True or False? If False, state why.)
A
False. CL, or RCLM+HIRL.
9
Q
If the TDZ, MID and Rollout RVRs are all 600’ you need:
A
You need runway HIRL and CL to takeoff
10
Q
CPZ may never use an airport in class G airspace for an alternate. T/F? And explain.
A
False, CPZ may use a class G airport as an alternate. Requirements: Approved IAP, approved source of weather, and air/ground communications for traffic.
11
Q
An aircraft has been involved in an accident and you have been assigned to ferry it to KIAD. What must be accomplished prior to flight?
A
The NTSB must first release it, and the local FSDO must be notified.
12
Q
As long as the FSDO is notified within 24 hours a category C or D DMI may have it’s time extended. T/F?
A
False. Only B or C DMI’s may be deferred. (Not sure of the notification period?)
13
Q
To determine takeoff minimums, CPZ uses:
A
The takeoff minimums published in the Jepps, but never less than 500/500/500 RVR
14
Q
At airports that do not have operating ATC facilities and where it is not otherwise possible for the flight crew to obtain an IFR clearance, a flight may take off and depart under VFR, provided (3 conditions):
A
- The flight crew obtains an IFR clearance as soon as practical after takeoff, but under no circumstances farther than 50 NM from the departure airport
- Visibility is >=1sm during the day, and >=2sm at night.
- The flight remains in VMC at all times while operating under VFR
15
Q
Which type of instrument approach is approved by the Operations Specifications? Also, name three types that are prohibited:
A
Permitted: RNAV, ILS, LOC, VOR
Prohibited: PAR, ASR, SDF
16
Q
To conduct IFR terminal operations in class G airspace (3 conditions):
A
- The airport must be served by an authorized instrument approach
- The airport must have an approved source of weather
- The PIC must be able to obtain traffic advisories and the status of airport services and facilities
17
Q
What is required to accept a visual approach? (3 conditions)
A
- The flight must be in B, C or D airspace, or within 35 miles of the airport in class E airspace
- Adherence to cloud clearance requirements under FAR 91.155
- The flight must keep in visual contact with either the airport or the aircraft to be followed, as directed by ATC
18
Q
According to the Operation Specifications, when can an aircraft use a single FMS as the sole means of en route navigation?
A
- Redundant airborne equipment is both installed and operational
- The capability exists at any point along the planned route of flight to safely return to an airway
- Any flight operated over off-airway routing is operated under ATC radar control
19
Q
What is the approved procedure used to derive alternate weather minimums by CPZ?
A
Option 1 / Option 2 (C055, 400-1 & 200-1/2)
20
Q
Where is the furthest point from an uncontrolled field where a CPS aircraft can cancel an IFR flight plan and land under VFR?
A
There is no distance requirement if the crew can maintain visual reference with the landing surface
21
Q
What are the CPS-authorized areas of operations?
A
The 48 contiguous United States, the District of Columbia, Canada (not including MNPS airspace) and Mexico (excluding the Gulf of Mexico)
22
Q
Your flight was scheduled to arrive at an airport that is class D, but because of mechanical, weather, or ___ delays, you may arrive when the airspace is class G or untowered class E?
A
ATC
23
Q
You have departed the gate at Minneapolis and are going to KEVV (Evansville), which is in Class D airspace, but reverts to Class G at night. Before takeoff, System Control calls you back to the gate to pick up a revenue passenger. You then notice that, with the delay taken into account, you will arrive at KEVV after it becomes Class G airspace. Can you depart?
A
No. You cannot depart per Ops Spec C080. (KEVV is not on the list.)
24
Q
You have departed the gate at Minneapolis and are going to KHDN, which is in Class E airspace, but reverts to Class G at night. Before takeoff, System Control calls you back to the gate to pick up a revenue passenger. You then notice that, with the delay taken into account, you will arrive at KHDN after it becomes Class G airspace. Can you depart?
A
Yes. The Ops Specs specifically allow us to land at KHDN at any time.
25
You wish to use an airport for an alternate that has four approaches with the following approach minimums: ILS 30 – 200' – ½, VOR 30 – 600' – 2, VOR 12 – 400' – ¾, NDB 12 – 600' – 2. The wind is 21010G16. According to the operations specifications, what is the LOWEST ceiling and visibility you could use for alternate minimums?
600' – 1 ¼
26
Immediately before you are cleared for takeoff, Minneapolis tower says, “Attention all aircraft, ATIS Delta now current, altimeter 29.99. Runway 30R in use, MID RVR 500, ROLLOUT RVR600, TDZ RVR OTS”. Published minimums for takeoff from 30R are 500/500/500. Can you depart if the other required visual aids are operational?
Yes. One transmissometer can fail, but if the other two are at or above 500 RVR the flight may depart.
27
According to the Operations Specifications, which is/are the controlling RVR report(s) for landing?
Touchdown
28
While doing Option 2, you used two Cat 1 approaches and derived minimums to be 400' & 1sm. For this to be a legal alternate airport, the forecast weather would have to be at or above what at the alternate ETA?
400' & 1sm
29
To conduct terminal arrival VFR operations at a class C airport, what is lowest ceiling authorized as prescribed under FAR 91.155 to maintain the basic cloud clearance (assume pattern altitude of 1500' for transport category aircraft)?
2000'
30
Which of the following is not an approved alternate source of weather?
FISDL
Meteorlogix, ASOS, FAA FSS are approved.
31
Unless a pilot calls 1-866-460-0150 to initiate an ASAP report, all ASAP Reports must be submitted within 24 hours for a domestic flight, or 48 hours for an International Flight.
True. If you're unable to submit a written report, you may call the hotline (24/48 hours) and then follow up with formal written report within 24 hours of the phone call.
32
Under which of the following situations should a pilot submit an ASAP Report?
Possible FAR Violations, Possible SOP Violations, Significant Safety Issues
33
The following are valid acceptance criteria for ASAP reporting, except: (how many hours to submit the ASAP report and what are 3 accepting qualifications)
The ASAP Report must be submitted within 72 hours
The alleged violation must be inadvertent, the alleged violation must not involve criminal activity, including alcohol or substance abuse, there must be no issues involving pilot medical qualifications
34
An Emergency / Irregularity (Crew) Report must be submitted for each occurrence of:
Interruption of a flight caused by a known or suspected mechanical problem, anytime an emergency has been declared, a situation that may bring attention to Company operations or prompt an FAA investigation
35
When an armed Law Enforcement Officer (LEO) travels on a CPS flight what difference will be seen on their boarding pass?
TWW. Traveling With Weapon!
36
You have an hour on the ground between legs and the entire crew wants to leave to get a sandwich. You should:
Secure all the access doors
37
After getting a sandwich, you arrive back at your unattended airplane. You should:
Do a walk-around security inspection of the flight deck and wheel wells.
38
When operating above FL250, each flight crewmember must be provided with and continually use an oxygen mask.
False.
39
A critical phase of flight is:
From engine start through climb out of 10,000' MSL, and then descent out of 10,000' MSL through the completion of the shutdown checklist.
40
While making a turn on the ground, CPS pilots are required to clear the direction of the turn and to verbalize it. When airborne the direction also must either be cleared visually (in VMC) or via TCAS (in IMC), but without verbalization.
True.
41
Sterile cockpit procedures are in effect when:
Descending through 10,000' MSL b. Departing cruise altitude, if below 10,000' MSL
42
Cell phones may be used:
On the ground when taxiing in, and with the Captain's permission during irregular operations
43
Reading materials not related to the actual operation of the flight shall not be read in the cockpit during any operational phase of a flight.
True.
44
The flight attendant (s) must be on board all CPS aircraft in order to begin boarding.
True.
45
If all booked passengers are on board, System Control or Station Ops may authorize a CPS aircraft to depart the gate up to ___minutes before scheduled departure time.
10
46
Who has the highest jumpseat priority of these four people?
| A. An CPS dispatcher B. An CPS pilot C. An FAA inspector D. An CPS check airman
C. An FAA inspector.
47
A station agent may delay a flight without approval from System Control for up to ___ minutes from scheduled departure time?
10
48
During critical phases of flight, one crewmember may leave his or her station for physiological needs.
False.
49
Once an aircraft has left the gate but is still on the ground, System Control can recall a flight for everything except:
a. Ticketed revenue passengers b. Non-revenue passengers from other airlines c. CPS Maintenance personnel d. Additional passenger bags
B. Non-revenue passengers from other airlines.
50
Per the FOM, turns after takeoff are not authorized below:
400'
51
The critical phase of flight:
Begins with engine start and ends at 10,000' MSL, or cruise altitude if cruise is less than 10,000'
52
You are the PIC and disagree with System Control concerning the release. You should:
Ask for a phone patch to the System/Duty Chief Pilot's office, or if not available then the most appropriate individual authorized to provide operational guidance listed in the FOM.
53
Even if ACARS is operational, the PNF (PM) shall maintain a listening watch on the appropriate company radio frequency (either station or Delta radio) using VHF 2 at all times unless it is being used to receive ATIS or a clearance.
True.
54
While holding at runway 24 in IFR conditions at Roanoke, VA, the tower states “Compass Airlines 421, runway 24 cleared for takeoff, cleared on course”. You should:
Follow the published departure procedure.
55
If your takeoff clearance in visual conditions include the phrase “cleared on course” You should:
Unless it is noted otherwise in the Airport Information Page (10-7), proceed via your own navigation to your first fix when altitude and obstruction clearance permit, and then via your flight plan.
56
The flight crew should contact Dispatch and the Station of intended landing any time there is an ATC delay or holding beyond 15 minutes.
True.
57
You are at the de-ice pad. Your holdover time begins:
When final application of the de-ice / anti-ice fluid starts.
58
CPZ flights must pass at least 5 miles (preferably upwind) from known thunderstorms, and not takeoff and land if a thunderstorm is occurring within the airport boundary (within 5 SM of the airport center).
False.
59
Alternate fuel computation is based on what altitude and power setting?
A cruise altitude between 5000' MSL and FL200 at long-range cruise thrust.
60
Company reserve fuel is defined as:
The fuel that will provide more than 45 minutes of engine operation at long-range cruise power settings at 10,000 MSL
61
Contingency fuel is:
Designed to accommodate unplanned events, it is not required by regulation, and it's determined for each flight.
62
When using the manual weight and balance procedure, the official copy of the Dispatch release must be filed at the crew's domicile within how long?
7 days.
63
When using the ACARS weight and balance procedure, the official copy of the Dispatch release must be filed at the crew's domicile within how long?
Never. It has already been filed by Dispatch electronically.
64
If you have been provided with two sources of weather for your destination and you are trying to determine if you are legal to depart, which statement is true?
The least restrictive weather source may be used to determine legality at ETA.
65
Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true regarding exemption 3585?
The ceiling is not a factor in determining destination legality. Also, at the first alternate, the conditional ceiling AND visibility must be no lower than half that required to designate an alternate.
66
Which statement is true with regard to holdover times?
Once a holdover time is exceeded, a pre-takeoff contamination check must be completed.
67
What is a FALSE statement concerning CPS policy regarding weather radar?
a. Radar must be operative during any period when there is positive indication that thunderstorms or potentially dangerous weather detectable by airborne radar exists. b. The radar must be deferred in accordance with the MEL. c. Radar must be operative for all night IMC operations. d. Radar may be inoperative for a flight operation during any period when IFR exists and current weather reports do not indicate dangerous weather will be encountered that the radar would detect.
Radar must be operative for all night IMC operations.
68
Which of the following is required on the Dispatch release?
a. Minimum fuel b. Planned fuel c. Holding fuel d. Alternate fuel
Minimum fuel.
69
If braking action is reported as NIL, CPZ pilots may
Not takeoff nor land.
70
When it comes to windshear:
Flights must not take off nor conduct the final approach segment to a runway where ATC has reported a "Microburst Alert." b. If ATC issues a "Microburst Alert" for the runway of intended landing, a go around must be executed. c. When windshsear analysis, PIREPS or an analysis of airplane performance indicates that a loss of airspeed will be experienced on an approach (in accordance with the AOM), the approach should not be attempted.
71
What inoperative equipment is required to be listed on the Dispatch release?
All deferred / MEL'd items except NEFs must be listed on the dispatch release.
72
If a takeoff alternate airport is required for takeoff, the alternate airport must be within the following conditions:
Within 1 hour from the departure point, at normal cruising speed, in still air, with one engine inoperative
73
On your Dispatch release, you see that you have 600 lbs. of holding fuel. How is holding fuel computed?
At 10,000' MSL at holding airspeed
74
Marginal weather will require a second alternate if the:
Ceiling or visibility at the destination and alternate is forecast to be at its minimum value at their respective ETA's.
75
The forecast for your destination states: FM 1000 4SM BR SCT 012 TEMPO 1214 ¼ SM FG. The ETA at the destination is 1500Z. ILS category 1 visibility is ½ SM. In order to depart, regulations require that you dispatch under 3585.
False.
76
An alternate has been designated on a release. While examining the weather at the alternate, the PIC notices a TAF and a RAMTAF available at the ETA. The TAF indicates a lower ceiling and visibility than the RAMTAF. According to the FOM, which forecast would you use?
TAF. The FOM states the more restrictive (lower) weather must be used to determine if an alternate is legal.
77
What items are required on a Dispatch release per Compass policy?
Aircraft ID; flight number; departure, intermediate, destination, and alternate airports; type of operation, minimum fuel supply; DMIs, and crewmembers' names & ID #'s c. Aircraft ID; flight number; departure, intermediate, destination, and alternate
78
Because CPS flights are always dispatched under IFR, we always need an alternate on the release regardless of the weather.
False.
79
Icing conditions can exist with indicated OAT as high as ____ degrees C
+10C
80
SIGMET reports severe turbulence, but all forecasts indicate only moderate turbulence:
You can fly into the affected area unless a legitimate PIREP reports severe turbulence
81
Revalidation of a Dispatch release for 121 Domestic Operations is necessary if:
The flight departs an originating station after a two-hour delay
82
At what point on the release must the most restrictive WX source be applied?
At the alternate.
83
An alternate airport is NOT required for dispatch if the destination weather forecast is for conditions of:
At least 2,000' ceiling above the airport elevation and at least 3 miles visibility for at least one hour before and one hour after the ETA
84
Dispatch under 3585 is allowed if, at your ETA:
The CONDITIONAL visibility is no less than ½ that required for the approach at the destination, ½ that required to designate an alternate and at or above alternate designation requirements for the 2nd alternate.
85
To be legally dispatched under Exemption 3585, the destination's main bod
False.
86
When both prevailing visibility and RVR are reported for the particular runway you would use for takeoff, which of the two would be controlling?
RVR
87
A second alternate is required if the ceiling or visibility is forecast to be at landing minimums at the destination, and ceiling or visibility at alternate minimums at the first alternate
True
88
Which of the following are not required on the Dispatch release?
Void time
89
A convective SIGMET for severe thunderstorms would restrict CPS aircraft from flying into that area
False
90
Whenever there is a question of fuel supply being adequate for a particular operation due to wind or weather, a flight may be released to an airport other than the intended destination.
True
91
On the E175 when you accept the aircraft, the maximum difference that can exist between your indicated fuel contents and the Dispatch Release planned fuel figure, before the release must be amended is?
+/-200lbs
92
Visible moisture can be defined as:
Moisture through which you have less than 1SM visibility, or when moisture can be seen forming or running off areas of the aircraft
93
According to the FOM, CPS aircraft are certified to take off and land in moderate freezing rain and heavy freezing drizzle.
False
94
After a flight is enroute who is responsible to ensure the weather is updated as necessary to conduct a safe flight?
Dispatcher and PIC
95
Determination of suitability for an alternate airport includes the effects of wind on the runways under consideration. What is the maximum tailwind that could be forecasted and still be suitable to use any of the runways?
10kts
96
If the weather conditions at your departure airport are below the lowest Category I landing minimums for the runway(s) in use:
CPS policy requires the dispatch release to list a takeoff alternate
97
Wind shear is best described as an:
Extreme change in wind direction and/or speed in a very short distance in the atmosphere.
98
When does the radar system need to be checked?
Pilots do not specifically check the radar, since it performs a self-test upon aircraft power up.
99
While doing Option 1, you used a circling maneuver and derived M1/M2 minimums of 900 & 2. For this particular airport to be legally listed as an alternate, the forecast weather must be at or above ___?
1,000' & 3sm
100
After declaring to ATC “Minimum Fuel,” you should:
Proceed with no deviations from the planned route of flight
101
After declaring to ATC “Emergency Fuel,” you should:
Decide whether or not to divert, state fuel remaining in minutes, and land immediately and expect priority handling
102
You are cleared for takeoff from a runway intersection that is not shown on the TLR what should you do?
Take off if you have data for a more restrictive intersection
103
CPS pilots must be stabilized by 1,000 feet above TDZE, except when specified by normal operating procedures for a particular aircraft in the AOM.
True.
104
The weather for a circling approach must be:
At or above 1,000' and 3 miles, or the MDA and/or a higher visibility required of the published circling maneuver for the approach, whichever is higher.
105
When planning to circle for landing, you notice the MDA is 1,100' HAA. What altitude should you circle?
1,100' HAA
106
CPS policy regarding landing criteria is that touchdown must occur within the first ___ feet or the first 1/3 of the runway or ALD, whichever is less.
3,000'
107
Approaching Boston, you receive the following ATIS: 19007KT 6SM OVC020 17/15 A3020. Approach control has informed you to expect the ILS runway 33L, hold short of 4L. Assuming the runway 33L VASI is operational and you have the Airport Analysis/AeroData for the runway, can you land and hold short?
No.
108
You are inside the outer marker at 700' AGL on approach to runway 17 at PHL. Tower then clears you to land on runway 17 and hold short of 27R. Assuming you have the Airport Analysis data, can you accept this? Explain.
No.
109
You are inside the outer marker at 1200' AGL on approach to runway 17 at PHL. Tower then clears you to land on runway 17 and hold short of 27R. Assuming you have the Airport Analysis data, can you accept this? Explain.
Yes.
110
Never enter a gate parking area unless directed by a marshalling agent or illuminated parking device.
True.
111
To enter a gate parking area:
A marshalling agent or illuminated parking device is mandatory, marshaller's will normally be assisted by two wing walkers who will provide clearance in the parking area, one wing walker assisting the marshaller is acceptable when there is no threat to personal safety or threat of damage to the aircraft.
112
A Pushback crew normally consists of a marshaller, and tug driver and a two wing walkers
False.
113
Taxiing within 10 feet of equipment requires a guide person.
True
114
Taxiing within 5 feet of equipment is only permitted with a guide person.
False.
115
For a visual approach when an ILS is available, the FOM states that you must stay on the ILS glide slope between the outer marker and the middle marker.
True
116
All CPS turbojet aircraft must have both engines shut down for refueling.
False.
117
Reserved...
Made you look!
118
What is the MINIMUM ceiling and visibility for landing and holding short of an active runway?
1,500' and 5sm
119
Crew should organize their activities to be at the aircraft no later than ___minutes prior to departure?
40
120
You have accepted a LAHSO from the tower and they have also informed you the PAPI is OTS. What is the lowest the weather can be and accept this approach?
1,500' ceiling and 5SM visibility
121
During refueling, it is appropriate to do:? It is inappropriate to do:?
Appropriate: use the radios.
Inappropriate: test the radar, install batteries, charge batteries.
122
Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) is used at airports with landing minimums below what RVR?
1,200 RVR.
123
When conducting LAHSO operations without a VASI or PAPI what is the lowest weather minimum (ceiling & visibility) authorized (assuming electronic glide slope is available)?
1,500 FT & 5 SM
124
Which of the following is not required to be carried by CPS flight crewmembers for flight operations?
Airplane flight manual (AFM).
125
In the situation where airport analysis data / AeroData is not available for the intersection from which you are being cleared to depart:
You may depart at the cleared intersection if airport analysis data / AeroData is available for that runway for an intersection that is more restrictive
126
For a visual approach when an ILS is available, a pilot may descend below the glide slope between the outer marker and middle marker. True or False?
False.
127
If an ILS is not available for a visual approach but the VASI is, the pilot must stay on the VASI glide path until lower is needed for landing in the touchdown zone. True or False?
True.
128
After intercepting glideslope at the published glideslope intercept altitude, the tower states ”TDZ RVR 1,600”. What action is required, assuming the approach plate says RVR 18 or ½?
*NEEDS VERIFICATION!!!!!
The approach can be continued, but landing is only allowed if the flight crew determines that the flight visibility is above landing minimums.
129
On a precision approach, the final approach fix is defined by Maltese Cross.
False.
130
Any of the following visual references may be used to descend below the MDA / DA except:
May NOT use: rotating beacon.
You may use: runway End Identifier Lights (REIL), touchdown zone, touchdown zone markings, or touchdown zone lights, rotating beacon, threshold markings
131
Which of the following are NOT allowed to be used as a visual reference for descent below the DA / MDA?
Runway centerline lights.
132
The plug/winterization kits should be installed after the last flight of the day, and removed just prior to start when the forecast temperature is to go below 5ºC, or anytime there is freezing precipitation falling or forecast. Explain.
False. Ground crew is responsible for this when actual or forecast weather dictates.
133
Show time at an outstation is normally how long before scheduled departure?
45 minutes
134
RVSM airspace is any airspace or route between _______ and _______ inclusive.
FL 290, FL 410
135
When operating in RVSM airspace and when given a climb or descent to a new flight level, the aircraft should not be allowed to overshoot or undershoot the cleared flight level by more than
150ft.
136
When operating within a foreign country, CPS flight crewmembers will comply with air traffic rules of the foreign country and local airport rules, except when Part 121 Rules or CPS policy is more restrictive.
True.
137
You have been scheduled for a turnaround time in Regina, Saskatchewan of 100 minutes. If the actual turn time is under 90 minutes, you do not have to go through Canadian customs.
False. Any SCHEDULED sit of 90 or more must exit and go through customs. Schedule for less than 90 you may all stay in aircraft, except the captain for the walk around.
138
When operating in Canada, a reflective safety vest is required for all pre- and post-flight exterior walkarounds.
True.
139
Per the FOM, if the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000' appropriate emergency procedures will be initiated.
True.
140
An emergency exists when, in the opinion of the PIC, the Dispatcher, and/or ATC, the safe completion of the flight is in doubt.
True.
141
If you lose 2-way communication, you should alert ATC by squawking
7600.
| 7500= hijacking, 7700= emergency.
142
If a passenger was to lose consciousness due to an extreme illness and dies while on board an CPS aircraft, the flight may not depart until released by:
Local law enforcement or the coroner.
143
If you shut down an engine en route, the FOM states that you should divert to the nearest suitable airport in point of time and if there is more than one airport to choose from (in order!)
a. The airport should have a precision approach to a suitable runway
b. The airport should have a non-precision approach to a suitable runway and the weather should be at least 2,000' ceiling and 3 SM visibility
c. Circling approaches in IMC are discouraged and should be flown only as a last resort
144
The first aid kit may be used:
If a person is injured and needs basic first aid attention
145
The PIC must authorize the use of the emergency medical kit unless used by:
Qualified medical personnel
146
Which acronym refers to the CPS policy regarding briefing the flight attendant in an abnormal or emergency situation? Name the items.
T-E-S-T
| Add the items!
147
After an accident or incident, the PIC must:
Ensure the aircraft is secured, and pull the electronic CBs for the FDR and CVR in accordance with the FOM.
148
Your ferry flight is on an aircraft with flight characteristics that may have been appreciably changed or its operation in flight substantially altered. Who may go with you?
The CA, FO and any persons essential to the operation of the aircraft
149
Short-term escalation allows Maintenance to exceed certain maintenance check-time criteria.
True.
150
Short-term escalation allows Maintenance to extend DMI deferral periods.
True.
151
The PIC should ensure that the logbook contains
An airworthiness release sign off on the first page, at least three unused log pages before departing a maintenance base, no open write-ups since that last airworthiness release.
152
You should perform a VOR receiver accuracy check prior to the first flight of the day if it's either the 1st or the 15th, or if the aircraft is being returned to service after not being in operation through either date.
True.
153
An MEL is restrictive when:
The deferral may allow continued flight with limitations or restrictions to the use of equipment, there is any “Remark and/or Exemption” in the MEL that requires the aircraft to be flown at variance with the Dispatch Release, there are (O), (M), or (M/FC) procedures of any kind.
154
An MEL is NOT restrictive when:
There are multiple NEF items on the Summary of Deferred Items page.
The deferral period has expired (no fly!)
155
A maintenance acceptance flight can be done under instrument meteorological conditions.
True
156
You receive a dispatch release with no DMI's. During your preflight you discover a maintenance discrepancy, write it up, and call maintenance. Maintenance boards your aircraft and clears the discrepancy. You are required to revalidate the dispatch release.
False.
157
While taxiing out to runway 1R, the GPWS announces “Terrain, terrain” and the radar altimeter fluctuates 200 feet. What are the required actions?
Follow the procedures in the MECHANICAL IRREGULARITY ACTION CHART in Chapter 18 of the QRH.
158
A category “D” MEL can be deferred for how long?
120 days
159
An item on the airplane has failed and is deferred IAW the MEL. It has been noted as a category B item. It must be repaired within ___ calendar days, not including the day of discovery?
3 days
160
A crew leaving an aircraft with an open entry in the discrepancy block of the flight log will leave the logbook open to the page and place it on the PIC's seat.
True.
161
Today is May 18. A category “C” MEL was deferred on May 16. When is the aircraft no longer legal to operate without having an extension for the DMI?
May 28th.
162
A condition that results in an intermittent CAS message or Pushbutton light, including flickering caution/warning lights, are to be considered possibly operating outside design parameters and therefore should be considered as a possible mechanical irregularity.
True.
163
A Flight Attendant is allowed to reset a tripped circuit breaker located in the cabin.
False.
164
Unless advised that circumstances dictate otherwise, the gate agent will begin passenger boarding thirty five minutes prior to scheduled departure time for the first flight of the day departing a station, and thirty minutes prior to scheduled departure for all other flights.
True.
165
CPS does not allow the carriage of live animals
False.
166
A difficulty seating a handicapped person has been referred to the CRO. What does CRO stand for?
Complaint Resolution Officer
167
Unaccompanied minors are between the ages:
5-11 years old.
168
A child-restraint system is allowed aboard CPS aircraft provided
It is an approved system which bears the labels outlined in the Operations Manual, a parent, guardian, or a personal attendant provides it, the parent, guardian, or personal attendant accompanies the child.
169
CPS may not carry high-risk prisoners.
False
170
When does the Fasten Seatbelt sign have to be on?
During taxi, takeoff, landing, and any other time considered necessary by the PIC
171
Concerning a passenger with a disability who is not qualified to occupy an exit row seat and refuses to move from the seat:
The PIC is required to contact the Company Complaint Resolution Officer (CRO)
172
Concerning a disruptive passenger who has verbally abused a FA and refused to comply with regulations while still at the gate:
The PIC should call airport security and have the passenger removed from the aircraft.
173
An animal carried in the cargo compartment of a Compass aircraft may only be carried in the ___ cargo compartment.
Forward
174
If a passenger objects to a service animal, the CSA must advise that passenger of the rights of the disabled traveler and, if necessary, find another seat for the objecting passenger or remove that passenger from the AC.
True
175
In accordance with CPS policy, what is the maximum amount of dry ice that is permitted for an individual to bring into the cabin as carry-on?
5.5 lbs
176
According to CPS policy, which of the following HAZMAT materials are allowed onboard?
Wheel chair batteries, dry ice and small amounts of small arms ammunition for personal use
177
What oxygen equipment may be carried and used by a passenger aboard a Compass flight?
An oxygen concentrator on the approved list in the Compass FAM.
178
CPS policy states that no person may act as a crewmember (including reporting for duty) within how long after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage?
12 hours.
179
What are the flight limitations after a crewmember donates blood?
24 hours.
180
After having a blood test, how long before you can fly again?
There are no limits for a blood test.
181
When flying, unless you are issued with a Temporary Confirmation Document or an FAA Temporary Authorization fax, you must always carry:
A current and valid pilot certificate, a current and valid medical certificate, a CPS ID badge.
182
According to FAR Part 117, each flight crewmember must have at least 30 consecutive hours off from all duty in any 168 consecutive hour period.
True
183
In accordance with CPS policy, a pilot must submit a copy of his/her medical certificate to flight operations:
By 5pm of the 20th day of the month in which the medical is due .
184
A CPS pilot may not be scheduled to fly more than ___ hours between required rest periods?
Either 8 or 9, depending on duty-on time.
185
You inadvertently left your pilot and medical certificates at home. They are current and the Company has a copy in the files.
You can fly your flight if you obtain a “Temporary Confirmation Document” from CPS or a Temporary Authorization fax from the FAA.
186
Upon completing a formal portion of training such as IOE, each crewmember will contact Crew Scheduling as soon as possible
True
187
You must have at least 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days to act as a flight crewmember.
True.
188
Taking off from Missoula, MT. Runway 29 ATIS reports: OVC 002 15009G12 1SM. Can a low-time SIC perform this takeoff?
No, this is a special airport.
189
To which of the following restrictions must a High Minimums Pilot in Command adhere?
A CAT I approach may not be initiated if the visibility is less than 3/4sm (or 4000RVR), the crosswind component is greater than 15kts, AND the braking action report is less than 'good,' and a CAT I approach must be flown to DA coupled to the autopilot.
190
Which of the following is a special airport?
| a. Akron, Ohio b. Detroit, Michigan c. Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania d. Hayden, Colorado
Hayden, Colorado
191
At which airport is a low-time SIC prohibited from performing a takeoff?
KDCA.
192
A low-time SIC can take off and land if:
Reported RVR is 4,500'.
May NOT takeoff: The crosswind component for the runway to be used is 16 knots, windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport, the runway to be used has water, snow, slush, or similar conditions that may adversely affect airplane performance.
193
What are the requirements for maintaining currency at CPS?
3 takeoffs and landings in the previous 90 days
194
How do you know your See Gee calculator is the current version?
By referring to the AOM I, Chapter 8 Weight and Balance
195
A heavy checked bag weighs how much more than normal checked bag?
Twice.
196
What must be completed in ACARS in order to be able to SEND* and acquire a weight and balance solution?
Initialization, T/O conditions, and all amber fields in the LOADSHEET pages.
197
When non-standard weights are entered on ACARS, that section of the cabin on LOADSHEET 1/2 has a green asterisk displayed next to its passenger weights to indicate that additional weight is being tallied for that section.
True.
198
The use of the CARGO DETAIL sub-pages for ACARS Weight and Balance:
Requires a checked bag entry number both FWD and AFT even if it is zero, but heavy and cargo are optional.
199
According to the average weight program, a seeing-eye dog weighs how much?
80 pounds.
200
On the fifth of October, seven adults, one 13-year-old, and one two-year-old are on board. How much do they weigh?
1,602 lbs.
201
How much does a thirteen-year-old child weigh?
As much as a regular passenger with respect to the season
202
According to the average weight program, how much does a flight attendant weigh?
170 pounds.
203
According to the average weight program, how much would a three-year-old that is in a CRS (child restraint system) weigh?
82 lbs (Summer) or 87 lbs (Winter) + 0 lbs. for the CRS
204
A carry-on bag weighs ___ lbs. when stored under the seat?
0 lbs.
205
Generally speaking, for better performance it is imperative to “clean up” the aircraft when encountering windshear.
False.
206
If executing a missed approach prior to reaching the MAP or DA, fly the instrument procedure to the MAP at an altitude at or above the MDA or DA before executing a turning maneuver.
True.
207
Approaching Philadelphia, approach control states: “Cleared ILS runway 17, circle to land 27R”. Assuming your approach speed is 134 KIAS, what is the furthest you should deviate from the runway ends to ensure obstruction clearance?
1.7 nm.
208
You are number one for takeoff and after several attempts to contact tower for the departure clearance you realize that you have a complete radio failure. You look at the tower and observe a flashing white light. What does the tower want you to do?
Return to the original starting point at the gate.
209
What are the speed ranges for category A, B, C, D and E aircraft, respectively?
<91 knots, 91-120 knots, 121-140 knots, 141-165 knots, 166 knots
210
While returning to Dulles, Washington center tells you, “Descend and maintain 8,000', proceed direct to PEFER and hold as published.” What is the maximum holding speed?
230KIAS
211
The maximum allowable indicated airspeed while operating below class B airspace is ___ KIAS?
200 KIAS.
212
Basic VFR visibility requirements at night in class E airspace while cruising at 8,000' are:
3sm.
213
At KMSP, ground control clears you to taxi to Runway 12R. This clearance permits you to cross any active runway except for 12R.
False!
