General Revision Flashcards
(175 cards)
1
Q
Cause (3) and mgmt Neonatal Sepsis (4)
A
Cause: Listeria, E.Coli and GBS
Mgmt: 1) Gain IV access
2) Start IV antibiotics: broad spectrum. <3mo= cefotaxime and benpen
3) Start fluid resus
4) Admit for Abx and fluids. May need NGT for feeds etc
2
Q
Intracapsular NOF: management and complications
A
General: nerve block, admission. ?cause Intracapsular: - younger patients: preserve femoral head. Early ORIF key -older: PFNA, hemiarthroplasty or THR Complications: AVN
3
Q
ABx for CAP
A
Mild: Doxy or Amoxycillin
Mod: IV Benpen and PO Doxy
Severe: IV azitro and ceftriaxone
4
Q
Rx for focal and generalised seizures
A
Focal: Carbamezapine
Generalised: Sodium Valproate
5
Q
Renal disease: antibodies against basement membrane
A
Goodpasture
6
Q
Renal disease: crescenteric changes on light microscopy
A
RPGN- can be secondary to a lot of things. Needs immunosuppression asap.
7
Q
Pre-eclampsia bloods-mum
A
FBC, UEC, LFTs, coags, spot ACR, LDH, uric acid
8
Q
Pre-eclampsia baby mgmt
A
CTG, foetal US- frequency depends on clinical progression
9
Q
Systems and 1 symptom each for pre-eclampsia
A
Renal: proteinuria, oliguria, peripheral oedema
Neuro: headache, visual changes, clonus, hypereflexia
Liver: RUQ/epigastric pain, elevated transaminase
Blood: trombocytopenia, haemolysis
10
Q
3 routes of infection for SBP
A
Haematogenous, lymphogenic or transmigration through intestinal wall
11
Q
Investigations for SBP
A
FBC, UEC, LFTs, albumin, ascitic tap- MC+S and analysis
12
Q
Management of SBP
A
Empirical Abx: Ceftriaxone. Consider albumin in liver cirrhosis.
13
Q
Three causes of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis and the classic examination signs
A
Sarcoidosis, RA, asbestos. Drugs- methotrexate, amiodarone, chemo drugs.
Signs: fine inspiratory crackles and clubbing
14
Q
What does Idiopathic Pulm Fibrosis present with?
A
Sub acute SOB and dyspnoea
15
Q
What are the inferior leads and what’s the supply?
A
II, III and aVF. Supplied by RCA.
also supplies heart conduction so inferior stemi leads to bradycardia
16
Q
What name refers to leads V1 and V2? What is the blood supply?
A
Septal leads, LAD.
17
Q
What are the lateral leads and blood supply?
A
I, aVL, V5 and V6. Supplied by circumflex
18
Q
What is the name for leads V3 and V4 and what’s the supply?
A
Anterior leads, supplied by RCA.
19
Q
What does HELLP stand for?
A
Haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes and low platelets. High mortality in mums with this.
20
Q
What is SIGECAPS?
A
Symptoms of depression.
S= sleep changes, I= interest loss, G=guilt, E= energy, C=concentration, A= appetite, P= psychomotor agitation, S= suicide
21
Q
What is SADPERSONS
A
Risk assessment for suicide.
S= sex (male), A= age (extremes), D= depression, P= psyc history, E= excessive drug use, R= rational thinking loss, S= spouse loss, O= organised plan, N= no support, S= sickness
22
Q
What are the 5 causes of heart failure (broad categories)
A
Ischemia, valvular disease, arrythmias, cardiomyopathy and hypertension
23
Q
What medications do you commence for someone in systolic heart failure?
A
A: ACE/ARB
B: beta blocker
C: calcium channel blocker
D: diuretics
24
Q
What is the mgmt for diastolic HF?
A
No management has evidence for improvement. Best thing is to control HTN and frusemide for symptom relief.
25
Outline management steps for STEMI
1) ABCDE important here.
2) Aspirin, ADP agonist (clopidogrel) and Heparin
3) call CODE STEMI- allow for PCI intervention if within 90 mins (alteplase)
4) Then oxygen if <92-94%, GTN
26
What are the history and examination findings of aortic dissection? (7)
+++Pain not in line with history, SOB, central tearing pain to the back
O/E: BP difference in both arms, hypertension, syncope, heart murmur +/- SVC syndrome
27
What are the CXR findings for aortic dissection? Name 5
Widened mediastinum, double aortic lumen, loss of aortic knuckle, tracheal and maybe pleural effusion
28
What is the presentation for cataracts disease?
Gradual painless reduction in VA, ++blurry.
| Myopic shift: improved close vision due to thickening of lens.
29
Risk factors for cataracts? Name 5.
smoking, steroids, autoimmune conditions (RA, uveitis), diabetes, prev eye trauma, radiation
30
Examination finding for cataract
Cloudy lens, usually discoloured. Rx= surg.
31
Risk factors for open angle glaucoma (6)
IOP, family history, age >40, diabetes, myopia, steroid use
32
Presentation of Glaucoma
Painless reduction in vision, peripheral vision loss! Usually asymptomatic until advanced stages
33
Examination findings for open angle glaucoma
Increased cup disc ratio. NORMAL 0.5. Also raised IOP
34
Examination findings for acute angle closure glaucoma (4)
Hazy cornea, fixed dilated pupil (doesn;t constrict to light), ciliary flush. Also photophobia, blurred vision. Raised IOP.
35
Treatment for Glaucoma: medical and surgical
```
A: alpha adrenergic agonist
B: beta blockers
C: carboxyanhydrase inhibitors
P: prostaglandin analouge
Surgical: trabeculectomy, stenting, trabeculoplasty.
```
36
Name 2 examination findings of wet AMD
Discolouration in macular region and ++leakage of vessels
37
Name 2 examination findings of dry AMD
This one is age related. Can see discolouration of macula and also yellow deposits (drusen)
38
Management of macular degen (chronic)- 4
OPTHAL REF. (urgent if associated vision loss)
Anti-VEGF injections, panretinal photocoagulation, also vitamin supplementation. And stop smoking.
(use Amsler grid for metamorphsia)
39
Name examination findings for diabetic retinopathy
Neovascularisation, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, dot-blot haemorrhages
40
Management of diabetic retinopathy
Pan retinal photocoagulation, control sugars+lipids, anti-VEGF for neovascularisation. Vitrectomy if advanced.
41
What are the 5 aspects specific to an airway exam pre-op?
Mallampati Score (1-4)
Mouth open: >3 fingers horizontally
Thyromental distance: >6cm (mentum=tip of chin)
Cervical spine movement: head extension
Jaw thrust: A= overbite, B= normal, C= underbite
42
What is the principle of pre-oxygentation?
Replacing nitrogen in your functional residual capacity with oxygen to allow tolerance of apnoea during intubation
43
What are the 3 causes of reduced apnoea tolerance?
Paediatrics, pregnancy and obesity. (obesity has reduced lung volumes due to abdominal fat and also increased metabolic requirements)
44
What are the benefits of midazolam? (4)
Fast acting, anterograde amnesia and reversibility with flumezanil. Also short acting.
45
Name two volatile agents used in sedation
Sevoflurane and Desflurane. More economical and practical overall but can cause n+v (irritating to airway)
46
Name one depolarising and one non-depolarising muscle relaxant
Depolarising: Suxamethonium
| Non-depolarising: Roccuronium
47
What is the disadvantage of suxamethonium?
Metabolised by cholinesterase: patients with a deficiency in this can have prolonged paralysis.
Also no direct reversal agent, neostigmine= blocks acetylcholinesterase.
48
What is the advantage of rocuronium?
Faster acting and direct reversal available- sugammadex.
49
Name 5 risk factors for PONV
Age (<50), female, non-smoker, prev PONV/sea sickness and certain surgeries.
50
What is propofol?
Hyptonic sedative, used as an induction agent. Can be used via TIVA in patients with high risk PONV.
51
What are the three systems controlled regulation of Na and body water?
1) Renin-AngiotensinII-Aldosterone: increases renal Na abs
2) ANP and BNP: increased renal Na excretion
3) Arginine vasopressin (ADH): reduced renal water excretion
52
Which drug is good for PCA?
Fentanyl, because short duration of action. Synthetic opioid.
53
What is a three pronged approach to central sensitisation?
1) Reduce/crease opioid use
2) Education and improved functioning through self mgmt strategies, relaxation
3) Pharmacotherapy- reduction of excitation (pregab), strengthening of inhibition
54
What is nociceptive pain?
Pain from noxious stimuli
55
What is the acute treatment for shingles (think cause+ pain mgmt)
Early anti-virals (famciclovir) and pain mgmt with opioids, pregab, TCAs and lignocaine patches
56
What are 4 positive sensory signs and symptoms?
Dysesthesias, paresthesias, spontaneous pain, stimulus-evoked pain
57
What are 2 negative sensory signs and symptoms?
Loss/impairment of sensory quality and numbness/reduced sensation
58
What are the complications of obesity and anaesthetics: consider heart, lungs, gastrointestinal and endocrine
Heart: increased blood volume and oxygen consumption+ high prevalence of HTN and IHD
Lungs: decreased FRC and risk of OSA
GI: increased gastric volumes with reduced pH and increased risk of aspiration
Endocrine: increased risk of diabetes
59
What is the anaesthetic risk of obesity (think intubation)
Difficult airway, IV access, post-op complications
60
What mgmt plan needs to be put in place by an intern when seeing an obese patient pre-op (5)
1) Check associated comorbidities
2) Investigations: snoring, HR, BP, ECG, bloods, BSL
3) Inform anaesthetics department: likely difficult patient
4) Low threshold for HDU/ICU post-op: ie book bed
5) Start VTE prophylaxis: high risk
61
What are 3 features of a MCA stroke?
1) Contralateral hemiplegia, upper limbs more than lower limbs
2) Contralateral homonymous haemianopia
3) Dominant lobe infarct= aphasia otherwise neglect
62
What are three features of an ACA stroke?
1) Contralateral hemiplegia, LL > upper
2) Aphasia, dysarrthria
3) Lack of motivation
63
What are two features of a PCA stroke?
1) Memory loss
| 2) Contraleteral homonymous haemianopia or quadrantopia
64
What is the scoring system used to risk stratify a TIA?
```
A: Age >60
B: BP>140/90
C: clinical features, Unilateral weakness (2), speech only (1)
D: Duration >60mins (2), <60 mins
D: Diabetes
More than 4= HIGH
```
65
2 urgent investigations for a stroke?
Non-contrast CT head and CTA cerebral angiogram
66
Name 5 stroke mimics
Todd's peresis, hypoglycaemia, migraine, encephalitis, SOL, MS, functional
67
Aetiology of a haemorrhagic stroke?
Berry aneurysms, SAH, AV malformations, HTN and clotting disorders
68
3 important non-pharmacological mgmt steps for stroke
1) Maintain normoglycaemia and normothermia
2) Prevent aspiration via NGT and NBM
3) DVT prophylaxis and early mobilisation
69
What are the 5 risk straitifcation categories for ACS?
1) STEMI: confirmed via ECG
2) High risk ACS: via ECG or trop
3) Mod risk ACS: suspicious features via Hx or examination
4) Low risk: atypical features on Hx and examination
5) No risk factors for ACS
70
5 complications of a MI?
Heart failure, tamponase, ventricular arrythmias, cardiogenic shock, syncope, AF.
71
What are the aims of glycaemic control in a diabetic patient in hospital?
Avoid hypoglycaemia and DKA
72
What should be the target BSL while patients are in hospital?
5-9
73
What is the classical sign of Pancoast tumour and what syndrome is associated with it?
Loss of intrinsic hand muscles (compression of brachial plexus)
Associated with Horner's syndrome: anhidrosis, ptosis and pupillary constriction
74
What does O SHIT ME stand for re asthma mgmt?
```
CALL FOR HELP IF SEVERE
O: oxygen
S: salbutamol via nebs. IV is +++ unwell
H: hydrocortisone IV
I: ipratropium nebs
T: theophylline/aminophylline
M: magnesium infusion
E: escalation--> ICU for intubation/ventilation
```
75
Name 5 signs of infective endocarditis
Osler's nodes, Janeway lesions, splinter haemorrhages, clubbing, Rot spots (fundoscopy), changing murmurs
76
What is a maneouver for mitral murmur?
Turn the patient on their left side
77
What is a maneouver for an aortic murmur?
Sit the patient up and lean forward, Listen during expiration.
78
Name 5 non-cardiac causes of AF
Alcohol, hyperthyroidism, caffeine, trauam, anaemia (other high output states), hypothermia
79
Name 3 changes you can see for AF on an ECG
irregularly irregular rhythm, no p waves, variable ventricular rate
80
List the CHADS2VASc score
```
C: CCF
H: HTN
A: age >75 (2 points)
D: diabetis
S: stroke/TIA = 2 points
V: vascular disease
A: age 65-74
S: sex= female
```
81
List the HAASBLED score
```
H: HTN
A: abnormal liver fn
A: abnormal kidney fn
S: smoking
B: bleeding disorders
L: labile INR
E: elderly >65
D: drugs/aclo
```
82
What are 3 non-MI causes of raised troponin?
Pericarditis, vasculitis, renal failure, sepsis, burns, cardiomyopathy
83
What is the STEMI criteria?
>2mm ST rise in two adjacent chest leads, >1mm ST elevation in 2 adjacent limb leads
84
Name 5 post myocardial infarction complications
Pulmonary oedema, arrythmias, cardiogenic shock, pericarditis, thromboembolism, mitral regurg
85
What is Dressler's syndrome?
Autoimmune pericarditis after cardiac injury- presents 2-3 weeks later. Causes fever, pleuritic chest pain, pericardial effusion and raised ESR. Treat with high dose aspirin.
86
Briefly list NYHA
I: No symptoms, heart disease present
II: SOB on normal activity, fine at rest.
III: SOB on ADLS
IV: SOB at rest
87
What is the Standford Classification of aortic dissection?
A: in ascending aorta
B: in descending aorta.
88
Name 5 side effects of radiotherapy
Radiation pneumonitis, skin reactions, nausea, vomitting, diarrhoea, neuropathy/myelopathy, mucositis
89
What are the 5Rs of raadiotherapy?
1) Repair of normal cells
2) Redistribution of malignant cells into sensitive phase
3) Reoxygenation of acutely/chronically hypoxic tumour
4) Repopulation of normal and malignant cells
5) Radiosensitivity
90
What is the definition of febrile neutropenia?
Temp>38 and current neutrophil count <0.5 or suspected to drop in next 48hours
91
How many days after chemo is neutropenia expected?
5-10 days
92
What are 6 local complications of malignancy?
1) SVC obs
2) Spinal cord compression
3) Raised ICP
4) Bony mets
5) Pleural and pericardial effusions
6) AIrway obs
93
What are 5 signs of SVC obs?
1) Facial plethora
2) Distended neck veins
3) Horner's syndrome
4) Headache (cerebral oedema worse on bending over)
5) Hoarse voice
6) Syncope
94
What are 4 features of tumour lysis syndrome?
1) Hyperkalaemia
2) Hyperphosphaemtemia
3) Hyporcalcaemia
4) Hyperurecaemia
95
What are 4 hallmark features of nephrotic syndrome?
1) Proteinuria
2) Hypoalbuminaemia
3) Hyperlipidaemia
4) Peripheral oedema
96
What are 4 hallmark features of nephritic syndrome?
1) Haematuria
2) Mild proteinuria (<3.5g)
3) HTN
4) oliguria
97
What is the most common nephrotic syndrome in kids?
Minimal change disease
98
What are the causes of anion gap metabolic acidosis (AGMA)? (Think LTKR)
1) Lactate
2) Toxins
3) Ketones: DKA
4) Renal failure
99
What are the 4 causes of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis (NAGMA)? (ABCD)
A: Addison's
B: Bicarb ions
C: chloride ions (ie too much NaCl)
D: Diuretics
100
What is the treatment for hyperkalemia?
1) Ca gluconate (cardioprotective)
2) IV insulin+ dextrose
3) salbutamol nebs
101
What is the treatment for non-massive/low risk submassive PE?
LMWH heparin OR NOAC (for 3/12 usually)
102
What is the treatment for high risk submassive PE?
LMWH OR IV heparin. Consider clot removal or catheter directed thrombolysis or half-dose fibrinolysis
103
Whhat 3 features define a submassive PE?
1) Clinical features
2) Imaging: large clot on CTPA or echo evidence of RHS
3) Labs: elevated lactate, BNP or troponin
NO SHOCK in submassive
104
What are 2 features of a massive PE?
Ongoing hypotention (<90) or significant clinical compromise
105
What is the management of a massive PE?
Depends on bleeding risk but can be tPA, embelectomy and catheter directed thrombolysis
106
List Well's Score (7)
3: Clinical features of DVT
3: PE is the most likely diagnosis
1.5: Prior DVT/PE
1.5: Tachycardia >100
1.5: Recent immobilisation/surg in past 4 weeks
1: haemoptysis
1: Malignancy
<2= low risk
107
Explain the use of a Wells and PERC score
The Well's score is used to stratify patients into low, med and high risk categories. The PERC score is used to clinically rule OUT a PE in low risk patients.
108
Name 5 risk factors for a DVT
ORAL CONTRACEPTIVES, long periods of immobilisation, recent surgery, malignancy, obesity, prior DVT< family history of DVT/hypercoagulability disorders
109
What is the investigations pathway for DVT?
Wells score first. If DVT unlikely then D-dimer. If DVT likely than US.
110
What defines a proximal DVT?
Anywhere above the knee ie iliac, femoral, popliteal
111
What is the mgmt of a proximal DVT?
Long term anticoagulation
112
What 4 factors gurantee treatment in a distal DVT?
Symptomatic, unprovoked, inpatient status or prior DVT. Also prolonged DVT.
113
List 4 examination findings of a pleural effusion
Reduced breath sounds on affected side, dull percussion note, reduced chest expansion on affected side, maybe tracheal deviation
114
List 4 causes of an exudative pleural effusion
Parapneumonic, malignancy, TB, autoimmune disease
115
List 4 causes of a transudative plueral effusion
CCF, hepatic cirrhosis, CKD, nephrotic syndrome, protein losing enteropathy
116
What is the most important investigation for a pleural effusion?
Pleural fluid analysis with LDH, protein and glucose ratio. Also MC+S
117
What is the treatment for a parapneumonic effusion?
IV Benpen+ metro. If high severity, change to cef.
118
What is the Rx for an empyema (secondary to pleural effusion?)
Empyema= pus in pleural splace. Treat with alteplase via intercostal tube- same with loculated pleural effusion.
119
What are 3 risks of thoracocentesis?
Seeding needle tract with cancer cells, idiopathic pneumothorax, empyema, soft tissue infection.
120
What is the criteria used to clinically diagnose Acute Rheumatic Fever?
Jones criteria
121
What is the mgmt for ARF?
IM Benzathine benzylpenicillin (one dose) or Penicillin V bd for 10 days
Also aspirin/NSAIDs for arthralgia
122
What is the prophylactic Rx for ARF?
IM Benzathine benzylpenicillin once/month for a minimum of 10 years
123
How does endocarditis present?
Fever, tachycardia, malaise, dyspnoea, cough, myalgias. Can develop progressive heart failure
124
What bloods do you need for infective endocarditis?
FBC, UEC (can get glomerulonephritis from infection), LFT, ESR, CRP and blood cultures
125
What is the Rx for IE?
Non-pharm: Need MDT input
| Pharm: IV beta-lactams for 4-6 weeks.
126
What are 4 causes of an aortic dissection?
Vasculitis, HTN, atherosclerosis, congenital malformations (ie Marfans), pregnancy, trauma
127
What is name and description of the classification system used for aortic dissection?
Stanford classification.
A: in ascending aorta
B: in descending aorta
128
What are the indications for surgical management of an aortic dissection? (5)
Type A, persistent pain, leak/continued extension, branch occlusion, lack of perfusion to peripheral organs
129
What are the three principles of conservative management of aortic dissection?
1) Sedation and analgesia: to reduce HR and reduce shearing forces
2) Resus: control fluid loss w/replacement
3) Permission hyPOtension: target systolic should be 90 to reduce force. Use IV labetalol or propranolol
130
How do you treat tumour lysis syndrome? (3)
Hydration, correction of electrolyte abnormalities and monitor renal fn
131
What are 5 bad prognostic indicators of GI bleeding?
age>60, bleeding in hospital, coagulopathy, medications (anticoagulant, steroid), co-morbidities (liver, heart, lungs)
132
What are 3 good prognostic indicators for GI bleeding?
1) Hb >130
2) No malaena or syncope
3) No cardiac failure
133
What are 3 agents for reversal for warfarin?
Vit K, prothrombin X or FFP
134
What is the management of a variceal bleed?
1) ABCDE
2) Terilipressin
3) Broad spectrum Abx (bleeding most often caused by infection)
4) Endoscopy once stable
135
What is the management of a non-variceal bleed?
PPI infusion.
136
What is important for any patient with a GI bleed?
ABCDE before endoscopy!! Always.
137
Name 5 causes of CKD
Diabetes, HTN, glomerulonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, congenital urological malformation, chronic inflammation, amyloidosis
138
What are the 3 functions of a kidney?
1) Excretory: get rid of toxins ie urea, creatinine, NH3 and drugs
2) Regulatory: fluid regulation- blood volume, electrolytes, pH
3) Endocrine: Vit D abs, EPO
139
Name 5 symptoms of CKD
PERIPHERAL OEDEMA
| pruritis, nocturia, fatigue, SOB, peripheral neuropathy, foamy urine, pulmonary oedema, bone pain
140
Name bedside investigations for CKD (4)
ECG, BSL, UA (dipstick and spot ACR/PCR)
141
What bloods would need to be conducted for someone with ?CKD?
FBC, UEC, PTH, Ca, PO4, albumin, coags, platelets, HbA1c, CRP, ESR (+/- ANA/ANCA)
142
What micro investigation is required for CKD?
Urine microscopy (look for red cell casts) and renal biopsy
143
What is the imaging required for CKD?
US KUB +/- CT
144
What are 3 indications for dialysis in a CKD patient
Symtomatic uraemia, electrolyte abnormalities, continued HTN, peripheral oedema (that is not manageable) , signs of malnutrition
145
What is the normal anion gap?
12
146
What are two common causes of respiratory alkalosis?
PE or hyperventilation (anxiety/panic attack)
147
What are the management options for someone with ESRF? (3)
COnservative (palliation), dialysis (peritoneal or haemofiltration) or renal transplant
148
What are the 3 features of hyperkalaemia on ECG?
Absent/small p waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS and peaked T waves
149
What does a pronator drift indicate?
UMN lesion (arm contralateral to the lesion affected)
150
What does wasting of the thenar eminences indicate?
Compression/atrophy of median nerve
151
What does DANISH stand for with reference to cerebellar disease?
```
D: dysdidokokinesis
A: ataxia
N: nystagmus
I: intention tremor
S: slurred speech
H: hypotonia
```
152
How does injury to the radial nerve present? (3)
Wrist drop, loss of elbow extension and loss of sensation over anatomical snuff box
153
What is the one classical finding of an ulnar nerve injury?
Partial claw hand
154
How do you test the power of median, radial and ulnar nerve?
Median: ok sign
Radial: thumbs up
Ulnar: fingers spread apart
155
What are the 4 classical features of Parkinson's disease?
Cogwheel rigidity, pill rolling tremor, bradykinesia and postural hypotension
156
What is the classical sign on a MRI for MS?
Plaques- sites of inflammation.
157
What is the aetiology of Gullian Barre?
Autoimmune reaction precipitated by a viral illness (typically GI) or vaccinations
158
What is the treatment for GBS?
IVIG, steroids, plasmapheresis, fix autonomic disturbances ie inotropes
159
Name 3 differences between the radiological appearances of a small and large bowel
1) Location: central vs peripheral
2) Haustra seen in large bowel
3) Plicae circularis in small bowel - extend all the way across lumen
160
What are 4 differences between billiary colic and cholecystitis?
1) Biliary colic lasts <6hours
2) Not associated with fever/chills
3) Murphy's test -ve (hand below rib, patient breathes in and out)
4) Typically only nausea (cystitis= nausea and vomm)
161
What am I: focal uptake on radionuclide scan, TPO Ab titre low or absent and radioactive iodine is the first treatment?
Toxic multi-nodular goitre/toxic adenoma
162
What is the onset and features of post-partum thyroiditis?
Onset 1-6months post-partum, initial hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism. TPO Ab high in most.
163
What am I: Post-viral tender thyroid goitre followed by hypothyroidism. ESR high.
Subacute thyroiditis (De Quervain's)
164
What are 3 causes of hepatomegaly?
hepatitic, metastatic liver disease, lymphoma, HCC, NAFLD
165
Name 3 extra-intestinal manifestations of inflammatory bowel disease
Skin: pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema nordosum
Eyes: anterior uveitis
Joints: sacroiliatis
Also PSC and PBC- PSC more in UC
166
Name 4 differences between Crohn's and UC
Crohn's has anal disease, fistulae, strictures and skip lesion and transmural ulcers
167
What am I? Most common glomerular nephritis and granular staining on microscopy?
IgA Nephropathy. (gross haematuria after viral illess)
168
Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in kids?
Minimal change disease
169
Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?
Focal segmental glomerular sclerosis (FSGS)
170
Name 5 causes of macrocytic anaemia
B12, folate, alcoholic liver cirrhosis, aplastic anaemia, chronic liver disease
171
Name 4 causes of normocytic anaemia
Haemolytic anaemia, sickle cell disease, malaria, drugs/troxins
172
Name 4 causes of microcytic anaemia
Iron deficiency, thalassemia, sideroblastic anaemia and anaemia of chronic disease (inflammation)
173
Which type of hernia has the highest risk of strangulation?
Femoral (due to narrow canal)
174
What is sialolithiasis?
Stone in the salivary gland. Usually worsened lump after eating. Treat with candy, massage/heat and Abx.
175
Name one local, one traumatic and one systemic cause of epistaxis
Local: vascular, inflammation, dessication, foriegn body
Traumatic: nose picking, nasogastric intubation, barotrauma
Systemic: vasculitis, infection/inflammation, coagulopathy
