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General Topic Flashcards

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1
Q

When data is highly skewed, what measure of central tendency is used?

A

Median

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2
Q

What is standard error?

A

Refers to the likelihood that the mean and standard deviation of a specific sample of participants reflect the mean and standard deviation of the full population of potential participants
Computed by dividing the standard deviation by the square root of the sample size

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3
Q

What is interquartile range?

A

Distance between the 25th and 75th% tiles

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4
Q

What is a categorical variable and how should you analyze it?

A

Variable made of categories that cannot be quantified like blood type
Should be analyzed with non-parametrics statistics

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5
Q

What is a continuous variable and how should it be analyzed?

A

A variable that gives a score for each subject in a sample and can take on any value on a measurement scale like blood pressure
Should be analyzed with parametric statistics

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6
Q

What is an ordinal variable?

A

A variable that is recorded on an interval scale from highest to lowest, but does not involve the use of the numerical relationship between the numbers like when a patient rates their pain on a scale of one to 10

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7
Q

What is a parametric test?

A

Assumes that the data is normally distributed

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8
Q

What is a non-parametric test

A

Assumes that #DATA is not normal distribution and is typically more stringent

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9
Q

What is the P value?

A

The probability of the observed result or something more extreme under the no hypothesis, also known as the probability that any particular outcome would have occurred by chance

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10
Q

What is a confidence interval?

A

Range of values around the sample mean within which a researcher can be certain usually about 95% and it contains the true meaning of the population

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11
Q

What types of analysis to use when both variables are continuous meaning something like blood pressure?

A

Regression and correlation

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12
Q

What is the regression analysis?

A

Whether you can predict the value of one variable, which is the dependent variable from the value of another variable, the independent variable
Like a patient’s cholesterol level from the number of years here she has been smoking

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13
Q

What does beta mean when it is reported with regression results?

A

That is the value by which the independent variable must be multiplied to determine the value of the dependent variable

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14
Q

What type of test can you run when one variable is categorical and one is continuous?

A

T test and a nova

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15
Q

What is a t test?

A

Examining whether two groups of participants differ on a variable so comparing findings between a control group and an experimental group

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16
Q

What does a nova involve?

A

Examining whether two or more groups differ significantly on a variable and it is used when you have more than one experimental group

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17
Q

What is an omnibus F test?

A

Tells you, whether there is an overall difference between your groups

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18
Q

Wilcoxon signed ranks test

A

This test functions as a tea test for ordinal variables, examining whether the control group and the experimental group would differ in Payne rat

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19
Q

What is a Pearson chi Square test

A

Hypothesis test, which may be performed on contingency tables and is used to discover if there is a relationship between two categorical variables

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20
Q

Type one error

A

Probability of falsely rejecting the null hypothesis

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21
Q

Type two error

A

Probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis when they’re really is a difference

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22
Q

Power of the study

A

The statistical likelihood that our researcher will find a significant effect that exists based on the sample size and number of variables

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23
Q

Level one evidence

A

Randomized control trials or systematic reviews

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24
Q

Level two evidence

A

Lesser quality, randomized, clinical trials or a cohort study or systematic review of such studies

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25
Level three evidence
Evidence gathered from a well designed quasi experimental study, like a case-control study or systematic review of such studies
26
Level four evidence
Evidence gathered from well-designed non-experimental study like descriptive studies or case series
27
Level five evidence
Evidence gathered from expert opinion case reports and clinical examples
28
What is sensitivity?
Probability that a patient with disease will have a positive result
29
What is specificity?
Probability that a patient without the disease will have a negative result
30
What is positive predictive value?
The probability that a patient with a positive test has the disease the more specific test the higher PPV
31
What is negative predictive value
The probability that a patient with a negative test does not have the disease, the more sensitive attest the higher, the NPV
32
What supplements should be discontinued to avoid bleeding risk before surgery?
Garlic ginkgo, Balboa ginseng vitamin E saw Palmetto chondroiton omega-3
33
What is warfarin induced skin necrosis?
It can occur if you start warfarin before heparin because protein C and Shave a shorter half-life than the other vitamin K dependent factors, and this can result to a hypercoagulable state and skin necrosis
34
What is the most common location of a DVT?
The calf, but the iliofemoral DVTs are the most likely to cause a pulmonary embolus. The left leg is twice as likely as the right because the left iliac vein is compressed by the right iliac artery.
35
A patient that had a thyroid ectomy three months ago presents for surgery. What should you be cognizant of?
Hypocalcemia you need to check for signs like per oral tingling numbness, prolonged QT on EKG You might need to do magnesium before before calcium will
36
What is the difference between corn needle, biopsy and fine needle aspiration
Corn needle gives architecture and fine needle gives cytology
37
Is higher energy radiation, worse or better for the skin
Better because the higher ionizing potential doesn’t reach until deeper structures
38
What is a pan coast tumor?
Superior pulmonary sulcus tumor, which can invade the sympathetic chain and cause Horner 🔥🔥🔥 syndrome and it can cause ulnar nerve symptoms
39
What are the key features of Kylo thorax in its treatment?
Thoracic duct runs along the right side of the chest and crosses over to the left at T4 and T5 to drain into the left. Subclavian vein management includes low-fat diet octreotide, and chest tube. Surgical ligation can be done if conservative treatment fails
40
What is the best way to measure alveolar ventilation
PaCO2 gives you the relationship of alveolar ventilation to CO2 production
41
How to treat elevated intracranial pressure in a trauma patient
Head of bed, elevation Hypertonic saline Mannitol Ventriculostomy Hyper ventilation Sedation and paralysis
42
What is Cushing’s triad?
Hypertension, bradycardia and slow, respiratory rate are suggested of pending herniation in a brain injury patient
43
What is the most important prognostic indicator of the glass cow coma scale?
Motor
44
What should you be concerned with in a patient with a posterior knee dislocation?
Popliteal artery injury
45
Venus air embolus treatment
Turn, patient left lateral decubitus position and supportive care with mechanical ventilation pressures and volume If a patient with arterial embolism presents, they should be placed flat
46
What happens if you ligate the carotid artery?
20% of patients will stroke
47
48
How does protein binding affect the action of local anesthetic
Local with higher protein binding will have higher contact with the nerve membrane and thus a longer duration of action
49
How does the Pka affect the action of local anesthetics?
The PKA determines the speed of onset of the nerve block 50% of the local will exist in its basic and cat ionic form
50
Name three factors that decrease seizure threshold and increase the risk of CNS toxicity
Hypercarbia Hypoxia Acidosis
51
Name two agents that can be used to treat seizures following CNS toxicity with local
Benzo Sodium thiopental
52
What is the maximum adult dose of lidocaine without epinephrine?
Five MG per KG Maximal single dose is 300 mg
53
What is the maximum adult dose for lidocaine with epinephrine?
Seven MG per KG 500 mg for a single dose
54
What is the maximum total dose of epinephrine in a healthy adult?
.25 mg
55
What causes methemoglobinemia?
Oxidation of hemoglobin from its ferric to Ferris form by prilocaine and benzocaine
56
What are the disadvantages of doing an interscalene brachial plexus block?
Misses, the medial cutaneous nerve, the intercostal break your nerve and ulnar nerve Not suitable for hand Complications include a 100% if ipsi phrenic nerve block, Horner 🔥🔥🔥 syndrome, hoarseness, dysphasia, blurred vision and involvement of recurrent laryngeal and cervical sympathetic nerves
57
What are the disadvantages of a supraclavicular brachial plexus block?
Pneumothorax .4 to 6% Ipsi phrenic nerve paralysis, 60% Occasional Horner 🔥🔥🔥 syndrome Well, suited for long surgery and prolonged postop pain relief Complete prompt long acting block
58
What are the disadvantages of the infra clavicular brachial plexus block?
Increase risk of intravascular puncture as the plexus surrounds the subclavian artery at this level It is a reliable block of muscular cutaneous and axillary nerves Lower risk of pneumothorax compared to supraclavicular block More obvious landmarks
59
What are the disadvantages of the axillary brachial plexus block?
Can miss the muscular cutaneous nerve and the lateral anti brachial cutaneous nerve Most widely used block and hand surgery
60
Describe the relationship of the radial ulnar and median nerves to the axillary artery
Radial is posterior Median is superior Ulnar is inferior
61
What are contraindications to using a bier block?
Sickle cell anemia Severe peripheral vascular disease Established soft tissue infection Tumors
62
63
What is the best way to measure alveola ventilation?
PACO2
64
What is Pancoast tumor?
Superior pulmonary sulcus tumor, which can invade the sympathetic chain and lead to Horner 🔥🔥🔥 syndrome or ulnar nerve symptoms
65
What anatomy is relevant to thoracic outlet syndrome?
Subclavian vein is anterior to the anterior scalene Subclavian artery and brachial plexus are between the middle and anterior scalene
66
Most common location of a DVT
Calf but the iliofemoral DVT is more likely to cause a PE Left leg is twice as likely as right because of compression by the right iliac artery
67
Cushing’s triad
Hypertension, Brady cardio and slow respiratory rate Suggest impending herniation in a patient with a head injury
68
Mechanism of action of steroids in transplants
Inhibit macrophages and genes for cytokines synthesis like IL one and IL6
69
What is the most important prognostic indicator of GCS?
Motor score
70
Imiquimod
Toll like 7 receptor for bcc
71
Most common site for tumor to met s to mandible in female
Breast
72
Facial plane
nasion to pognion Concave point @frontonasal suture to the most anterior point on the chin
73
Cranial base
. Line from midpoint of sella to nasion
74
Pap
Perforators through adductor Magnus Found 2 cm posterior gracilis and 8 cm inferior to groin crease
75
Reverse sural artery flap
Peroneal perforators Includes rural nerve and saphenous lesser vein Most common complication is venous insufficiency Harvested over post. calf @the raphae of gastrocnemius
76
Granular cell tumor
Thought to originate from Schwann Invade posterior middle true vocal folds Can give false + TX = excision
77

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