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Isaac’s Oral Codes > GENERALS CODES > Flashcards

GENERALS CODES Flashcards

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1
Q

What is meant by the capacity rating of a lead-acid battery?

A

The number of hours a battery can supply a given current flow.

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2
Q

What electrolyte is used in a lead-acid battery?

A

A mixture of sulfuric acid and water.

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3
Q

Does the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery increase or decrease as the battery becomes discharged?

A

It decreases.

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4
Q

What is the specific gravity of a fully charged lead-acid battery?

A

Between 1.275 and 1.300.

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5
Q

How many cells are there in a 24-volt lead-acid battery?

A

12.

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6
Q

What is the range of temperatures of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery that does not require a correction when measuring its specific gravity?

A

Between 70°F and 90°F.

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7
Q

How do you treat a lead-acid battery compartment to protect it from corrosion?

A

Paint it with an asphaltic (tar-base) paint or with a polyurethane enamel.

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8
Q

What is used to neutralize spilled electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?

A

A solution of bicarbonate of soda and water.

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9
Q

How high should the electrolyte level be in a properly serviced lead-acid battery?

A

Only up to the level of the indicator in the cell.

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10
Q

Why is the closed circuit voltage of a lead acid battery lower than its open-circuit voltage?

A

Voltage is dropped across the internal resistance of the battery.

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11
Q

What gases are released when a lead acid battery is being charged?

A

Hydrogen and oxygen.

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12
Q

What is the electrolyte used in a nickel cadmium battery?

A

Potassium hydroxide and water.

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13
Q

Why is a hydrometer not used to measure the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery?

A

The electrolyte of a ni-cad battery does not enter the chemical changes that occur when the battery is charged or discharged. It’s specific gravity does not change appreciably

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14
Q

Is the electrolyte level of a nickel cadmium battery lowest when the battery is fully charged or fully discharged?

A

Fully discharged.

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15
Q

What is a result of cell imbalance in a nickel-cadmium battery?

A

The low internal resistance allows current to flow between the unbalanced cells and generate heat.

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16
Q

What is a thermal runaway?

A

The large current flow allowed by the low internal resistance causes the cells to produce more heat than they can dissipate. The heat further lowers the internal resistance so more current can flow; this continues until the battery destroys itself.

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17
Q

How may thermal runaway be prevented?

A

By carefully monitoring the temperature of the cells and controlling the charging current to prevent an excess of current flowing into the battery.

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18
Q

How is it possible to know when a nickel-cadmium battery is fully charged?

A

Completely discharge the battery and give it a constant-current charge to 140% of its ampere-hour capacity.

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19
Q

What is used to neutralize spilled electrolyte from a nickel cadmium battery?

A

A solution of boric acid and water.

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20
Q

What is the function of a current limiter?

A

A current limiter is a type of heavy-duty fuse, commonly with ratings of 30 amps or greater. They are often used to protect a section of an electrical system, such as a single electrical bus.

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21
Q

How many views can there be on an orthographic projection?

A

Six.

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22
Q

How many views are used to show most objects in an aircraft drawing?

A

Three.

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23
Q

What information is given in the title block of an aircraft drawing?

A

Name & address of the company who made the part, name of the part, scale of the drawing, name of the draftsman, name of the engineer approving the part and the number of the part (that drawing numbers)

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24
Q

Where is the title block normally located on an aircraft drawing?

A

In the lower right-hand corner of the drawing.

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25
How can you know that the aircraft drawing you are using is the most current version of the drawing?
By the number in the revision block, and by the log of the most recent drawings.
26
What is a detail drawing?
A drawing that includes all the information needed to fabricate the part.
27
What is an assembly drawing?
A drawing that shows all the components of a part in an exploded form. A parts list is included with an assembly drawing.
28
What is an installation drawing?
A drawing that shows the location of the parts and assemblies on the complete aircraft.
29
What type of drawing is most helpful in troubleshooting a system?
A schematic diagram.
30
What is a block diagram?
A drawing that shows the various functions of a system by a series of blocks. These blocks do not include any detail, but instead indicate what happens in each block.
31
How are dimensions shown on an aircraft drawing?
By numbers shown in the break of a dimension line.
32
What is the purpose of a center line on an aircraft drawing?
It divides a part into symmetrical halves.
33
Of what material are most low-pressure rigid fluid lines made?
1100-1/2 hard or 3003-1/2 hard aluminum alloy tubing.
34
Is the size of a rigid fluid line determined by its inside or its outside diameter?
By its outside diameter.
35
What is the difference between the flare angle for aircraft and automotive fittings?
37” & 45”
36
Where are quick-disconnect fluid line couplings normally used in an aircraft hydraulic system?
In the lines that connect the engine-driven pump into the hydraulic system.
37
Is the size of a flexible hose determined by its inside or its outside diameter?
By its inside diameter.
38
What are the three most common types of torque wrenches?
Deflecting beam, dial indicating, and micrometer setting types.
39
What is meant by the root of a number?
The root of a number is one of two or more equal numbers that, when multiplied together, will produce the number.
40
What is an angle?
A figure formed by two lines radiating from a common point.
41
What is meant by a right angle?
An angle of 90 degrees.
42
What is an obtuse angle?
An angle greater than 90 degrees but less than a straight line.
43
What is an acute angle?
An angle between 0° and 90°.
44
What is a quadrant?
One fourth of a circle.
45
What is a sector?
The portion of a circle bounded by two radii and one of the intercepted arcs.
46
What is a polygon?
A closed figure having three or more sides.
47
What is an acute triangle?
A triangle with three acute angles.
48
What is an obtuse triangle?
An obtuse triangle is a triangle with one obtuse angle.
49
What is a right triangle?
A triangle containing a 90° angle.
50
What is an equilateral triangle?
A triangle with three equal sides.
51
What is an Isosceles triangle?
A triangle with two equal sides.
52
What is a scalene triangle?
A triangle in which no two sides are equal.
53
What is the hypotenuse of a right triangle?
The side opposite the right angle.
54
What is a quadrilateral?
A polygon having four sides.
55
What is a parallelogram?
A closed four-sided figure in which the opposite sides are parallel.
56
What is a trapezoid?
A closed four-sided figure in which only one pair of opposite sides are parallel.
57
What is a hexagon?
A closed figure with six equal sides.
58
What is the significance of the constant n?
(n) is the constant amount the circumference of a circle is greater than its diameter.
59
What is the value of the constant n?
Tr= rt= 3.1416
60
What is the square root of 4,096?
64
61
What is the square of 99?
9,801
62
What is the cube of 5?
125
63
What is the cube root of 1,000?
10
64
What is done with the aircraft maintenance records that include the current status of the applicable Airworthiness Directives when the aircraft is sold?
These maintenance records must be transferred with the aircraft when it is sold.
65
What is a Type Certificate Data Sheet?
The TCDS is a formal description of the aircraft, engine, or propeller. It lists limitations and information required for type certification including airspeed limits, weight limits, thrust limitations, and so forth.
66
What are Aircraft Specifications?
Documents that include basically the same information as the TCDS but are issued for aircraft, engines, and propellers certificated under the Air Commerce Regulations.
67
What document specifies the type of fuel that should be used in an airplane?
The TCDS for that airplane.
68
What document would you use to find the control surface movement for a specified airplane?
The TCDS for that airplane.
69
Why is it necessary to refer to the TCDS for an airplane when conducting a 100-hour Inspection?
The TCDS includes the specifications required for the aircraft to maintain its airworthy status.
70
What FAA publication describes methods of nondestructive testing?
AC 43-3, Nondestructive Testing in Aircraft.
71
What is the purpose of an AD?
It provides guidance and information to owners and operators of aircraft informing them of the discovery of a condition that prevents the aircraft from continuing to meet its conditions for airworthiness.
72
What is the first step in the issuance of an AD?
A notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) is published in the Federal Register.
73
How is information on an AD disseminated?
It is printed and distributed by first class mail to the registered owners and certain known operators of the products affected.
74
What type of AD may be adopted without an NPRM?
ADs of an urgent nature are issued as immediately adopted rules without prior notice.
75
How is Information on an emergency AD sent to the owner or operator of an affected aircraft or other product?
By first-class mail, telegram, or other electronic method.
76
Where can you find a list of all of the ADs that apply to aircraft, engines, propellers, or appliances?
On the FAA's website under the Dynamic Regulatory System (DRS).
77
How can you get information on subscribing to the Airworthiness Directives?
Contact FAA, Manufacturing Standards Section (AFS-613), PO Box 26460, Oklahoma City, OK 73125-0460.
78
What is the significance of the identification number 91-08-07 R1?
91-This AD was issued in 1991. 08-This AD was issued in the eighth biweekly period (15th or 16th week) of 1991. 07-This is the seventh AD issued during this period. A1- This is the first revision of this AD.
79
Is it mandatory that the information in an AC be complied with?
No, this information is advisory in nature.
80
With which part of 14 CFR is AC 43.13-18 associated?
14 CFR Part 43.
81
May all of the information in AC 43.13-18 be used as approved data?
No, it is acceptable, but not necessarily approved data.
82
What is the purpose of General Aviation Airworthiness Alerts?
They contain information gleaned from Malfunction and Defect Reports to warn maintenance personnel of problems that have been reported.
83
What formula is used to find the amount of work done when an object is moved across a floor?
Work = Force x Distance
84
What determines the mechanical advantage of an arrangement of ropes and pulleys?
The number of robes that support the weight
85
What determines the mechanical advantage of a gear train?
The ratio between the number of teeth on the drive gear and the number of teeth on the driven gear.
86
What is meant by the density of air?
The weight of a given volume of air.
87
What is meant by relative wind with regard to an airfoil?
The direction the wind strikes an airfoil.
88
What is meant by the mean aerodynamic chord (MAC)?
MAC is the average distance from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the wing.
89
What is meant by the angle of attack?
The acute angle formed between the chord line of an airfoil and the direction the air strikes the airfoil.
90
What is meant by the critical angle of attack?
The highest angle of attack at which the air passes over the airfoil in a smooth flow. Above the critical angle of attack the airflow breaks away and becomes turbulent.
91
What is meant by the stagnation point of an airfoil?
The point on the leading edge of an airfoil at which the airflow separates, some flowing over the top and some over the bottom.
92
What is the difference between speed and velocity?
Speed is the rate at which an object is moving. Velocity is the vector quantity that expresses both the rate and direction an object is moving.
93
What is meant by air density?
The mass of air in a given volume.
94
What is meant by weight?
The measure of the force of gravity acting on a body.
95
What is meant by thrust?
The forward aerodynamic force produced by a propeller, fan, or turbojet engine as it forces a mass of air to the rear, behind the airplane.
96
What is meant by drag?
The aerodynamic force acting in the same plane as the relative wind striking an airfoil. Drag acts in the direction opposite to that of thrust.
97
What is meant by autorotation in a helicopter?
The aerodynamic force that causes a helicopter rotor to spin with no engine power applied to the rotor system.
98
What is meant by dissymmetry of lift produced by a helicopter rotor?
The difference in lift between the two sides of the rotor disc when the helicopter is in forward flight. The side with the advancing blade produces the greater lift because the forward speed adds to the rotor speed. The side with the retreating blade produces less lift because the forward speed subtracts from the rotor speed.
99
What is meant by a blade stall of a helicopter rotor?
A condition of flight in which the retreating blade is operating at an angle of attack higher than will allow for the air to flow over its upper surface without turbulence.
100
What is meant by translational lift in a helicopter?
The additional lift produced by a helicopter rotor as the helicopter changes from hovering to forward flight.
101
What is meant by ground effect in helicopter flight?
An increase in lift when a helicopter is flying at an altitude of less than half the rotor span. This increase is produced by the effective increase in the angle of attack caused by the deflection of the downwashed air.
102
What is meant by ground resonance in a helicopter?
The destructive vibration that occurs when the helicopter touches down roughly and unevenly. The shock throws a load into the lead-lag hinges of the rotor blades and causes them to oscillate about this hinge. If the frequency of this oscillation is the same as the resonant frequency of the fuselage, the energy will cause the helicopter to strike the ground hard with the opposite skid or wheel. If corrective action is not taken immediately, ground resonance can destroy the helicopter.
103
What are the different types of human error?
Human errors can be grouped into omission, commission, and extraneous errors. Omission errors are tasks which should have been performed but were not. Commission errors are tasks which were done incorrectly. Extraneous errors occur when an individual performs a task that was not authorized.
104
What is the difference between an active error and a latent error?
An active error is an error that is committed by the person doing the work. A latent error is one that comes from an administrative decision, a flaw in the system, or a culture that exists in a workplace. Latent errors may take a long time to be seen and usually show up as an active error that has its roots in the latent error.
105
What is the first level of consequence of human error?
Little or no effect.
106
What is the second level of consequence of human error?
Damage to equipment or hardware. The equipment or hardware can be replaced, but at a loss of time and financial setback.
107
What is the third level of consequence of human error?
Personal injury. Injury to an aviation mechanic, aircraft operator, or passenger.
108
What is the fourth level of consequence of human error?
Catastrophic damage (loss of life or loss of an aircraft).

Isaac’s Oral Codes (2 decks)

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