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General pathology (pathophysiology) > General pathophysiology - hematology, inflammation > Flashcards

General pathophysiology - hematology, inflammation Flashcards

1
Q

define prodromal period

A

the time during which patient experiences vague
symptomes such as fatique or loss of appetite before the
onset of specific signs and symptoms.

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2
Q

3 terms for death in latin

A

mors, mortis
exitus letalis

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3
Q

define normality

A

What is termed a normal value for a laboratory test is established statistically from test results obtained from a selected sample of people/animals.

The normal values refer to the 95% distribution (mean plus or minus two standard deviations [mean ± 2 SD]) of test results for the reference population.

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4
Q

Reliability refers to

A

the extent to which an observation, if repeated, gives the same result.

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5
Q

Validity refers to

A

the extent to which a measurement tool measures what it is intended to measure.

This often is assessed by comparing a measurement method with the best possible method of measure that is available.

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6
Q

Although predictive values rely in part on sensitivity and specificity, they depend more heavily on

A

the prevalence of the condition in the population.

Despite unchanging sensitivity and specificity, the positive predictive value of an observation rises with prevalence, whereas the negative predictive value falls.

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7
Q

define self-limiting

A

(a.k.a. self-recovering) is a term used in clinical medicine to refer to any disease whose natural history is to resolve without treatment

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8
Q

define recidiviation

A

to relapse into a previous condition or mode of behavior: to exhibit recidivism

These symptoms are then called recidive.

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9
Q

alt. term for relapse

A

recidiviation, recidive

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10
Q

define metaphylaxis

A

Group treatment of all clinically healthy (but presumably infected) animals kept in close contact with animals showing clinical signs of a contagious disease.

Metaphylaxis is always combined with the treatment of the diseased individuals.

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11
Q

define kinetosis

A

the state of being dizzy or nauseated because of the motions that occur while traveling in or on a moving vehicle. synonyms: motion sickness.

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12
Q

describe I degree burns

A

erythema and dry, but without blisters (such as mild sunburn)

affects the epidermis

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13
Q

describe II degree burns

A

red, swollen, and blistered skin

(erythema bullosa), subepidermal

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14
Q

describe III degree burns

A

throughout the epidermis with skin necrosis
affects the dermis and can reach the subcut. tissue
white and charred-looking

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15
Q

describe IV degree burns

A

charred skin with possible exposed bone

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16
Q

define insolation

A

exposure to the sun’s rays.

the amount of solar radiation reaching a given area.

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17
Q

name 3 types of radiation capable of causing injury

A
  • Ionizing Radiation
  • Ultraviolet Radiation
  • Nonionizing Radiation
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18
Q

describe Ionizing Radiation injury

A

Causes ionization of molecules and atoms in the cell, by directly hitting the target molecules in the cell, or by producing free radicals that interact with critical cell components.

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19
Q

describe Ultraviolet Radiation

A

The degree of risk depends on:

the type of UV rays,
the intensity of exposure, and
the amount of protective melanin pigment in the skin.

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20
Q

describe Nonionizing Radiation injury

A

Unlike ionizing radiation, which can directly break chemical bonds,
nonionizing radiation exerts its effects by causing vibration and rotation of atoms and molecules.

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21
Q

Phytophotodermatitis caused by

A

contact with the photosensitizing compounds found naturally in some
plants and vegetables like parsnips, citrus fruits, and more.

is a form of plant dermatitis

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22
Q

alt. terms for Sunburn and Photodermatitis

A

sun poisoning
photoallergy

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23
Q

Teratogens are

A

environmental agents that can harm the developing fetus

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24
Q

Teratology is the study of

A

abnormalities of physiological development. (embryotoxic or foetotoxic effects)

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25
Q

define genotoxins

A

Agents that damage to DNA causing lesions that result in cell death or mutations

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26
Q

The effect of electricity on the body is mainly determined by? (4)

A
  • its voltage,
  • the type of current; (i.e., direct or alternating),
  • its amperage, the resistance ot the intervening tissue, the pathway of the current,
  • the duration of exposure
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27
Q

define Oxyhemoglobin

A

a compound of hemoglobin with oxygen that is the chief means of transportation of oxygen from the air (as in the lungs) by way of the blood to the tissues.

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28
Q

define COHb

A

Carboxyhaemoglobin is a very stable combination of hemoglobin and carbon monoxide formed in the blood when carbon monoxide is inhaled with resulting loss of ability of the blood to combine with oxygen.

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29
Q

define MetHb

A

Oxidation of ferrous (+2) to ferric (+3) iron in hemoglobin converts oxygen carrying oxyhemoglobin to methemoglobin which does not carry oxygen.

Methemoglobin does not bind oxygen, thus effectively leading to a functional anemia. In addition, methemoglobin causes a leftward shift of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, resulting in decreased release of oxygen to the tissues.

Most cases of methemoglobinemia are acquired and result from exposure to certain drugs or toxins.

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30
Q

Altitude sickness is a

A

pathological effect of high altitude caused by acute exposure to low
partial pressure of oxygen at high altitude. It commonly occurs above 2,400 metres (humans).

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31
Q

Decompression sickness is

A

(DCS; also known as divers’ disease, the bends, or caisson disease)

a condition arising from dissolved gases (mainly nitrogen) coming out of solution into bubbles inside the body on depressurisation that causes gas embolism.

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32
Q

Nitrogen narcosis is

A

a reversible alteration in consciousness that occurs while diving at depth.

(also known as nitrogen narcosis, inert gas narcosis, raptures of the
deep, Martini effect)

It is caused by the anesthetic effect of
certain gases at high pressure.

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33
Q

define autointoxication

A

poisoning by a toxin formed within the body itself.

products of altered metabolism or toxines from tissue breakdown (disease process involved)

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34
Q

define metaplasia

A

Metaplasia refers to the replacement of a mature, differentiated cell type by another mature, differentiated cell type that does not typically occur in the tissue in which it is found. It’s usually a response to chronic
inflammation or irritation.

e.g. conversion of fibrous tissue into bone

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35
Q

name 3 types of hyperplasia

A

Physiologic hyperplasia — for example, monthly increase in the number of uterine cells in response to estrogen stimulation after ovulation.

Compensatory hyperplasia — for example, regeneration of liver cells when part of the liver is surgically removed.

Pathologic hyperplasia — for example, acromegaly, in which excessive growth hormone production causes bones to enlarge.

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36
Q

Three structures in the brain are primarily responsible for maintaining homeostasis of the entire body:

A

medulla oblongata
pituitary gland
reticular formation

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37
Q

dysarthria

A

difficulty speaking

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38
Q

bronchorrhea

A

defined as production of voluminous watery sputum greater than 100 mL/d

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39
Q

epiphora

A

excessive tear production

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40
Q

polycythemia

A

also called erythrocytosis, refers to increased red blood cell mass

can be relative or absolute
relative typically being caused by dehydration and absolute known as polycythemia vera a true excess.
can be caused by a myeloproliferative neoplastic disorder involving uncontrolled red blood cell production

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41
Q

Steatorrhea

A

is the presence of excess fat in feces.

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42
Q

insulinoma

A

is a tumour of the pancreas that is derived from beta cells and secretes insulin. It is a rare form of a neuroendocrine tumour.

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43
Q

gastrinoma

A

neuroendocrine tumor (NET), usually located in the duodenum or pancreas, that secrete gastrin and cause a clinical syndrome

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44
Q

pollakiuria

A

frequent, abnormal urination during the day.

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45
Q

what is Price-Jones curve

A

a graph showing the distribution of diameters of red blood cells.

Higher diameter may be seen in pernicious anaemia, while lower diameter may be seen after haemorrhage.

pernicious = highly injurious or destructive

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46
Q

nosology

A

the branch of medical science dealing with the classification of diseases.

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47
Q

define Oligochromemia &
Oligocythemia

A

deficiency of Hb in the blood

deficiency in the total number of RBCs present in the body

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48
Q

The three basic causes of anemia:

A

(1) decreased RBC production by the bone marrow,
(2) loss from the body (i.e., external hemorrhage), and
(3) destruction in the body (i.e., hemolysis).

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49
Q

where is EPO produced in response to what

A

Erythropoietin – a peptide/glycoprotein hormone produced by the kidney in adult animals (in the liver in neonates) that enhances erythropoiesis by stimulating formation of proerythroblasts.

Hypoxia stimulates EPO release.

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50
Q

pernicious anemia

A

is a type of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia, a disease in which not enough red blood cells are produced due to the malabsorption of vitamin B12.

Malabsorption in pernicious anemia results from the lack or loss of intrinsic factor needed for the absorption of vitamin B12 which is required for maturation of erythrocytes.

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51
Q

2 signs of regenerative anemia

A

Reticulocytosis and polychromasia

Polychromasia is the presentation of multicolored red blood cells in a blood smear test. It’s an indication of red blood cells being released prematurely from bone marrow during formation.

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52
Q

MCH

A

mean corpuscular hemoglobin – the average mass of Hb per red blood cell in a sample of blood

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53
Q

MCHC

A

mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration – the average concentration of Hb in the red blood cells

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54
Q

MCV

A

mean cell/corpuscular volume – the average volume of a red blood cell in femtoliters

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55
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies

A

is a cytopathological finding of basophilic nuclear remnants (clusters of DNA) in circulating erythrocytes.

occur where there is no spleen or an non-functioning spleen, referred to as asplenia.

56
Q

Cabot’s rings

A

RBCs with the remnants of the nuclear membrane

are thin, red-violet staining, threadlike strands in the shape of a loop or figure-8 that are found on rare occasions in red blood cells

57
Q

name 3 signs of inhibition of erythropoiesis

A

Degenerative forms of RBCs (right shift)
poikilocytes, anisocytes, hypochromic RBCs

58
Q

define spherocytes

A

are red blood cells that are sphere-shaped rather than the usual flattened but round doughnut shape. Normal RBCs should jave central pallor, spherocytes do not.

Spherocytes are more fragile than normal red cells and their presence is accompanied by anemias of varying severity.

59
Q

Siderocyte

A

is defined as red blood cell containing nonhemoglobin iron

Sideroblastic anemias are iron-utilization anemias, which are characterized by inadequate marrow utilization of iron for heme synthesis despite the presence of adequate or increased amounts of iron.

60
Q

Thalassemia

A

is an inherited blood disorder caused when the body doesn’t make enough of a protein called hemoglobin

61
Q

Ferritin and Hemosiderin

A

Hemosiderin and ferritin are iron-containing proteins with magnetic susceptibility. Hemosiderin is water-insoluble and thermally denatured, but ferritin is water-soluble and heat-resistant up to 75°C.

Serum ferritin is the most commonly used marker of stored body iron.

62
Q

TIBC, UIBC

A

TIBC = total iron-binding capacity
UIBC = Unsaturated iron-binding capacity

The sum of the serum iron and UBIC represents the total iron-binding capacity.

(TIBC, total iron binding capacity is the laboratory term
for transferrin)

transferrin is the main iron transport protein
(It is an essential biochemical marker of body iron status.)
ferritin is an indicator of cellular iron stores

63
Q

Coomb’s reaction

A

The direct Coombs test is used to detect antibodies or complement proteins attached to the surface of red blood cells.

The direct Coombs test is used to test for autoimmune hemolytic anemia.

64
Q

Pyknocytes

A

are red blood cells that appear distorted, irregular and small with abnormal projections

65
Q

Eccentrocytes

A

are RBCs that appear in a peripheral blood smear to have their hemoglobin shifted to one side of the cell. This abnormality, which is confined to the RBC membrane and cytoskeleton, is induced by oxidative damage.

66
Q

(Sphero)echinocytosis

A

echinocyte refers to a form of red blood cell that has an abnormal cell membrane characterized by many small, evenly spaced thorny projections.

spherocyte refers to cells that are round like a sphere, are more fragile than disk-shaped RBCs.

so sphero-echinocyte is a round RBCs with lots of thorny projections.

67
Q

describe Heinz Body Anemia morphology

A

may appear as lighter or darker depending on stain, single round bodies within RBCs or may bulge from the cell surface. due to denatured hemoglobin.

  • finding any Heinz bodies in canine blood is diagnostic.
  • healthy and ill cats frequently have Heinz bodies.
68
Q

Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency

A

is an inherited metabolic disorder of the enzyme pyruvate kinase in which red blood cells break down faster than they should.

basenji, West Highland white terrier, or beagle dogs

69
Q

Phosphofructokinase deficiency

A

is a rare muscular metabolic disorder, with an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern.

In this condition, a deficiency of the M subunit of the phosphofructokinase enzyme impairs the ability of cells such as erythrocytes and rhabdomyocytes (skeletal muscle cells) to use carbohydrates (such as glucose) for energy.

occurs in English springer spaniels

70
Q

rubricyte

A

an immature red blood cell that has a nucleus, is about half the size of developing red blood cells in preceding stages

71
Q

Aplastic pancytopenia

A

is a disease in which the bone marrow, and the blood stem cells that reside there, are damaged. This causes a deficiency of all three blood cell types (pancytopenia)

(also aplastic anemia or fatty bone marrow)
- if hemic tissue is replaced by fatty tissue

72
Q

Myelofibrosis

A

replacement of hemic tissue by fibrous connective tissue, collagen, or reticulin fibers

fibrosis = connective tissue proliferation (by fibroblasts)

73
Q

Cold Hemagglutinin Disease

A

is a condition that makes your body’s immune system attack your red blood cells and destroy them. It’s triggered by cold temperatures, and it can cause problems that range from dizziness to heart failure. It’s also called cold antibody hemolytic anemia

74
Q

Macrophage Proliferative Disorders

A

Macrophage and histiocyte proliferative disorders may be malignant or benign.
Malignant disorders include malignant histiocytosis and disseminated histiocytic
sarcoma.

Histiocytic disorders (i.e., systemic histiocytosis, malignant histiocytosis) are closely associated with Bernese mountain dogs.

Malignant histiocytosis has aggressive proliferation of very atypical cells in a variety of
tissues and has pancytopenia. Benign conditions have been termed hemophagocytic syndromes or hemophagic histiocytosis.

75
Q

define normoblast

A

the erythrocyte precursor that comes before reticulocyte

during the normoblast phase the nucleus shrinks and is eventually reabsorbed

an immature red blood cell containing hemoglobin and a pyknotic (necrotic) nucleus and normally present in bone marrow but appearing in the blood in many anemias

76
Q

what 3 playerss regulate Ca and PO4 uptake or release.

A

Parathyroidhormone, calcitonin and vitamin D

77
Q

pleocytosis

A

is an increased cell count (from Greek pleion, “more”), particularly an increase in white blood cell count, in a bodily fluid, such as cerebrospinal fluid. It is often defined specifically as an increased white blood cell count in cerebrospinal fluid.

78
Q

what does toxic change in neutrophils. look like

A

are morphologic abnormalities acquired during maturation under conditions that intensely stimulate neutrophil production and shorten the maturation time in marrow

Toxic granulation is the presence of large purple or dark blue cytoplasmic granules (primary granules) in neutrophils, bands, and metamyelocytes. The granules are slightly larger, more numerous and have an increased staining density compared to normal neutrophil granules.

79
Q

What is osteochondritis dissecans?

A

Osteochondritis dissecans is a joint condition in which bone underneath the cartilage of a joint dies due to lack of blood flow. This bone and cartilage can then break loose, causing pain and possibly hindering joint motion.

80
Q

hemosiderin

A

is an iron-storage complex that is composed of partially digested ferritin and lysosomes. The breakdown of heme gives rise to biliverdin and iron. The body then traps the released iron and stores it as hemosiderin in tissues. Hemosiderin is also generated from the abnormal metabolic pathway of ferritin.

81
Q

xanthochromic

A

Xanthochromia, from the Greek xanthos (ξανθός) “yellow” and chroma (χρώμα) “colour”, is the yellowish appearance of cerebrospinal fluid that occurs several hours after bleeding into the subarachnoid space caused by certain medical conditions, most commonly subarachnoid hemorrhage.

82
Q

What is pre vs post renal azotemia?

A
  1. Prerenal azotemia is a consequence of reduced renal perfusion (e.g., severe dehydration, heart failure).
  2. Postrenal azotemia results from interference with excretion of urine from the body (e.g., obstruction, uroabdomen).
83
Q

acanthocytes

A

Acanthocytes are also called spur cells. They are dense, shrunken, and irregularly shaped red blood cells with spikes on the outside.

84
Q

Ferritin

A

Ferritin is a complex of a protein (apoferritin), and iron (ferric
hydroxide). Ferritin is a readily available source of iron.

Serum ferritin is in minute quantities but is proportional to the amount of iron stored as
ferritin and hemosiderin. Serum ferritin may be used to estimate total body iron stores
without more invasive techniques.

85
Q

hemochromatosis

A

Idiopathic
abnormally high iron absorption and iron overload is termed hemochromatosis.

86
Q

histiocytosis

A

Histiocytosis is a general name for a group of disorders or “syndromes” that involve an abnormal increase in the number of specialized white blood cells that are called histiocytes.

A histiocyte is a normal immune cell that is found in many parts of the body especially in the bone marrow, the blood stream, the skin, the liver, the lungs, the lymph glands and the spleen. In histiocytosis, the histiocytes move into tissues where they are not normally found and cause damage to those tissues.

87
Q

physiologic leukocytosis

A

refers to an increase in the number of circulating leucocytes which occurs either in response to physical exercise or to increased levels of adrenalin in otherwise healthy human beings. The mechanism underlying this phenomenon and its physiological implications are not known.

88
Q

Relative leukocytosis

A

an increased proportion of one or more types of leukocytes in the
circulating blood, without an actual increase in the total number of
WBCs.

89
Q

Absolute leukocytosis

A

an actual increase in the total number of leukocytes in the circulating
blood, without any change in the proportion of different types of
WBCs.

90
Q

A leukemoid reaction is a

A

marked leukocytosis (> 50,000 to 100,000 WBCs/ul) as the result of
inflammation.

91
Q

pollinosis

A

hay fever

92
Q

difference between exudate and transudate

A

“Transudate” is fluid buildup caused by systemic conditions that alter the pressure in blood vessels, causing fluid to leave the vascular system. (ascites, edema)

“Exudate” is fluid buildup caused by tissue leakage due to inflammation or local cellular damage. (pus)

93
Q

name 3 connective tissue cells that participate in the inflammatory response

A

mast cells, macrophages, fibroblasts

94
Q

name 3 vasoactive amines

A

– histamine,
– serotonin
– bradykinin

95
Q

name 3 Eicosanoids (derivatives of arachidonic acid)

A

– prostaglandins
– thromboxanes
– leukotrienes

96
Q

how do you distinguish inflammatory edema from non-inflammatory edema

A

heat, redness in inflammatory

pitching/blanching resolves much faster in inflammatory than non-

97
Q

Cirrhosis

A

is scarring (fibrosis) of the liver caused by long-term liver damage. The scar tissue prevents the liver working properly.

98
Q

Resolution

A

recovery of damaged tissue (cell death has not occurred)

99
Q

Regeneration

A

replacement of the damaged tissue with the same tissue, complete recovery of the function

100
Q

Reparation (healing)

A

repair of damaged tissue by connective tissue proliferation, which later becomes scar
tissue

101
Q

the 5 signs of inflammation in latin

A

calor (heat)
dolor (pain)
functio laesa (malfunction)
rubor (redness)
tumor (swelling)

102
Q

Catarrhal exudate

A

Catarrh is an exudate of inflamed mucous membranes in one of the airways or cavities of the body, usually with reference to the throat and paranasal sinuses.

It can result in a thick exudate of mucus and white blood cells caused by the swelling of the mucous membranes in the head in response to an infection.

103
Q

Fibrinous exudate

A

Beside plasma albumins and globulins, exudate
contains abundant fibrinogen. Fibrinogen is converted into
fibrin that builds up in the mucous membranes; when
removed, leaves no defects.

104
Q

Putrescent/ Non-purulent- Exudate

A

exudate and inflammatory lesions contain microbes that degrade proteins and cause a pungent or rotten odour.

105
Q

Empyema

A

Empyema is the medical term for pockets of pus that have collected inside a body cavity

106
Q

Phlegmon

A

is a medical term describing an inflammation of soft tissue that spreads under the skin or inside the body. It’s usually caused by an infection and produces pus.

107
Q

The pathogenesis of fever begins with the production of

A

endogenous pyrogen (EP) by macrophages/phagocytic leukocytes in response to exogenous pyrogens (toxic, immunologic or infectious agents).

108
Q

How does the digestive system respond to fever?

A

Intensification of putrefaction, accumulation of gas (meteorism).

Decreased motor and secretory activity is due to increased sympathetic tone.

In ruminants, decrease in the secretion of alkaline saliva can be observed causing excess acid build-up in the rumen. may destroy ruminal bacteria and protozoa that may lead to ruminal atony.

Mostly water and carbohydrates are absorbed by the intestine during fever – starvation. This should be considered when compounding rations – carbohydrate-rich diet + frequent provision of water.

109
Q

how does the CIRCULATORY/CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM respond to fever?

A

Heart rate is known to increase by 8 to 10 bpm per degree centigrade increase in body temperature.

Increase in blood pressure due to tachycardia and blood vessel contraction will occur.

Rapid fall/drop in body temperature in case of septic fever (crisis) may lead to circulatory/cardiovascular collapse – heart failure and collapsed arteries and/or veins (manifests clinically as a shock).

110
Q

how does the RESPIRATORY SYSTEM respond to fever?

A

Compensatory rapid breathing/increase in respiration to facilitate heat loss via respiratory system and improve oxygen supply.

111
Q

Febris ephemera

A

Fever that persists for a few hours

112
Q

Febris continua

A

Continuous fever that lasts for weeks.
Temperature changes are less than 1’C in 24 hours

113
Q

Febris remittens

A

Long-lasting fever with temperature swings
(over 1 in 24 hours)

114
Q

Febris hectica

A

Prolonged fever with considerable daily fluctuations (4-5 ‘C)

115
Q

Febris recurrens

A

Alternation of fever and apyretic periods of certain duration

116
Q

describe the stages of fever

A

5 stages:

Phase of increase (stadium incrementi) – Increase in heat production due to shivering, increased heart and respiration rate, and peripheral vasoconstriction. Animals refuse to eat, but drink more.

Climax phase (stadium acme) – The body temperature culminates. Both heat production
and heat dissipation exceed normal levels. Increased heart rate and respiration. Animals refuse to eat, are thirsty and exhausted/fatigued.

Descent stage (stadium decrementi) – Fever decreases to normal temperature. Sweat
secretion and vasodilation.

Crisis - rapid drop in fever
Lysis - fever drops gradually in the course of several days

117
Q

Normocytic normochromic RBCs can indicate..?

A

Normocytic normochromic when
MCV 80-100 fL, MCHC is in normal range

  • Disturbance in erythropoiesis – bone marrow malfunction

Most normocytic anemias appear to be the outcome of the impaired production of RBCs.

118
Q

Microcytic hypochromic RBCs can indicate

A

Microcytic hypochromic when MCV <80 Fl, MCHC is lower than normal

  • Disturbance in haemoglobin synthesis – iron deficiency anemia
119
Q

Macrocytic hyperchromic RBCs can indicate

A

Macrocytic hyperchromic when
MCV >100 Fl, MCHC is higher than normal

  • Defects in nuclear maturation – Vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiency anemias
120
Q

Macrocytic hypochromic RBCs can indicate

A

Macrocytic hypochromic when
MCV >100 fL, MCHC is lower than normal

  • Disturbances of DNA synthesis - Both folic acid and vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
121
Q

Microcytic normochromic RBCs can indicate

A

Microcytic normochromic when
MCV <80 fL, MHCH is in normal range

  • iron deficiency/depletion, especially if schistocytosis is present.

A schistocyte is a fragmented part of a red blood cell.

122
Q

unique venipuncture site for swine

A

cranial vena cava accessed from the right thoracic aperture of a standing pig or placed in dorsal recumbency

123
Q

What does corrected reticulocyte count mean?
How do you calculate it?

A

Because the reticulocyte count is expressed as a percentage of total RBCs, it must be corrected according to the extent of anemia.

In anemia, the patient’s red blood cells are depleted, creating an erroneously elevated reticulocyte count.

corrected percentage (CRP) = retic % x hematocrit / normal hematocrit

After calculating the corrected reticulocyte count, you would generally continue on to calculate the reticulocyte index by utilizing a table with expected retic. life expectancy. So, CRP / expected retic half life = retic. index.

124
Q

PRCA

A

Pure red cell aplasia is a blood disorder that happens when your bone marrow doesn’t produce the normal number of red blood cells

can be a consequence of chronic anemia

125
Q

Polychromatophilia

A

It means there is more staining than normal

when reticulocytes show up as bluish-gray when they are stained with a particular type of dye. This happens when they are immature because they were released too early from your bone marrow.

126
Q

what is pernicious anemia

A

pernicious = highly injurious or destructive

Pernicious anemia is a decrease in red blood cells that occurs when the intestines cannot properly absorb vitamin B12.

is synonymous with vitamin B12 or folate deficiency anaemia

127
Q

Many species either have an inconsistent reticulocyte response or have no reticulocyte response in the peripheral blood.

give species examples

A

inconsistent reticulocyte response (e.g., cattle)
no reticulocyte response (e.g., horses)

128
Q

What is a reticulocyte index?
And how is it calculated?

A

Prematurely released “shift” reticulocytes live longer than the usual 1 day, as is shown in the table. This exaggerates the reticulocyte precentage, so the corrected reticulocyte percentage/CRP is further adjusted by dividing it by the expected maturation time in days, which varies with the severity of anemia. The resultant index-number is the reticulocyte index.

An RI greater than 1 in dogs indicates regenerative anemia. An RI of 3 or greater indicates marked regenerative response.

RI = CorrectedReticPercentage / Maturation correction (chosen from the table)

129
Q

What canine PCV % would be classed as a mild anemia?

A

Mild anemias in the dog have a PCV in dog 30 – 36% range

130
Q

What canine PCV % would be classed as a moderate anemia?

A

Moderate canine anemias have a PCV of 20 – 29%

131
Q

What canine PCV % would be classed as a severe anemia?

A

A severe canine anemia has a PCV of 13 – 19%

132
Q

How would you calculate absolute reticuolyte count?

A

RBC number x reticulocyte percentage

e.g. RBC 2 x 106/µ l , Reticulocytes 25%

2,000,000 x 0.25 = 500,000 or 0,5 mil retic/microliter.

133
Q

What two blood parameters can be useful guides for supposing an anemia is hemolytic?

A

An anemia with an increased plasma protein indicates potential hemolysis.

Additionally, a reticulocyte index over 3 (meaning markedly regenerative) is more often seen in hemolytic anemias since all the iron and protein is retained in the body to allow maximum erythroid regeneration.

Some early blood loss anemias will also have a RI over 3 so neither the RI or plasma protein are absolute indicators but are useful guides.

134
Q

EIM and cryptorchid dog

A

estrogen-induced myelotoxicity

endogenous estrogen sources such as functional Sertoli cell or ovarian granulosa cell tumors may cause bone marrow toxicity in dogs. The condition is characterized by hematologic abnormalities including thrombocytopenia, anemia, and leukocytosis or leukopenia.

(retained) testicular estrogen-producing neoplasm can cause primary bone marrow disease presenting with thrombocytopenia and non-regenerative anemia, together referred to as a bicytopenia

135
Q

Left shift described as degenerative when

A

banded neutrophils exceed segemented

136
Q

steroids prolong the half-life of

A

neutrophils (neutrophilic hypersegmentation)

General pathology (pathophysiology) (16 decks)

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