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Must Memorize > General Oral questions > Flashcards

General Oral questions Flashcards

1
Q

During start, when is an engine considered stable?

A

When the red EGT start limit line goes away
-Usually 62-67 N2

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2
Q

When is approach idle selected?

A

In flight:
-Nacelle anti ice ON
-Flaps in a landing position
-Continuous ignition switch ON
On the ground:
-During reverse thrust operation
-Maintained 5 seconds after touchdown

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3
Q

What powers the IRUs?

A

AC bus 3, 1, 2 = L, C, R

DC= APU hot battery bus
-Center IRU operates on DC for 5 min then shuts down
-30min for L and R

Memory jogger: APU selector is right below IRUs on overhead panel

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4
Q

How long should you wait to turn off the battery switch after the APU selector is rotated to OFF?

A

2 minutes (To ensure fire detection)

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5
Q

What is powered when the airplane is cold and dark?

A

Main hot battery bus and APU hot battery bus

FIRE PROTECTION
OUTFLOW VALVES

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6
Q

What is powered when you go from cold and dark to battery switch ON?

A

MAIN and APU battery busses come on in addition to the hot busses.

FIRE DETECTION now comes on
ABILITY TO START APU

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7
Q

You were cold and dark, turned the battery switch ON, and now just turned the STANDBY selector to AUTO. What is powered?

A

Now the MAIN STANDBY BUS and APU STANDBY BUS

YOU GET CAPTAINS SCREENS AND CDU

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8
Q

When would you get a DRIVE light on an IDG drive disconnect switch?

A

-Excessively high IDG oil temp (Auto disconnect)
-Low IDG oil pressure
-Uncorrectable generator frequency fault

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9
Q

When would you get a SYS FAULT light on the hydraulic panel?

A

-Low hydraulic pressure
-Low hydraulic fluid quantity
-Excessively high hydraulic fluid temperature

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10
Q

When does a hydraulic demand pump run when in AUTO?

A

-When respective EDP pressure low
-When respective fuel selector is cutoff
-1&4 run on the ground during flap transit past 1 (stop once position reached), and in the air continuously once flaps past 1

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11
Q

Do the demand pumps stay on while on the ground?

A

No. There is an overheat possibility

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12
Q

What powers the #4 hydraulic AUX pump?

A

Ground handling bus

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13
Q

The #4 hydraulic AUX pump shuts down automatically___

A

When engine 4 EDP pressurizes

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14
Q

If you could only have 1 hydraulic system, what would it be? Why?

A

2

Because you have alternate brakes, BUT ALSO stab trim. (If you chose #4, you wouldn’t have stab trim. Hard to land a plane without stab trim)

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15
Q

What hydraulic system powers what autopilots?

A

3, 1, 2 = L, C, R

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16
Q

Which demand pumps are electric and which are pneumatic?

A

Electric: 2 and 3
Pneumatic: 1 and 4

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17
Q

Name some items on hydraulic system 1.

A

-Inboard TE flaps
-Center Autopilot
-Nose gear steering and actuation (retraction/extension)
-Body gear steering and actuation (Retraction/extension)

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18
Q

Name some systems on hydraulic system 2.

A

-Right autopilot
-Lower yaw damper
-Lower rudder
-Stab trim

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18
Q

Name some systems on hydraulic system 2.

A

-Right autopilot
-Lower yaw damper
-Lower rudder

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19
Q

Name some systems on hydraulic system 3.

A

-Left autopilot
-Stab trim
-Upper rudder
-Upper yaw damper

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20
Q

Name some systems on hydraulic system 4.

A

-Normal brakes
-Outboard TE flaps
-Wing gear actuation (extension/retraction)

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21
Q

When do the outboard ailerons lockout?

A

Above 238 knots

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22
Q

What drives the leading edge flaps?

A

Bleed air (normal)
Electrically (secondary and alternate)

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23
Q

Do you get flap load relief in secondary or alternate flap modes?

A

No load relief

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24
Q

When do you get flap asymmetry protection?

A

Primary and secondary mode

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25
Q

There are 3 FCUs (flap control units). What modes use FCUs?

A

Primary and secondary

(Alternate does not use FCUs)

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26
Q

During alternate flap mode, how do the flaps operate? What is the maximum flap setting?

A

They all move at the same time EXCEPT for retraction. During retraction, the leading edge only retract after all of the trailing edge flaps are retracted.
TE THEN LE

Max flap setting is 25

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27
Q

When would the flaps automatically switch to secondary mode?

A

Any flap group fails to move to the commanded position. The change occors for symmetrical flap groups on both wings

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28
Q

How many dual loop smoke detectors in the lower lobes?

A

FWD: 4
AFT: 4

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29
Q

How many fire bottles for the lower lobes? How long do they provide protection?

A

4 total

210 minutes of protection

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30
Q

How many dual-loop smoke detectors are on the main deck?

A

16

They are technically particle sensors and not detectors
-Linda said so?

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31
Q

Where is the APU fire panel located outside?

A

Right body gear well

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32
Q

What is stable N2 after engine start?

A

62-67%

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33
Q

Do you have hot, hung, and no EGT rise protection during a manual start?

A

No

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34
Q

When is continuous ignition automatically selected on?

A

-Trailing edge flaps are out of up
-NAI on
-Engine flame out

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35
Q

Can you get a fuel imbalance message on the ground?

A

No, only in flight

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36
Q

When you press a jettison fuel switch, what override/jettison pumps activate?

A

All in tanks that have fuel (switch must be on)

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37
Q

During jettison, if you are on channel A, and it fails, does it switch to B?

A

No

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38
Q

How does the fuel flow during jettison?

A

Fuel is jettisoned from 2 and 3. Main 1 and 4 transfer valves open when 2 and 3 are below 9,072 KGs and feed 2 and 3 where the fuel is jettisoned from. Also CWT jettisons fuel using its own pumps if there is fuel in the tank

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39
Q

How many cabin altitude controllers?

A

2 (A and B)

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40
Q

Normally, pressurization is fully automatic. What landing field elevation would require you to manually enter the LFE?

A

Any field above 8,000’

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41
Q

If no cruise altitude and landing field elevation is in the FMC, what are the defaults that the cabin pressure controller uses?

A

Cruise alt: 39,000

Landing field: 2,000’

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42
Q

If the cabin altitude gets to 11,000’, the outflow valves close to help limit the cabin altitude. How does the aircraft protect itself against overpressure?

A

Pack 2 is shut off
Overpressure relief valve opens

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43
Q

Where is the overpressure relief valve located?

A

Forward of the left wing root fairing

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44
Q

Where are negative pressure relief valves located?

A

Side cargo door, forward cargo door, aft cargo door

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45
Q

What are the available temperature ranges for all of the zones?

A

-Flight deck: 18-29C
-Upper deck/crew rest: +/- 6C from flight deck setting
-Main deck and lower lobes: 4-29C

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46
Q

When would you see a SYS FAULT light on the ZONE RST switch?

A

-Temp zone overheat or fault
-Master trim air failed closed or is off
-Trim air valve is closed and pack air continues to flow (This means you are in the backup mode)

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47
Q

When does the equipment cooling system turn to flight mode? What do you do if it doesn’t?

A

-When at least 1 engine is running on each wing
-If it does not automatically configure, go to STBY mode to force it into flight mode

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48
Q

Normally “flight mode” for equipment cooling is to have EE air blasted into the forward lower lobe. What if you selected the temperature to be less than 10C in the forward lobe in flight?

A

The equipment cooling would go into closed loop mode.

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49
Q

What would cause a SYS FAULT light on the bleed system?

A

-Bleed overheat
-Bleed overpressure
-HP valve open when commanded closed
-PRV open when commanded closed

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50
Q

What are some items on the left bleed duct?

A

-Pack 1
-Left wing anti ice
-Hydraulic demand pump 1
-LE flaps (left wing)
-Hydraulic reservoir pressure 1 and 2

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51
Q

What are some items on the right bleed duct?

A

-Pack 3
-Right wing anti ice
-Hydraulic demand pump 4
-LE flaps (right wing)
-Hydraulic reservoir pressure 3 and 4

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52
Q

What are some items on the center bleed duct?

A

-Trim air
-Aft cargo heat
-Water pressure
-Smoke detector pressure
-Pack 2

-HP external cart
-APU bleed

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53
Q

What would a SYS FAULT light indicate on the PACK RST switch?

A

-PACK OVERHEAT or other system fault

(May flash if PTC channels switch after landing or manually)

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54
Q

When in the NORM position, what does a pack do?

A

It alternates every flight (after landing) between PTC A and B

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55
Q

If you manually select PTC A, and it fails, does it switch to B automatically?

A

Yes, and same the other way around

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56
Q

When do the packs automatically go into high flow?

A

-Whenever not in FMC cruise
-Whenever LLCCAFR switch in LOW BOTH or any HIGH mode

NOTE: if you level off lower than FMC cruise packs will stay in High flow until you change your cruise alt in the box

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57
Q

What happens when you select the LLCCAFR switch LOW FWD?

A

2/3 of pack 3 air to FWD compartment (Pack 3 HI flow)

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58
Q

What happens when you select the LLCCAFR switch to LOW AFT?

A

2/3 of pack 2 air to AFT compartment (Pack 2 HI flow)

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59
Q

What happens when you select the LLCCAFR switch to LOW BOTH?

A

2/3 of pack 3 air to FWD

2/3 of pack 2 air to AFT

ALL PACKS HIGH FLOW

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60
Q

What happens when you select the LLCCAFR switch to HIGH FWD?

A

-All of pack 3 air goes to FWD compartment
-ALL PACKS HIGH FLOW

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61
Q

What happens when you select LLCCAFR switch to HIGH AFT?

A

-All pack 2 air to AFT compartment
-ALL PACKS HIGH FLOW

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62
Q

What does the aft cargo heat switch do? What does the amber TEMP mean?

A

ON: Heats floor of aft and bulk cargo
OFF: Shuts off heat

TEMP: excessive temperature in compartment. Shuts off air to compartment automatically. (Overheat shutoff valve)

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63
Q

Name all the autothrottle modes

A

-THR REF
-THR
-SPD
-IDLE
-HOLD

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64
Q

What mode roll and pitch modes would you be in if you turn the flight director off and back on in flight

A

DEFAULT MODES:

ROLL: Either ATT (more than 5 degrees) or HDG HOLD (Less than 5 degrees)

PITCH: V/S (unless VSI absolutely 0 which ALT would be the mode)

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65
Q

When do the speedbrakes deploy on landing?

A

If armed:
-Thrust levers 1 and 3 near idle
AND
-Main landing gear touchdown

(Backup is either reversers 2 OR 4 will also deploy spoilers if not armed)

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66
Q

After touchdown, if thrust lever 1 and 3 is near idle, speedbrakes go up. What happens if you need to go around? (When do they stow)

A

If thrust lever 1 OR 3 is advanced

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67
Q

What powers the inboard trailing edge flaps?

A

Hydraulic system 1

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68
Q

What powers the outboard trailing edge flaps?

A

Hydraulic system 4

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69
Q

What are the 3 protections the EEC provides in normal mode?

A

-Overspeed protection
-Thrust limiting (overboost)
-Constant thrust for changing temp, pressure, and bleed demands

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70
Q

Do the EECs talk to each other?

A

No

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71
Q

During an engine autostart, you are responsible for monitoring_______

A

N1 and oil pressure. (Must have those by 62-67% N2)

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72
Q

What happens when you move a fuel selector to cutoff?

A

-Cuts off fuel to respective engine
-Unlocks respective fire switch
-Starts respective demand pump (If demand pump selector is in auto)
-Stops ignition if there was any

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73
Q

Can you navigate using the center CDU?

A

No, its for ACARS only

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74
Q

How many flight plans can the FMC store?

A

7

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75
Q

Priority of IRS input data

A

1.) GPS
2.) LOC
3.) D/D (dme/dme)
4.) V/D (vor/dme)
5.) V/V (vor/vor)

(basically just know GPS is the most accurate and commonly used…)

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76
Q

How long does an IRS quick align take? What position do you select on the selector? What is the point of a quick align?

A

30 seconds

Rotate to ALIGN

To remove accumulated positional errors (CAN ONLY DO ON THE GROUND)

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77
Q

What PFD instruments are supplied by the IRS?

A

-Attitude
-Heading
-IVSI
-Trends
-Slip/skid

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78
Q

Normally after power up, both yaw damper lights have an amber INOP light on the switch. When does this go away?

A

After the first IRU aligns

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79
Q

How long is a normal IRS alignment?

A

10 minutes

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80
Q

During IRS alignment, where does it display time to align?

A

Top left of ND

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81
Q

ATT on an IRS selector is used for what?

A

As an emergency method to restore attitude in flight if an IRU fails. It requires magnetic heading input on the CDU

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82
Q

Where is the external power receptacle located?

A

On the lower right side of the aircraft. Basically directly below the FO seat

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83
Q

On the external power receptacle, there are 2 ports to plug in either EXT 1 or EXT 2. Which is on the right and which is left?

A

Left: EXT 1
Right: EXT 2

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84
Q

-Which bus has flight deck access lights? (so you can walk onto a dark plane and walk up the stairs to the cockpit)

A

What ever is powering the ground handeling bus will power the Ground SERVICE bus (use the ground service switch)

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85
Q

Does autoland isolation isolate just the AC system? Or is it both the AC and DC system?

A

Both AC (BTB) and DC (DCIR)

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86
Q

To disconnect an IDG, the thrust must be______

A

Above idle

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87
Q

What is the ELCU load shed priority?

A

First gally, then onto the fuel pumps

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88
Q

Can you outbrake MAX AUTO?

A

Yes

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89
Q

Can you outbrake RTO?

A

No

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90
Q

What are the ways to turn off autobrakes?

A

-Tap the toe brakes
-Reach down and turn them off

91
Q

LEADING EDGE FLAPS: On the secondary flap expanded display, what does an amber hollow box mean? An amber solid box? An amber box with crosshatches?

A

Amber hollow box: Flaps failed up
Amber solid box: Flaps failed extended
Amber crosshatches: Flaps failed in transit

92
Q

LEADING EDGE FLAPS: On the secondary flap expanded display, what does a white hollow box mean? A white solid box? A white box with crosshatches?

A

White hollow box: Flaps up
White solid box: Flaps extended
White crosshatches: Flaps in transit

93
Q

What does an amber X mean in a secondary flaps expanded display in reference to the trailing edge flaps?

A

Sensor failed

94
Q

What do the FCUs provide?

A

-Primary control
-Secondary control
-Indication and annunciation

95
Q

What happens when a rudder ratio changer fails?

A

The response of the related rudder will be stuck at the airspeed ratio of when the failure occurred. (For example if it failed at high speed, you would not have full deflection, affecting your crosswind landing capability

96
Q

If you switch the #4 AUX hydraulic pump on, what lights extinguish?

A

-Hydraulic SYS FAULT
-Brake accumulator BRAKE SOURCE

97
Q

What is a HYDIM and a HYQUIM? How many of each?

A

HYDIM: Dedicated interface module. Processes temp and pressure and pump logic. 4 total (1 per system)

HYQUIM: Hydraulic quantity interface module. 1 total

98
Q

What does it mean if the SYS FAUT lights are all flashing on and off for the hydraulic system?

A

HYQUIM fail

99
Q

During closed loop equipment cooling, how does the air get cool?

A

From conditioned pack air

100
Q

What valve opens on the ground to dump EE air overboard? What is the valve called that would open to dump air into FWD cargo?

A

Ground exhaust valve

Inboard exhaust valve

101
Q

How many fans are running in closed loop mode?

A

BOTH!

it can run with only one fan if one fails for some reason. the systems diagram is misleading

102
Q

How many fans are running in smoke override mode?

A

None

103
Q

When you depressurize the cabin to fight a main deck fire, is it rapid decompression or controlled?

A

Controlled

104
Q

Once fuel to remain is reached during jettison, does the system stop the jettison automatically? What indication do you get on upper EICAS?

A

Yes, it stops automatically. Fuel to remain flashes for 5 seconds then turns white

105
Q

If you selected fuel to remain as 0, could you theoretically jettison the pane empty?

A

No, because standpipe level for main 2 and 3 is 3,200

106
Q

Where would you find the “ice shedding” procedure? Where you run the engine up to get rid of fan ice before takeoff

A

FCOM VOL 1 Supplemental

107
Q

What does any VALVE light mean on the overhead?

A

Valve not in commanded position

108
Q

When are the side windows heated? The front windows?

A

Side: When AC power is applied
Front: When you have AC power, and the switches are on

109
Q

What happens when you turn an engine bleed switch off?

A

-Engine bleed valve closes
-PRV closes
-HP closes

110
Q

With the engine bleed valve closed, would you still be able to get nacelle anti-ice or reverse thrust?

A

Yes. Depending on a few things.. As long as none of the below statements have occurred

for Nacelle anti ice to work: (or statements)
-PRV has failed closed
-PRV closed due to a bleed overheat
-Start valve not closed
-HP valve failed open

For engine reverse thrust to work (or statements)
-PRV has failed closed
-PRV closed due to a bleed overheat
-start vavle not closed

111
Q

If the engine bleed switch is on, it opens the engine bleed valve. This allows_____

A

The PRV and HP to open with positive pressure

112
Q

What causes a SYS FAULT light on the bleed system?

A

-HP valve open when commanded closed
-Overheat
-Overpressure
-PRV open when commanded closed

(HOOP)

113
Q

On landing, what LE flaps retract?

A

Midspan and inboard

114
Q

How many ZTCs?

A

1

115
Q

On initial power up, the temperature is set to__

A

24C

116
Q

What does the ZONE RST switch do?

A

-Resets the ZTC
-Reopens master trim air valve if overheat no longer exists
-Reopens lower lobe trim air shutoff valve if overheat no longer exists

117
Q

What are the backup modes for temperature control? When would you be in backup mode?

A

1.) If flight deck zone selector works, packs use that
2.) Last known setting
3.) 24C

Backup mode is entered whenever the master trim air valve is closed

118
Q

In air temperature backup mode, what PTC channel is selected automatically? What if it fails?

A

A is always selected. If it fails, it goes to B

119
Q

Does the flight deck fan work in flight?

A

No

120
Q

What is the maximum cabin altitude?

A

8,000’

121
Q

What happens at 8,500’ cabin altitude?

A

Cabin altitude indication turns amber

122
Q

What happens at 10,000’ cabin altitude?

A

Cabin altitude indication turns red with master warning

123
Q

What happens at 11,000’ cabin altitude?

A

Outflow valves close
Pack 2 shuts down
Overpressure valves open

124
Q

What happens at 14,000’ cabin altitude?

A

Masks drop

125
Q

Can 1 functioning outflow valve handle pressurization?

A

Yes

126
Q

In AUTO on the HDG bug, what bank does the plane do?

A

Between 15-25 degrees, depending on TAS and flap setting

127
Q

What is the maximum climb and descent that you can select on the V/S switch?

A

Climb: 6,000
Descent: 8,000

128
Q

What are all of the AFDS PFD indications?

A

-FD
-CMD
-LAND 3
-LAND 2
-NO AUTOLAND

129
Q

What are all of the pitch modes?

A

-TOGA
-VNAV SPD
-VNAV PTH
-VNAV ALT
-FLCH SPD
-ALT
-V/S
-G/S
-FLARE

130
Q

What are all of the roll modes?

A

-TOGA
-LNAV
-HDG SEL
-HDG HOLD
-ATT
-LOC
-ROLLOUT

131
Q

What would give you a TAKEOFF CONFIG warning?

A

On the ground with fuel control in run
-Flaps not in takeoff position
-Body gear not centered
-Parking brake set
-Speedbrake up
-Stab trim not in takeoff range

132
Q

What would give you a LANDING CONFIG warning?

A

Gear not down and:
-Any thrust lever closed below 800 RA
or
-Flaps in a landing position

133
Q

What would give you the CONFIG SPOILERS warning?

A

Speedbrakes extended and you go to climb or greater thrust

134
Q

If you move the yoke elevator trim switch when the autopilot is on, will it disconnect the autopilot?

A

1 autopilot: yes
2 or more autopilots: No, those switches inhibited

135
Q

Will running the alternate stab trim switch with the autopilot on disconnect the autopilot?

A

No, regardless of how many autopilots

136
Q

How long are status messages inhibited after you start the engines?

A

30 minutes after takeoff

137
Q

What are the 4 items on an exterior safety inspection?

A

-Chocks in place
-Landing gear door position
-Flight control surfaces clear
-APU exhaust area

138
Q

When are the pitot, AOA, and ice detectors heated? When are the TAT probes heated?

A

-Pitot and AOA: When any engine is started
-TAT and Ice detectors: After liftoff

139
Q

How many navlights per wing?

A

2 red 2 green per wing

140
Q

When is the only time a brake wear indicator is accurate?

A

When the parking brake is set

141
Q

What is the wind limit for cargo doors?

A

In transit: 40 knots
Open: 65 knots

142
Q

Outflow valves should both be ____ on your walk around.

A

Open

143
Q

You see a static port way back on the tail section. What is it for?

A

Elevator feel

144
Q

Repair interval category A time:

A

Time interval specific

145
Q

Repair interval category B time:

A

3 days (72 hours)

146
Q

Repair interval category C time?

A

10 days

147
Q

Repair interval category D time:

A

120 days

148
Q

NEF repair interval category:

A

120 days

149
Q

When does the time begin counting down for a repair interval?

A

At midnight zulu

150
Q

Can you takeoff with a low gross weight aft CG condition?

A

No, it is a CA only supplemental procedure (Supplemental General)

151
Q

What is the “shimmy damper” looking thing on the nosewheel and the body gear?

A

Steering actuator

152
Q

What happens when you arm a main deck cargo fire switch?

A

-Enables main deck fire suppression
-Shuts down 2 packs
-Configures equipment cooling to closed loop
-Shuts off all air to main deck and lower lobes
-Shuts off master trim air valve

153
Q

What happens when you arm a lower lobe cargo fire switch?

A

-Shuts off 2 packs
-Configures equipment cooling to override
-Shuts off air to lower lobes
-Closes master trim air valve
-Arms fire bottles

154
Q

What is the max degree angle that the nose wheel can move?

A

-7 degrees with rudder pedals
-70 with tiller

155
Q

Regarding the gear door handles, when will they depressurize the respective gear doors?

A

-gear door handle down
-If you see a gear door open, find out the reason why its open from mx. If the gear door is open and handel is up… DANGER door will close once hydraulic system is pressurized

156
Q

The word UP goes away after how many seconds after retracting the gear?

A

10

157
Q

Why do we keep the gear in the OFF position during flight?

A

-to allow the uplocks to hold the gear up and not draw undue hydraulic pressure
-to not freeze the lines

158
Q

If alternate gear extension is used, what locks the gear into place after extension?

A

-Springs for the main and body gear
-Nose is held down by mechanical advantage

159
Q

Why do we pressurize hydraulic system 4 first before start then last after shutdown?

A

To prevent fluid transfer from system 1 or 2 into 4. This only occurs IF system 4 is depressurized and system 1 OR 2 is pressurized and the brake pedals are pressed.
-Via break return lines

160
Q

Regarding Engine Driven hydraulic pumps, more power =

A

more volume. Same 3000PSI

161
Q

What is ‘ground handling’ regarding AUX pump 4?
What bus powers aux 4?

A

-Breaks
-Ground handling bus

162
Q

Why do we use AUX 4 during engine start?

A

To reduce bleed air demands during engine start

163
Q

What does it mean when the break source light is illuminated?

A

systems 4, 1 and 2 are not pressurized. No breaks

164
Q

What is the difference between FLAPS PRIMARY, FLAPS DRIVE, FLAPS CONTROL

A

FLAPS PRIMARYL: Primary mode is lost
FLAPS DRIVE: asymmetric
FLAPS CONTROL: You lost all 3 FCUs

165
Q

Where is the AED located?

A

Loadmasters closet

166
Q

Will you get overheat protection when a temperature selector is in the 6 o’clock position (MAN)

A

No

167
Q

What does the OBS audio system switch do?NORM CAPT F/O

A

This essentially robs the first observer audio panel and allows either the captain or FO to use it

168
Q

Explain this switch on the overhead mx panel

A

“Hotwires” captains radio to VHF L (‘shark fin’ on top of the aircraft) in case crew is unable to use normal means of communication. No volume control, plays at full blast.

169
Q

What’s the difference between an orange MEL sticker and a white one?

A

Orange requires logbook entry for every flight

170
Q

What’s the difference between an orange MEL sticker and a white one?

A

Orange requires logbook entry for every flight

171
Q

Why are some items on the quick action index (Front of QRH) larger than others?

A

-Large print is for possible smoke/fumes or fog.
-Easily viewed through o2 mask

172
Q

Why are there two seperate checklists for evacuation? one is on the glareshield card for immediate actions and the other is on the back of the QRH.

A

Back of QRH: Planned evacuation
Glareshield card: unplanned evacuation.

173
Q

Where does the APU get its fuel from?

A

AC power available:
-MAIN pump 2 AFT
-Main pump 3 aft runs as a backup and to prevent tank to tank transfer

Only DC power is available:
-Starts the APU with a dedicated DC pump in main tank 2

174
Q

What is a FSMC?

A

Fuel System Management Card
-Commands fuel valves and fuel pumps for all operations

175
Q

When does main tank fuel quantity turn amber?

A

Less than 900KGs

176
Q

During an autostart, NO EGT rise is detected. The EEC cuts off fuel and ignition, motors for 30 seconds then applies fuel and ignition to how many ignitors?

A

BOTH

177
Q

Minimum duct pressure for engine start

A

30PSI
-1 PSI per 1000’ of PA

178
Q

With the LLCCFR switch off,
Conditioned air and Trim are are _______ to the Lower lobes

A

Cuttoff

179
Q

Duct Pressure turns amber at what PSI?

A

11PSI

180
Q

Regarding the packs, What happens at 9.4PSI differential pressure?

A

Pack 2 shuts off

181
Q

VMO/MMO memory aid

A

How many days in the year?
-365
Standard altimeter setting?
-29.92

VMO: 365
MMO:
-transitions at FL 290
-.92M

182
Q

If you lose both FMCs, what are you limited to regarding CDU pages that you can still access?

A

-PROG
-Legs
-Nav/Rad

PLN is the memory aid

183
Q

On the interphone switch, right above the engine fire switches, you see SERV and CABIN/CARGO. What is the diffrence?

A

-SERV: connectes interphone to Mx jacks scattered around the aircraft (APU, Nose, gear well) used for mechanics to communicate with each other

-CABIN/CARGO:
-Cargo loaders can talk with each other and two handsets in the crew rest bunks

184
Q

How do you know if an ILS is autotuned?

A

Left corner of ND displays 3 letter ICAO code for the ILS

185
Q

When are the TOGA switches enabled in flight?

A

-Flaps out of up
-G/S capture

186
Q

Explain THR REF

A

100% of reference N1

187
Q

Explain THR

A

“The amount of thrust required for the task at hand”

188
Q

Explain FLCH SPD

A

“Pitching for a rate”
-Tries to get to the selected altitude in 2 mins

189
Q

On approach, GA is armed, you press the TOGA switch once, what happens? What about a second press?

A

One press: THR will give you 2000 FMP in the climb
Second Press: THR REF will give you 100% of GA

190
Q

LOC will capture within how many degrees?

A

120

191
Q

TOGA pitch mode will pitch for what speed after roatition?

A

V2 + 10 up to v2+ 25

192
Q

Below 200’ a change from LAND 3 to LAND 2 will

A

Not be shown untill touchdown

193
Q

When will the horn in the nose wheel sound?

A

-IRUs on DC power
-Equipment cooling is overheating

194
Q

Explain walking the MCP

A

1.Flight director is on
2. AT Arm
3. LNAV VNAV
4. Runway HDG
5. ALT

195
Q

How do you re-engage you autothrottles?

A

If you are in a non integrated pitch mode (3 letters) Examples: ALT, V/S, G/S

-You must press either SPD or THR
NOTE: USE SPD
-SPD will speed protect you. It will chase the commanded speed
-THR will ignore all speed restrictions and bring you up to the barber pole.

If you are in an integrated pitch mode (not three letters) Examples: VNAV SPD

-You must cycle autothrottles to off then arm again

196
Q

Describe the priority logic of each EIU? Left Center Right

A

Captains: Left Center Right
FOs: Right Center Left
EICAS: Center Left Right

197
Q

Describe the three functions of the THR switch

A
  1. Engine out operations the THR switch will give you CON (Continuous thrust)
  2. All engines operating, above 400’ after take off but below thrust reduction height, First press will give you “Armed thrust limit” In this case climb thrust
  3. One way to re engage the autothrottles if you are in a non integrated pitch mode
198
Q

What does EEC stand for?

A

Electronic Engine Controls

199
Q

IRUs are made up of what

A

3 laser ring gyros
3 accelerometers

200
Q

Can we allign an IRU in flight?

A

No

201
Q

What are synoptic pages for?

A

Reference ONLY
Don’t run checklists based off synoptic page

202
Q

What fuel pumps can be shed during load sheding?

A

-Override and main pump 2 FORWARD
-L CWT override pump
-Override and main pump 3 FORWARD

203
Q

IF the APU exceeds a limit or detects a fire it will?

A

Shut down

Detects a fire on the ground it will blow the bottle

204
Q

Tank to engine is inhibited when?

A

Take off roll
Jettision

205
Q

When is jettison time to remain accurate?

A

after 90 seconds

206
Q

What does the navigating on the aircraft

A

FMCs

207
Q

If an FMC fails will it automatically switch to the other working?

A

No

208
Q

How do you know what is updating the IRU?

A

Bottom right corner of the ND

209
Q

What databases are in the FMC

A

NAV and Performance

210
Q

How often is a full alignment required?

A

18 hrs

211
Q

How long does a full alignment take?

A

Approximentally 10 min it will start with (7+)

212
Q

How long must you stay straight and level when switching to ATT after an IRU has failed

A

30 secs

213
Q

Is there a non-normal checklist for landing with STBY power?

A

NO. You should be familiar with the procedure in the Boeing Flight Crew Training Manual

214
Q

When does AC and DC power isolate during nd autoland?

A

1500 RA

215
Q

Can you silence a fire bell?

A

Yes

216
Q

What do you set in the FUEL TO REMAIN window

A

Max LDG weight - ZFW = What you should set

217
Q

Limitation when fuel jettison?

A

NO Flaps in transit between Flaps 1 and 5

218
Q

What is considered visible moisture?

A

1SM or less

219
Q

When will LNAV Capture?

A

Within 2.5NM

220
Q

Regarding FMAs, what does integrated mean?

A

Works integrated with the Auto Throttles

221
Q

When is an engine run-up required (Cold weather)

A

When OAT is 3C or below and anti-ice is required.

GE ENG: 60%N1 for 30 seconds every 30 min

222
Q

How do you verify if a bleed duct is isolated?

A

-No VALVE amber light on the switch
-0 PSI on associated side
-ECS synoptic

223
Q

What must happen for the gear to retract?

A

-Gear must be tilted and centered

224
Q

What does the cyan vvvvvv mean?

A

Secondary engine exceedance

225
Q

List all the FMAS

A

AT:
-THR
-THR REF
-SPD
-IDLE
-HOLD

Lateral:
-HDG HOLD
-HDG SEL
-LNAV
-LOC
-ATT
-TOGA
-ROLLOUT

VERTICAL:
-TOGA
-V/S
-VNAV SPD
-VNAV ALT
-VNAV PTH
-FLCH SPD
-G/S
-ALT
-FLARE

AFDS:
-FD
-CMD
-LAND 3
-LAND 2
-NO AUTOLAND

Must Memorize (11 decks)

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