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General paeds Flashcards

(59 cards)

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1
Q

what are 4 indications for radiographs as part of a treatment plan?

A

Caries detection
Caries progression
Unerupted teeth
Root resorption

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2
Q

At what age should you start taking bitewings at?

A

5 years

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3
Q

What are the 3 agents in ledermix?

A

Devitalising
Antibiotic
Steroid

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4
Q

Name 2 cariogenic bacteria?

A

Strep mutans, lactobacilli

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5
Q

Name 2 non-cariogenic bacteria

A

Strep oralis

Strep Salivarus

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6
Q

Where does the operator stand and the child sit for the following extractions?
Uppers
LLQ
LRQ

A

Uppers- you stand in front with child at 30 degrees up
LRQ- stand behind and child as low as possible
LLQ- you stand in front but child at elbow height

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7
Q

What are 4 complications that can occur post extraction?

A

Dry socket
Further bleeding
Infection
prolonged anaesthesia

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8
Q

What are the post of instructions given after XLA?

A

POIG
Soft diet
Don’t exercise for rest of day
don’t rinse for rest of day
if bleeding, roll up tissue and bite down for 10 mins
written instruction on whre to go if bleeding etc

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9
Q

What are the components of a functional appliance? (4)

A

Baseplate- to hold components together
Activator- springs for tooth movement
Retention- clasps to hold appliance in
Anchorage- resistance against unwanted tooth movement

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10
Q

What radiographs are most commonly taken prior to functional therapy? (2)

A

DPT

Lateral ceph

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11
Q

What are 4 ways of making space in the dentition

A

XLA
Inner enamel reduction
expansion (quadhelix)
Functional appliance

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12
Q

Why might you extract a maxillary central?

3

A

trauma
pathology
dilaceration

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13
Q

Why might you extract a mandibular incisor?

3

A

fanned incisor
Lingual displacement with good 1-3 contact
tooth size discrepancy

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14
Q

What can cause a midline diastema? (3)

A

prominent frenum
proclined maxillary incisors
spacing

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15
Q

What disease can be mistaken for teething?

A

Primary herpatic gingivostomatitis

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16
Q

What are 3 oral features of herpangina?

A

Sore throat
Dysphagia
Vesicles on soft palate

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17
Q

What nerve does Ramsey Hunt syndrome affect and what are the signs of it?

A 
Facial
Rash in ear
Facial palsy
Anterior 2/3 loss of taste
Ulcers on soft palate
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18
Q

What causes root dilaceration?

A

Damage to the tooth germ during root development

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19
Q

What is an invaginated tooth?

A

Normal tooth tissue in abnormal form

Dens en dente

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20
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of chickenpox? (7)

A 
Rash of papules, pustules, macules, vesicles
Airbourne and droplet spread
incubation of 2-3 weeks
Cervical lymphadenopathy
Malaise
Fever
ulcers
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21
Q

What are 5 outcomes of trauma?

A 
MIH
Pulp death
Root resorption
Resorption of permanent tooth germ
Ankylosis
Dilaceration
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22
Q

What are the 5 types of child abuse and what is an example of each?

A

Sexual- pregnancy
Neglect- poor hygiene, dirty clothes
Dental neglect- multiple Ga, gross caries
Emotional- withdrawn, over reacts to mistakes
Physical- unexplained injuries, shying away from physical contact etc

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23
Q

What is an oral sign of measles?

A

Koplik spots- red macules with white necrotic centres

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24
Q

What are 7 common reasons for oral pain in children?

Study These Flashcards
A 
Infection
Caries
Trauma
Wear
Abscess
Eruption
St (ulcers burns)
25
What is the history of reversible pulpitis?
Sweet hot cold pain Pain goes when stimulus removed Pain mainly when eating
26
What is the history of irreversible pulpitis?
Pain is constant Pain keeps awake at night Only relieved by analgesics
27
What is the clinical sign and radiograph findings of reversible pulpitis?
Early caries lesion | Caries into dentine
28
What is the clinical sign and radiographic findings of irreversible pulpitis?
Marginal ridge breakdown Radiolucency Caries close to pulp
29
what is stabalisation and what are the steps of it?
It is to buy you time in an unco-operative kid who has multiple caries- remove from margins and dress with GI Allows for the lesion to arrest and not to progress Good for the pre- cooperative patient
30
what is temporisation?
Pain relief when you cannot do the permanent restoration or extraction at the time
31
What indicated a child is a high caries rate?
Caries in buccal pits and fissures of molars
32
What are the indications for a SSC?
``` Large class 2 cavities Occlusal caries Badly broken down teeth (marginal ridge loss) Following pulp therapy Hard tissue anomolies ```
33
What is discing?
Is it a technique used with anterior aproximal caries to make a lesion self cleansing but good preventative measures must be taken
34
What is different about the angle of the mandible in a child compared to an adult?
the angle is more obtuse so the formamina is lower
35
What are patients with down's syndrome at risk of?
``` Perio disease Hypodontia Hypoplasia High caries risk delayed exfoliation of primary teeth (maybe due to hypodontia) ```
36
What are the movements involved with extracting teeth?
Apical push and buccal-lingual socket expanding movements
37
What are the post op advice/actions after an extraction? (7)
Pinch socket to apply pressure Get patient to bite down for 5 mins on a bite pack you must achieve haemostasis before sending patient away POIG Don't exercise or rinse for rest of the day If bleeds at home then roll up tissue and bite down for 10 mins Review in 1 week
38
What are the paracetamol dosages for children
``` 1-5= 120-250 mg 6-12= 250-500 12+= 500mg ```
39
What are the 3 peak ages for trauma? What is an example for each?
``` 2-4= walking 8-10= sports at school 14-46= contact sports/drinking ```
40
What is the protocol for a trauma patient coming in? (12)
Check for any head injuries Check the dental injury If there is blood in the corner of the eye then it can indicate a fractured zygoma so don't blow the nose Where is the tooth? Any tooth fragments brought with them? Does the story fit? Do any emergency dental treatment required Document everything Clean up the patient Take clinical photographs and radiographs review in 1 week Check if had tetanus Ask if any LOC, vomitting, double vision
41
What 2 types of dental injuries can occur due to trauma?
Injury to the tooth due to hard hit | Injury to the socket due to a soft hit (elbow)
42
what is luxation?
Displacement of the tooth in the alveolar bone
43
What is concussion?
Injury to the tooth without displacement of mobility. Injury to the PDL so haemorrhage and oedema in the ligament
44
What are the clinical signs of concussion?
TTP
45
What is subluxation?
Mobility but not displacement of the tooth
46
What is the clinical signs of subluxation?
gingival bleeding | mobility
47
What is the management of concussion and subluxation?
``` soft diet for 1 week PA radiograph check if had tetanus follow up in 1 week Splint if sublux ```
48
What is the management of intrusive luxation?
Allow to re erupt If fully intruded then extract most likely If no movement in 3 weeks get ortho involved
49
What is the management of avulsion of a permanent tooth?
Give La | re implant tooth and gently bite down
50
Why would you carry out a desensitising pulp therapy? (4)
reduce inflammation on pulp to carry on with a pulp therapy With a carious exposure but no signs or symptoms hyperalgesic pulp hyperaemic pulp
51
What are the contra indications for a functional appliance?
``` Over 14 years Poor OH Poor compliance Malocclusion is severe Condyle disease ```
52
What are down's syndrome patients at risk of?
``` Perio disease Hypodontia Microdontia High caries rate Hypolastic teeth Delayed exfoliation of primary teeth ```
53
What are the 3 age peaks for trauma?
2-4 8-10 14-16
54
What is concussion?
injury to the tooth without displacement
55
Why do you check for vitality 1 week post trauma?
The tooth will be sore on the day so will be inaccurate
56
What is the management for concussion?
PA radiograph follow up in 1 week Advise a soft diet Check if had tetanus
57
Wha is the management for subluxation?
``` Soft diet Review in 1 week Splint for 2 weeks Check if had tetanus PA radiograph ```
58
What is germination?
developmental separation of a single tooth germ to produce 2 separate teeth
59
What is fusion?
Union of two normally separated adjacent teeth (2 canals 1 tooth)

Paeds and ortho (2 decks)

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