General Technical

Question 1

What does TEM stand for?

Answer 1

TEM stands for anticipate, recognize, recover

Examples include NADP2 for noise purposes, visual approaches conditions, point merge, and challenging destinations like Funchal and PDL.

Question 2

When should minimum fuel and mayday fuel calls be made?

Answer 2

Calls should be made when:
* Any change of ETA will likely result in landing with less than planned final reserve fuel
* Calculated usable fuel on landing at the nearest adequate aerodrome is less than final reserve fuel.

Question 3

What steps should be taken if performance is limited for take-off?

Answer 3

Steps include:
* OPT Improved Climb
* Change Flaps
* No engine bleeds take-off

If these do not work, consider offloading freight, then fuel, and possibly make an enroute stop to refuel.

Question 4

What is the role of RFFS?

Answer 4

RFFS stands for Rescue and Fire-Fighting Services, which is essential at aerodromes like B737-800/8200 RFFS 7.

Question 5

What are the conditions for planning minima for alternate airports?

Answer 5

Conditions include:
* TO alternate – not more than 1h flight time w/OEI
* Destination alternate – at least 1alternate; at least 2 alternates when conditions are marginal or no conditions exist.
* No alternate needed if approved by operations under specific criteria.
* Destination Alternates planning minima: type B instrument approach DA/H + 200ft, RVR + 800m; type A instrument approach DA\H MDA\H + 400ft RVR + 1500M.

Question 6

What are the limitations for inexperienced First Officers?

Answer 6

Limitations include:
* XW more than 2/3 of limit
* Runway performance limited
* TO and LDG RVR <1000m
* Ceiling <100’ above decision altitude for PA, 200’ >MDA for NPA
* Runway contaminated
* Abnormal procedures due to system defects
* XW landing in excess of 15kts
* Visual approaches
* Forecast or reported wind shear on approach.

Question 7

What is the specific amount of flight crew oxygen required for dispatch?

Answer 7

Required PSI for specific oxygen bottle size is detailed in the FCOM performance dispatch in route.

Question 8

What should be done on departure and approach if birds are reported?

Answer 8

Actions include:
* Wait
* Inform ATC and request specific bird procedures
* Brief engine failure procedures
* Prepare for eventual loss of thrust on one or both engines
* Ask for a different runway if available.

Question 9

What is the wind shear escape maneuver? Diff btw predictive vs warning. How to transition.

Answer 9

The wind shear escape maneuver involves:
* Weather radar predictive wind shear caution illuminated alert + aural sound
* GPWS hard warning call + aural sound
* On T/O or GA _ when actioned F/D commands: target speed until v/s is 600 fpm, then targets 15º NUA until stick shaker, then it keeps intermitent stick shaker.
* On Approach and Lading _ if not actionable by the pilots, the aircraft will keep altitude or GS without regard for AOA or stall.
* Transition occurs when warning stops (out of wind shear)

Question 10

What speed should be flown when diverting?

Answer 10

Long Range Cruise speed should be flown.

Question 11

What should be done at F300 regarding heading and bank?

Answer 11

Set heading select bank to 10º.

If ATC tells to increase rate due to conflicting traffic, respond ‘Unable; TCAS RA will protect us.’

Question 12

What are Type A and Type B approaches?

Answer 12

Type A: (non precision approach or precision approach)
* 2D (lateral navigation only) or 3D (lateral and vertical navigation)
* DH >=250ft

Type B: (Precision approach)
* 3D DH < 250ft, >=200ft.

Question 13

What are the restrictions for new commanders?

Answer 13

Restrictions include:
* Not operate to CATB restricted airports
* Confirm category of airports and alternates
* Not operate with an inexperienced co-pilot
* Not allowed to perform visual approaches unless no other approach is available.

Question 14

What defines CAT A, CAT B, and CAT C airports?

Answer 14

Definitions include:
* CAT A: approved instrument approach with glide path no more than 3.5 degrees; at least 1runways not performance limited for TO or LDG (no special EOSID)., night operation approved
* CAT B: does not meet CAT A conditions. Non-standard approach, unusual weather/turbulence/sheer/runway characteristics (lenght, width, slope, markings, lighting, special EOSID, training required)
* CAT B restricted: CAT B + narraw runway, LDA less than 1800m, circling required, other considerations identified.
* CAT C: Additional considerations than CAT B, flight crew experience or qualification stipulated by authority.

Question 15

What are the Madrid minimums for ILS?

Answer 15

The minimums are 280’ for Type A approaches.

Question 16

Explain Bowed Rotor Motoring (BRM).

Answer 16

Bowed Rotor Motoring (BRM) is the straightening of the rotor shaft during engine start on the 8200. It occurs when the engine start switch is moved to GND, allowing for even heating and reducing thermal deformation.

Question 17

What is the bleed philosophy on MAX aircraft?

Answer 17

Bleed light logic after TO will illuminate if in incorrect bleed air configuration after TO or GA; NG will not illuminate.

Question 18

What should be done if the CVR circuit breaker is pulled?

Answer 18

Call duty pilot, make a tech log entry, and contact MAINTROL.

Question 19

What is the difference between a security check and a security search?

Answer 19

A security search occurs when unauthorized access is suspected or when the aircraft arrives from a third country, involving checks of the flight deck, cabin, wheel well, and external panels.

Flight Crew:
* Flight Deck (if left unattended)
* Wheel Well
* Air Conditioning Panel
* External Panels and hatches (if evidence of unauthorised tampering)
Cabin Crew
* Areas between the seats and between the seat and wall
Ground Crew:
* Aircraft Hold

Question 20

What should be done if hail is encountered during flight?

Answer 20

Actions include:
* Engine Start Switches - CONT
* A/T - Disengage
* Thrust Levers - Adjust slowly
* IAS/Mach - Use a slower speed
* Consider starting the APU.

Question 21

What considerations should be made for a passenger with a heart attack?

Answer 21

Consider diverting to a suitable airport, advising ATC with a PAN PAN, and requesting medical assistance upon arrival.

Question 22

What are the conditions for executing an orbit?

Answer 22

Conditions include:
* Not less than 10Nm from touchdown
* Descent not below MSA or 3000’, whichever is higher
* Executed as a racetrack pattern
* Maximum flaps 10, speed brake use if necessary.

Question 23

What is the procedure for a discontinued approach?

Answer 23

Use the TEM tool to mitigate risks, including:
* PF calls ‘Discontinued approach’
* Retract speed brake
* Point to the MAA on the LEGS page and call “XXX feet”. Point to the MCP altitude “SET”. (PM: “XXXX checked”)
* Confirm landing gear position.
* Confirm flaps configuration
* Call “Ready”
If below MAA:
* Execute go-around.
If above MAA:
* If required de-tune ILS
* Select appropriate roll and pitch mode
* Level OFF at MAA.
* At ALT HOLD: bug up, retarct flaps + gear
* After TO X-list

Question 24

What is the stop climb procedure?

Answer 24

Use ALT HOLD to reset new MCP altitude and engage LVL CHG.

Question 25

What are the memory items for loss of thrust on both engines?

Answer 25

Memory items include: * Engine Start Switches (both) – FLT * Engine Start Levers (both) - CUTOFF * When EGT decreases, Engine Start Levers (both) to idle detent. * If EGT reaches a redline or there is no increase in EGT within 30s: Eng Start Lever (affected Engine)..confirm…CUTOFF, then idle detent. * if EGT again reaches a redline or the is no increase in EGT within 30s, repeat as needed.

Question 26

Can ATC control your speed while descending in Class D airspace?

Answer 26

Yes, speed restrictions exist within Class D airspace.

Question 27

What are TCAS RA and TA?

Answer 27

*TCAS RA: Resolution Advisory (full red square) —> 25s from impact *TCAS TA: Traffic Advisory (full amber circle) —> 40s from point of contact Proximate traffic (full white square) - within 6NM and less than 1200ft vertically Other traffic (empty square) - outside 6NM more than 1200ft vertically Xpdr mode A - TA Xpdr mode C or S - TA / vertical RA TCAS II - TA + coordinated RA MODE S is mandatory to IFR In Europe.

Question 28

What are the speed brake limitations?

Answer 28

* Do not extend beyond flight detent in flight. * It should be avoided the use of speed brake with flaps. * With flaps 15 or greater the use of speed brake should be avoided. * Speed brake should be retracted below 1000 feet.

Question 29

What extra checks should be made at the end of the flight if arriving from a third country?

Answer 29

Security Search include: Flight Crew: * Flight Deck (if left unattended) * Wheel Well * Air Conditioning Panel * External Panels and hatches (if evidence of unauthorised tampering) Cabin Crew * Areas between the seats and between the seat and wall Ground Crew: * Aircraft Hold

Question 30

What considerations are there for an inoperative stab trim?

Answer 30

No A/P, no A/T, manual trimming, increased workload, anticipationf of changes in energy, early configuration, asking for a long final, no CAT2/3, no RVSM flight, more fuel: lower flight level.

Question 31

What is the procedure for UPRT recovery?

Answer 31

Procedures include: * Nose High / Nose Low recovery * Wind Shear Escape Maneuver * Approach to Stall or Stall Recovery * Terrain Escape Maneuver * Rejected Take-Off.

Question 32

What should be done in case of an engine failure in cruise?

Answer 32

Follow drift down procedure and manage by: * Disconnect auto throttle + Set thrust to limit CON * On the ENG OUT CRZ page notice Max altitude & Max speed * Set Max speed on the MCP _ allow the A/C to decelerate _ engage LVL CHG _ deviate 45º from course * Notify ATC and perform the non-normal checklist. * When Level at target speed, maintain MCT. * Insert new ALT on CRZ PAGE for an update on ETA and Top of Descent prediction * If needed EEC will allow thrust up to the mechanical stop from the operating engine: below 15000ft and M.045.

Question 33

How does probability of thunderstorms affect fuel planning?

Answer 33

With a 40% probability of thunderstorms, always dispatch with two landing airports available and carry discretionary fuel for holding.

Question 34

What is the maximum number of days before a Cat C HIL, MEL item needs to be fixed?

Answer 34

Cat C has a 10-day limit before it must be fixed. Cat A - interval specified in the MEL Cat B - 3days Cat C - 10days Cat D - 120days

Question 35

When can the forward door be opened?

Answer 35

The forward door can be opened when the password is given and the cabin crew is seen through the peephole.

Question 36

What are the RFFS categories for departure and destination aerodromes?

Answer 36

RFFS Categories are services provided by rescue and fire fighting services to support safety in aircraft operations (based on fuselage length & width) Departure and Destination Aerodrome: - Equal or better than RFFS 7. - Where a risk assessment has been made by the operator, then: 1 category bellow, or, - 2 categories bellow in case of a temporary downgrade of 72h or less but not lower than cat 4. Take-off alternate and destination alternates: - 2 categories below when a risk assessment has been made by the operator or - 3 categories below in case of a temporary downgrade of 72h or less but not lower than cat 4. En-route alternates: - if at least 30min notice is given: a minimum cat 4. - If less than 30min notice: 2 cat below or 3 cat below in case of a temporary downgrade of 72h or less but not lower than cat 4. In flight, the cap may decide to land at an airport where RFFS is lower than specified is that is the safer course of action.

Question 37

What are the memory items for engine limit surge stall?

Answer 37

Memory items include: * A/T if engaged - disengage * Thrust lever - affected engine - confirm - retard until indications stay within limits or thrust lever is closed

Question 38

Until what point is MEL used?

Answer 38

MEL is used until the aircraft is moving under its own power.

Question 39

What are the considerations for stall at high level vs low level?

Answer 39

High level stalls are easier to initiate.

Question 40

What is the minimum CAT4 notice duration?

Answer 40

Less than 30 minutes, with conditions applied. 2 categories below or 3 categories below in case of a temporary downgrade of 72 hours or less, but not lower than RFFS 4.

Question 41

What are the engine limit surge stall memory items?

Answer 41

A/T if engaged: disengage; Thrust lever: affect engine, confirm, retard until engine indication stays within limits or thrust lever is closed.

Question 42

Until what point is the MEL used?

Answer 42

Until the aircraft is moving under its own power.

Question 43

What are the considerations for stalling at high level vs low level?

Answer 43

High level: easier to stall but safer; Low level: more margin but shorter recovery space.

Question 44

What is the main difference between the SFP package and normal NG?

Answer 44

SFP is designed to improve take-off and landing performance on short runways, with specific features like reduced idle delay and enhanced spoiler deployment. - idle thrust delay reduced from 5sec to 2 sec. - flight and ground spoilers deflection increased to 60º - sealed LE Slats, moving to FULL EXT only w/ F30&40

Question 45

What differentiates RNP1 from RNAV1?

Answer 45

RNP (required navigation performance) is purely GNSS (GPS); RNAV (area navigation) could be updates on GNSS, VOR, DME, LOC, IRS.

Question 46

What are the differences between NADP1 and NADP2?

Answer 46

NADP1: Acceleration height 3000ft, ATC contact above 1000ft; NADP2: Acceleration height 1000ft, ATC contact after selecting Flaps UP.

Question 47

What segment of flight utilizes RNAV1?

Answer 47

SID, STAR, Missed approach. +-1NM for 95% of the time. Cruise RNAV5 Cruise oceanic RNP 4 CPDLC ADS-C required Approach - rnp app - LNAV, LNAV/VNAV

Question 48

What is the legal effectiveness of BECMG?

Answer 48

Change in meteorological conditions starting at the beginning of the trend forecast period, completed by the end of that period, otherwise within 2 hours.

Question 49

Are timed approach procedures allowed?

Answer 49

Yes, under specific conditions including FMC NAV Database availability and restrictions on VS and LNAV use.

Question 50

What are the conditions for continuing a long landing?

Answer 50

Conditions: at discretion of the Captain unless operating on a short runway (<1800m). In that case a GA is mandatory. Conditions for a long landing warning: within 100 feet AGL, passed 33% of the runway, airborne above 5 feet AGL or weight on wheels is false.

Question 51

What defines inexperienced cabin crew?

Answer 51

Less than 3 months of operating experience or 125 flight hours as a Cabin Crew Member.

Question 52

What are the considerations for compressor wash and related engine failure on takeoff?

Answer 52

No engine bleed takeoff after compressor wash, de-icing considerations, and increased workload with no engine bleed. - Memory items. Non normal checklist. - No engine bleed after takeoff x-list - QRH Recovery X-List

Question 53

What actions should be taken for window damage?

Answer 53

- Delaminated: continue normal operation; - arcing: limit airspeed below Fl 100; - cracked or shattered: follow specific procedures based on severity. Pressurization + window integrity (bird strike) are at risk.

Question 54

What is the PA for rapid disembark and evacuation?

Answer 54

Disembarkation: a non-normal situation occurs while embarking/disembarking. Not an immediately threat to crew or passengers, but which may escalate. 'Disembark the passengers immediately using all available doors' (2x); Evacuation: Real threat exists to crew and passengers within the airplane. ´This is an emergency, evacuate the aircraft using all available exits' (2x).

Question 55

What is the procedure for shutting down engines at stand?

Answer 55

Engine 1 and 2 less than 20% N2, anti-collision light OFF.

Question 56

Why is manual flying discouraged at high altitudes?

Answer 56

High TAS, reduced margins, increased sensitivity of controls.

Question 57

When should bleeds be configured during engine failure at 400ft?

Answer 57

Not below 1500ft; QRH assumes bleeds in normal position.

Question 58

Can cabin crew be all in the back galley together?

Answer 58

Assumed no.

Question 59

What can be done if going to an outstation without maintenance?

Answer 59

Raise a Hold Item List (HIL) with specific approval and procedures.

Question 60

What is a two-phase call?

Answer 60

A confirmation bias mitigation technique.

Question 61

When is 'Cleared' used in the two-phase call?

Answer 61

Only for Take-Off.

Question 62

What actions should be taken after a level bust due to wind shear?

Answer 62

Pull CVR CB; file an ASR.

Question 63

What are VMC and IMC definitions?

Answer 63

VMC: specific visibility and altitude conditions: - above 3000ft or 1000’ above terrain which ever is higher: - 1500m horizontally and 1000´vertically from cloud (300ft) - until 1000 visibility 5km and 8km above 10000 - below 3000’ or 1000’ above terrain whichever is higher: - clear of cloud and in sight of ground - visibility 5Km IMC: conditions less than VFR requiring instrument reference.

Question 64

What is the controlling document before taxi and during taxi?

Answer 64

Before taxi: MEL After taxi: QRH (plus MEL)

Question 65

What should be done if a window is cracked at FL370?

Answer 65

Check QRH for window damage procedures.

Question 66

What is the 3-2-1 rule?

Answer 66

Level bust mitigation: at 3 to go, less than 3000fpm; at 2 to go, less than 2000fpm; at 1 to go, 1000fpm.

Question 67

How can you find Probe Heat light information in the QRH?

Answer 67

Alphabetical or chapter 3 (anti-ice, rain)

Question 68

What configuration provides the greatest altitude loss per NM?

Answer 68

Flaps 10 + Speed Brake + 180kts.

Question 69

What are the un-annunciated and QAI sections of the QRH?

Answer 69

Un-annunciated: checklists without alerts, light or other indications. Ex: ditching, smoke&fumes. QAI: Quick Action Index, x-lists that need a quick response. Upper case —> are annunciated. Lower case —> are not annunciated.

Question 70

What do chapters 3, 6, 9 of the QRH cover?

Answer 70

3 – Anti-ice, Rain. 6 – Electrical; 9 – Flight controls;

Question 71

What is the difference between reactive and predictive wind shear?

Answer 71

The source of the warning. Predictive: weather radar Reactive: GPWS

Question 72

What is the difference between rapid disembarkation and evacuation?

Answer 72

Rapid disembarkation occurs when not life-threatening; evacuation occurs otherwise. Fuel spillage, fire outside the aircraft, security alert, smoke & fumes in the cabin. “Disembark the passengers immediately using all available doors” x2

Question 73

What should be done if TCAS RA is received at FL410 with a climb command?

Answer 73

Follow the climb command.

Question 74

What should you say in the crew briefing to improve communication?

Answer 74

Encourage reporting anything strange or out of the ordinary.

Question 75

What is the decision-making process during a non-normal situation?

Answer 75

Control the situation, mitigate the threat, assess options, collect information. Piosee is a very good way to structure though.

Question 76

If you first reach MFRA and then the turn point, what should you do?

Answer 76

Depends on any speed restriction. With a speed restriction for the turn, we must finish the turn until accelerate and retract flaps. Otherwise we procede as normal, bug up + retract flaps on schedule. Attention: 15º AOB assumed up to v2 + 20. 25º AOB at or above flaps up maneuvering speed.

Question 77

What is the procedure for deviation from a CB at FL350?

Answer 77

Plan with at least 40NM distance; deviate upwind; minimum distance 20Nm. Cells exceeding 35000’ should be given extra distance Avoid overflying cells at or above 25000’ Do not try to overfly a cell by less than 5000’ due to severe turbulence. Avoid fly under a thunderstorm: ws, turbulence, hail..

Question 78

What actions are taken for blocked flight controls after a turn?

Answer 78

Go to Jammed or Restricted Flight Controls NNC; both pilots should counteract the jam to try to override it (ice formation or dirt accumulation, cable brake, improper lubrication, worn parts). Activate the override feature by independently forcing the controls: the one with most movement is not jammed. With elevator jam: use trim; With aileron jam use rudder. With rudder jam, use aileron. With spoiler use rudder and/or aileron. plan to land at nearest suitable airport.

Question 79

Where can you find the list of Schengen countries?

Answer 79

Jeppesen documents.

Question 80

What actions should be taken for an EFB fire on flight?

Answer 80

Remove from charging, With flames / without flames: - don oxygen, take gloves, discharge halon, repeat. No flames: - isolate: move ped from flight deck into forward galley.

Question 81

What should be considered if there is no weather information for the destination?

Answer 81

Need for two destination alternates.

Question 82

What data is used for OPT?

Answer 82

OEI F15 landing, 5ºC: VREF ICE so +15.

Question 83

What are the RVSM requirements?

Answer 83

- Two independent altitude systems, - altitude alerting system, - automatic altitude control system - a secondary surveillance radar (ssr) transponder - and specific error tolerances. (Total vertical error: +-90m (300ft), altímetro system error 75m (245ft), assigned altitude deviation 90m (300ft).

Question 84

What should be done regarding TS avoidance?

Answer 84

Avoid upwind; deviate by specific distances based on altitude.

Question 85

What to do if TCAS fails?

Answer 85

Do not operate in uncontrolled airspace; inform Ryanair Ops, if in flight inform ATC.

Question 86

What does the QRH state regarding EGPWS caution?

Answer 86

Enhanced ground proximity warning system Any warning from egpws is serious. Caution - only CAUTION TERRAIN (40/60s impact with terrain) Look out for traffic; maneuvers based solely on TA are not recommended.

Question 87

What is the further distance you can plan an alternate?

Answer 87

As far as fuel allows – fuel + final reserve.

Question 88

What can be done in IMC for terrain escape maneuver?

Answer 88

Perform the maneuver as in VMC. Monitor radio altitude - visible when a/c below 2500ft AGL. Below 1000ft readout present as a dial.

Question 89

What is the transition from terrain escape once clear of threat?

Answer 89

Transition into a go-around, assess your configuration.

Question 90

When do you need two alternates?

Answer 90

No forecast at destination, forecast below minima, specific Flight Operation approved.

Question 91

What is the wingspan of NG vs MAX?

Answer 91

NG: 35.79m; MAX: 35.92m.

Question 92

What is the maximum tire speed dependent on?

Answer 92

Dependent on weight, calculated based on OAT and airport pressure altitude.

Question 93

What are the engine overheat memory items if the light doesn't extinguish?

Answer 93

A/T if engaged: disengage; Thrust Lever: affected engine, confirm, close.

Question 94

What is the difference between overheat and surge/limit/stall?

Answer 94

Close thrust lever vs retard until indications stay within limits.

Question 95

What to do in case of a tailpipe fire?

Answer 95

Confirm no engine fire indication; Abort the engine start Monitor situation to assess fire proceed to NNC.

Question 96

What lights do you see at night when an aircraft flies in front, right to left?

Answer 96

Initially red then white when it passes.

Question 97

How many LE slats are on the 737 and how many are heated?

Answer 97

8 slats (4 on each side), not heated.

Question 98

How many flight spoilers are there and what is their role?

Answer 98

8 flight spoilers; increase drag and reduce lift.

Question 99

What is the final reserve fuel requirement?

Answer 99

30 minutes holding at 1500ft in standard conditions above aerodrome.

Question 100

What is the function of LAM on MAX?

Answer 100

LAM —> Landing Attitude Modifier Helps maintain acceptable nose landing gear contact margin and increases drag. - F 30 &40 symmetrical deployment flight spoilers to increase pitch angle to keep nose landing gear contact margins equivalent to the 737-800. - F15 through 30 with thrust near idle -> symmetrical spoiler deployment to create additional drag to help maintaining glide as B737-800.

Question 101

How is shear value calculated and where can it be found?

Answer 101

Calculated from wind speeds and direction samples; found in OMA part 8 Operating Procedures.

Question 102

What does a significant weather chart indicate regarding CAT?

Answer 102

CAT is marked by a dotted line; jetstream speed is indicated by flags.

Question 103

What does the green indicator on the FO side of the nose signify?

Answer 103

Oxygen pressure relief green disk indicates overpressure release has happen. Max pressure 1859PSI. Disk discharges at 2600PSI. If the disk is not there, a discharge has happen.

Question 104

What are the conditions for using rear steps during 40kts?

Answer 104

Requires GOPS approval; maximum wind speed allowed is 60kts.

Question 105

What does the green disk on the oxygen pressure relief indicate?

Answer 105

Visual alert that the crew oxygen system is releasing pressure due to overpressure ## Footnote This is a safety feature to notify crew of potential issues with oxygen systems.

Question 106

What is the maximum wind speed allowed for operations with rear steps?

Answer 106

60kts including gusts until the wind goes below 60kts for more than 30 minutes ## Footnote Special authorization from GOPS is required for use above 20kts.

Question 107

What are the spoiler deployment angles for NG and SFP during ground operations?

Answer 107

NG: 33º-38º, SFP: 56º-65º down to 60Kts ## Footnote Ground spoilers can deflect up to 60º.

Question 108

How many flaps and slats are on the wing and where are they located?

Answer 108

LE devices: 4 flaps and 8 slats; TE devices: 4 flaps Krugger flaps are not present on NG or MAX.

Question 109

When do we use all engine climb gradient?

Answer 109

When specified on the chart in Minimum Climb Gradient

Question 110

What actions should be taken when presented with a restrictive SID Climb Gradient?

Answer 110

* Select CLB1/CLB2 * Remove assumed temperature (go full) * Select higher TO thrust * Activate I/C EXT * Select optimum flaps * Select A/C OFF

Question 111

What is the penalty for uplifting extra fuel?

Answer 111

2.5% of the extra fuel per hour of flight.

Question 112

What is the minimum fuel required at arrival?

Answer 112

1800kg

Question 113

What type of extinguisher is used on the Flight Deck for NG and MAX?

Answer 113

NG: Halon/Halotron, MAX: Halotron ## Footnote Halon is more effective but Halotron is less expensive.

Question 114

In cruise, what does PAA stand for?

Answer 114

Problem, Action, Additional Information

Question 115

What should you do if you over fuel?

Answer 115

* Request a holding and burn some fuel * Use F5 + Speed brake

Question 116

What are the definitions of BCMG, TEMPO, and PROB considerations?

Answer 116

* BCMG: Permanent change over 1 to 2 hours * TEMPO: Transitory change lasting less than an hour * PROB: Probability of occurrence

Question 117

What are the priorities when encountering volcanic ash and engine overheat light simultaneously?

Answer 117

* Turn the a/c around 180º * Descend * Execute memory items for engine overheat * Then address volcanic ash

Question 118

How do you calculate how much fuel to burn off to achieve MLW?

Answer 118

Landing Weight (PROG4) minus maximum landing weight (OPT)

Question 119

Why does the white box flash during engine start?

Answer 119

Flashing white box indicates an impending hot start - fuel is ignited before enough air is flowing - slow engine acceleration - incorrect fuel scheduling - compressor stall Box and dial become Red indicates EGT limit exceeded. EEC automatically shuts the ignition and fuel valve. Wet start - engine start fails within 15s start lever moved to IDLE - wet means fuel was delivered but not combusted

Question 120

What is the role of Refuel Supervision A?

Answer 120

A qualified person designated by the captain who maintains visual contact with the fueling environment

Question 121

What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?

Answer 121

Supplies additional hydraulic fluid to raise the landing gear when system A engine driven pump volume is lost

Question 122

What is the difference between caution and hard warning?

Answer 122

* Caution: Awareness calls in amber * Warning: Serious announcements in red requiring action

Question 123

What is the latest FCI regarding duty-free boxes in the aft galley?

Answer 123

Duty-free boxes will be located in the AFT galley as standard; extra boxes must be included in the OPT

Question 124

Assumed Temperature Reduced Thrust (ATRT) is prohibited in which conditions?

Answer 124

* Anti-shid inop * Electronic Engine Control in Alternate Mode * Snow, slush, ice or standing water in the runway * When operating a landing gear extended flight * If the aircraft has been de-iced * Potential windshear * Engine bleeds OFF * if prohibited by Airfield Brief * Crosswind in excess of 10kts * Actual T/O Weight is within 500kgs of the RTOW

Question 125

Action with Moderate to Heavy Rain, Hail or Sleet

Answer 125

* Always try to avoid * Engine Start Switches: CONT * A/T _ Disengage * Thrust Levers _ Adjust Slowly * IAS/Mach _ use slower speed * Consider starting the APU