General Review Flashcards

1
Q

Required to fly special VFR at night.

A

Pilot must have current IFR rating and plane must be equipped for instrument flight.

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2
Q

What are VFR common transponder codes

A

1200 standard VFR
7500 hijacked
7600 no comms
7700 emergency

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3
Q

When should a pilot start descent from traffic pattern altitude when in the pattern?

A

when abeam the landing point on the downwind leg

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4
Q

What is the cruise speed when in turbulence?

A

Va (max maneuvering speed) which is slower in lighter aircraft. Standard Va for C172 is 112Mph

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5
Q

What emergency frequency can be used if a pilot is not already in communications with ATC?

A

121.5MHz

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6
Q

What frequency should be used for air-to-air comms?

A

122.75

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7
Q

What does the mnemonic “ABCD” stand for in a loss of engine emergency?

A

A irspeed - set to Vg (best glide), 65KIAS in C172
B est landing site - find it and go to it
C heck lists - first try to troubleshoot the problem or, if unsuccessful, secure the engine and aircraft
D eclare the emergency on 121.5MHz or other ATC frequency and set transponder to 7700

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8
Q

What’s the best way to start a ground reference maneuver (such as a square flight pattern)?

A

Start on the downwind leg. The first turn will be the steepest.

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9
Q

What are the “5 W’s” of communicating?

A

1) Who you’re calling
2) Who you are
3) Where you are
4) What you want
5) Wx (on initial call in some cases)

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10
Q

What has to be turned on in order for an aftermarket ADS-B Out transmitter to be turned on?

A

Navigation lights

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11
Q

How can an alternator be reset?

A

Cycling the Master Switch

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12
Q

What is an “MEL?

A

Minimum Equipment List - may or may not exist for a given aircraft, but if so, it must be used. This list also lists what equipment does not have to be operational for a particular flight. These are not common for light single-engine piston-powered airplanes. If not provided, use the 14CFR 91.213 regulations to determine what equipment must be operational to fly a particular flight.

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13
Q

What is the ARROWE mnemonic stand for?

A

Required documents that must be onboard an aircraft to fly:
A irworthiness certificate
R egistration Certificate
R adio station class license (when transmitting to ground stations outside the U.S.)
O perating limitations (may be in the POH or and FAA-approved flight manual
W eight and Balance data
E quipment list

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14
Q

What are the 5 main parts of an airplane?

A

1) fuselage
2) wings
3) empennage
4) power plant
5) landing gear

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15
Q

What position are ailerons and elevator when taxiing into a headwind?

A

neural or slightly forward pressure on the control wheel to exert normal pressure on the nose gear

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16
Q

What position are ailerons and elevator when taxiing over rough ground?

A

Hold the control wheel aft to raise the elevator/stabilator and force tail down to increase propeller clearance.

17
Q

What position are ailerons and elevator when taxiing into quartering headwinds?

A

Turn ailerons fully into the wind. Maintain neutral elevator.

18
Q

What position are ailerons and elevator when taxiing in tailwinds?

A

Maintain ailerons in neutral position. Hold control wheel full forward to maintain full down position on elevator/stabilator. This exerts a downward force on the tail.

19
Q

What position are ailerons and elevator when taxiing over quartering tailwinds?

A

Turn ailerons fully away from the direction of the wind. Hold elevator fully forward. Taxi more slowly to avoid tipping when turning.

20
Q

What are the elements of a takeoff briefing?

A
  • wind direction and velocity
  • runway length
  • takeoff distance
  • initial heading
  • initial altitude
  • takeoff and climb speeds
  • departure procedures
  • emergency plan in case of engine failure after takeoff
21
Q

Why is filling the fuel tanks after flight a good idea?

A

This reduces water condensation the fuel tanks, but may not be a good idea in a rental airplane if the next pilot does not want full fuel tanks.

22
Q

What does the mnemonic “AVIAATES” stand for?

A

These are the required inspections for operating an airplane:

Annual (12 months)
VOR Check (30 Days)
100 Hour or Progressive inspection
(required if aircraft is used for hire or flight instruction for hire—91.409(b))
Altimeter (24months 91.411) and
Airworthiness Directives
Transponder (24 months 91.413)
ELT (12 months)
Static inspection (24 months)

23
Q

What two actions can you take to help make it easier to start an engine in very cold weather?

A

1) use an external pre-heater and
2) use an external power source to start the engine.

24
Q

How long after engine start should the oil pressure start to register in normal range?

A

30 seconds in warm weather and 60 seconds in cold weather. Otherwise, immediately shut down the engine to avoid damage.

25
Q

How should a pilot position the airplane prior to the before takeoff check?

A
  • point the nose into the wind to increase cooling in an air-cooled engine
  • position so the propeller blast is not directed toward other aircraft, buildings or vehicles.
  • avoid runups on loose gravel or sand
26
Q

What engine/system indications must be in the green arc before takeoff?

A

1) oil pressure
2) vacuum level

(note: oil temp may not be in green arc if the taxi was short or the weather is cold

27
Q

At what point should a pilot begin to level off from a climb or descent?

A

When altitude gets to within 10% of the climb rate. (e.g., if climbing at 500fps, start to level off at 50 feet before reaching cruise altitude)

28
Q

At what altitude should mixture be leaned when cruising?

A

above 3000 ft MSL

29
Q

What are the three classes of turns?

A

Shallow turn - less than approx 10 degrees angle of bank
Medium turn - between 20 to 45 degrees angle of bank
Steep turn - 45 degrees of more angle of bank

30
Q

What is a good guideline for when to start to roll out from a turn?

A

typically about 1/2 of the bank angle (e.g., if in a 30 degree turn, start to roll out about 15 degrees before reaching intended heading)

31
Q

What is the Glide Ratio of a Cessna 172 (and most training aircraft)q?

A

About 9 to 1. Each 1,000 feet AGL elevation will allow glide of about 1.5nm.