Generic Flashcards
(304 cards)
1
Q
What is a normal PT time for an adult?
A
9.5-12 seconds
2
Q
What is a normal digoxin level during digoxin therapy?
A
0.5-2 nanograms/mL
3
Q
What is a normal BUN level?
A
10-20 mg/dL (below 60 years of age)
4
Q
What does a high BUN (over 25 mg/dL) indicate?
A
Dehydration
5
Q
What does a low BUN (less than 8 mg/dL) indicate?
A
Fluid volume overload
6
Q
What is a normal aPTT time?
A
20-39 seconds
7
Q
aPTT time is measured during what type of drug therapy?
A
Heparin
8
Q
What is a normal potassium level?
A
3.5-5.0 meq/L
9
Q
What are the normal values for calcium?
A
8.5-10.2 mg/dL
10
Q
What are normal values for magnesium?
A
1.5-2.5 mg/dL
11
Q
What are normal values for phosphorus?
A
2.7-4.5 mg/dL
12
Q
What are normal values for serum creatinine?
A
0.7-1.4 mg/dL
13
Q
What are normal values for WBCs?
A
5,000 - 10,000 cells/mm3
14
Q
What are normal values for total serum protein?
A
6-8 grams/dL
15
Q
What does an A1c level of 7% or less indicate in a diabetic?
A
Good control of serum glucose levels
16
Q
What does an A1c level of 7-8% indicate in diabetics?
A
Fair control of serum glucose
17
Q
What does an A1c level of 8% or higher indicate diabetics?
A
Poor control of serum glucose
18
Q
What test is used to monitor warfarin effectiveness?
A
PT time/INR
19
Q
What is a normal serum amylase level?
A
25-151 units/liter
20
Q
What happens to serum amylase levels in pancreatitis?
A
They rise
21
Q
What is a normal HgB level for an adult female?
A
12-16 g/dL
22
Q
What is a normal platelet count?
A
150,000-400,000 cells/mm3
23
Q
What vitamin may be lacking in a vegan diet?
A
B12
24
Q
Why should a pt bear down during parenteral nutrition tubing changes?
A
To prevent air embolism
25
What position should a pt be in if the nurse suspects an air embolism and why?
In left-side laying position with the feet above the head, because the embolism should be trapped in the right side of the heart
26
What must a patient be assessed for before beginning infusions of fat emulsions?
Allergy to eggs
27
Should the nurse increase the rate of a fat (lipid) emulsion infusion if the infusion falls behind? Why?
No because of risk of fat overload or fluid overload
28
What is a bolus?
A single dose given all at once
29
A nurse comes across a patient with these symptoms: headache, dyspnea, chills, increased pulse rate. He is apprehensive. He has received 600 mL of fluid in 45 minutes. What are these symptoms of? What should the nurse do FIRST?
Circulatory overload
| Slow the IV infusion
30
What is the first thing a nurse should do after injecting a medication into the port of an IV bag?
Agitate the bag to mix the meds
31
What does an infiltrated IV site look/feel like?
Cool to the touch, swollen, pale
32
How does the nurse know that an IV needle has successfully entered the vein and it is safe to advance the catheter?
Backflash of blood into the chamber of the IV catheter
33
If the nurse knows that the IV spike end of IV tubing has been contaminated, should she clean the end of the spike or get new tubing?
Get new tubing
34
What should the nurse do in the case of a IV site that has developed phlebitis...should she tell the HCP?
Where should the new IV be restarted?
Should she remove the catheter at the old infected site?
What should be applied to the infected site?
Restart the IV in a different vein
Notify the HCP
Remove the catheter
Apply warm compress to speed resolution of the inflammation
35
A client who is experiencing severe hypotension would require what type of IV fluid solution to quickly increase intravascular volume and increase BP?
5% dextrose in lactated ringers (Hypertonic)
36
A client with a PICC line at home should restrict their activity T or F?
T but only minimally
37
A client discharged to home with a PICC line should wear this type of identifying item.
Medic-alert bracelet or tag
38
How is PICC line placement confirmed?
With chest X-ray
39
What kind of diet do patients with Meniere's disease require and why?
Low-sodium to reduce fluid retention
40
What is a normal ESR range?
0-20 mm/h
41
High BUN can lead to what symptoms?
Confusion and disorientation
42
What should be done with bullets from forensic cases?
They should be wrapped in gauze and put in a cup
43
What should be done with clothing from a forensic victim?
Should be placed in paper bag
44
What should be done with a patient who is experiencing alchohol withdrawal delirium?
Turn on the lights and stay with the patient
45
Can a nursing assistant remove dead leaves from a plant in a patient's room?
No
46
Carbamazepine interferes with what type of drug?
Oral contraceptives
47
A patient on furosemide should select which drink and why?
Orange juice, because it replaces lost potassium
48
How is acute glomerulonephritis treated?
Antibiotics, diuretics and antihypertensives
49
A patient with renal failure should be on what type of diet?
High protein
50
Why should procedures be spaced out in a patient with increased ICP?
Because excessive stimulation can further increase ICP
51
What is the average head circumference of a neonate? What might increased circumference indicate?
32-36cm; increased circumference may indicate hydrocephaly or increased ICP
52
The provider should be notified before transfusing PRBC's if the pt's temperature is above what?
Above 100F
53
How long must the nurse remain with a client who has just begun a blood transfusion to ensure that a transfusion reaction is not occurring?
15 minutes
54
What class of drug is typically used in alcohol withdrawal?
Benzodiazepines
55
Inhaled corticosteroids can predispose a pt to what condition, and what should be done to prevent this?
May increase risk of oral yeast infection; should rinse mouth out with water afterward to prevent
56
What is a clonidine patch used for and how often should it be changed?
It is an anti-hypertensive and should be changed every 7 days
57
What drug is normally given before cardioversion?
Midazolam IV
58
What do granular casts in a urinalysis indicate?
Renal disease
59
What is the major sign of phlebitis?
Area around the IV site will be reddened
60
What is the most common cause of SIADH?
Cancer (esp. lung cancer)
61
What position should a pt be put into for shock?
Should have extremities elevated
62
Intraocular pressure in glaucoma is higher at what time of day?
In the morning
63
What is a normal PaO2 level?
80-100
64
What should a mother do to prevent spread of the flu when breastfeeding her child?
Wear a surgical mask
65
During which of Erikson's stages does a child learn to play with others?
Industry v. inferiority
66
Clozapine may have what effect on WBC counts?
Decrease them
67
Fosomax (alendronate) is used to treat what condition?
osteoporosis
68
Clients with this bone disorder are not a good candidate for ECT.
Osteoporosis
69
perseveration
repetitive behaviors
70
What is the use of the drug Methylergonovine?
Prevents bleeding after childbirth (postpartum bleeding)
71
What is the use of the drug Zolpidem?
Sedative (for insomnia) brand name Ambien
72
What is the use of the drug Citalopram?
It is an SSRI for depression
73
What type of drug is Gabapentin? What is its trade name?
Gabapentin (Neurontin) is an anti-epileptic.
74
What is the drug Chlordiazepoxide used for? What is notable about it? What is its drug class? Major side effect?
Benzodiazepine (first benzo to be synthesized) -- for anxiety and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Major S/E = drowsiness/blurred vision.
75
What type of drug is Naproxen? What is its use?
NSAID for inflammation
76
What type of drug is disulfram? What is it's trade name?
Antabuse -- creates an unpleasant reaction to alcohol.
77
A burn victim needs a diet that is high in what type of food?
Burn victims need high protein diet.
78
T/F Lupus is an autoimmune disease.
True Lupus is an autoimmune disease. (Chronic, systemic).
79
What type of tissue is affected by the inflammatory disease LuPus
Connective Tissue (Skin, joints, membranes, kidneys, CNS)
80
What are some medications that may be used with Lupus, and why?
(3)
Corticosteroids - reduce inflammation
Immunosuppressive (Cyclophosphamide, azathioprine)
Acetominophen - discomfort
81
At what level of digoxin in the blood is considered digoxin poisoning/dig tox?
>2 ng/mL
82
What is the distinguishing symptom of Raynaud's phenomenon?
The body shows pain and color changes of the extremities when exposed to cold
83
Raynaud's phenomenon is a symptom of what chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease?
Lupus erythematosus
84
What type of animal carries the hantavirus?
Rodents (rats)
85
What type of symptoms does hantavirus cause?
Fatigue, fever and muscle aches
86
A person who takes ginkgo balboa extract and coumadin is at risk for what problem? Why?
Hemmorhage - ginkgo is used to increase circulation, and it may act as an anticoagulant.
87
How is Hepatitis A Virus transmitted?
fecal-oral.
88
What two types of Hepatitus are transmitted via the fecal-oral route?
HepA, HepE are both transmitted by oral-fecal contact.
89
What types of hepatitis are transmitted via blood/body fluids?
HepB, HepC, HepD are transmitted via body fluids.
90
What two types of hepatitis co-infect?
B and D are transmitted together.
91
What type of hepatitis is non-infectious?
Toxic hepatitis
92
What is the most prominent symptom of myesthenia gravis?
muscle weakeness
93
At what point should the nurse handle/touch a client's radium implant?
Never
94
What warrants the use of contact precautions?
Stool incontinence, draining wounds, uncontrolled secretions, pressure ulcers, ostomy bags, presence of rash
95
dyscrasia meaning
disorder
96
Haloperidol (Haldol) is a typical or atypical antipsychotic?
Typical
97
Dexamethasone falls into what drug class?
corticosteroid
98
Normal hemoglobin level for adult male?
13-18
99
Normal values AST/ALT?
8-40 units
100
T/F Pulse pressure is affected by morphine sulfate.
FALSE
101
When should a PKU test be performed on an infant?
Ideally 2 days after birth; as close to discharge as possible.
102
Urinary frequency [INCREASES/DECREASES] with age.
increases d/t reduced bladder capacity.
103
Nocturia occurs as one ages because of what reason?
Decreased ability to concentrate urine increases urine formation.
104
Chlorpromazine is an antiemetic/antipsychotic that is contraindicated when treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms; why?
May decrease blood pressure, lower seizure threshold.
105
Promethazine (antipsychotic) extravasion will have what serious effect on tissue?
Necrosis
106
What is the test for Trousseau's sign? What does this test for?
Apply BP cuff, inflate it; lack of blood supply will cause muscles of hand and forearm to contract because of the patient's hypocalcemia.
107
Hyperthyroidism can be caused by what immune disorder?
Graves' disease
108
Diabetes insipidus is characterized by what circulatory issue?
Excessive fluid loss
109
The "eternal tan" hyperpigmentation is a symptom of what hormonal insufficiency?
Addison's (adrenal insufficiency)
110
At what age range does a child begin to gain control of sphincter muscles? Cu
18-24 months
111
19-35 year olds are considered to be in what psychosocial stage?
Intimacy versus isolation
112
Adolescents are considered to be in what psychosocial stage?
Identity versus identity diffusion
113
Cushing's syndrome is also known as...?
Hypercortisolism
114
Cortisol is naturally released from the adrenal gland in response to what two factors?
Stress, low blood glucose.
115
What is the primary purpose of CBI?
Prevent clots from forming.
116
Regular insulin is also known as ___1_____-acting, and it's onset is at _2__ - __3__ minutes. It's peak is at __4__ - __5__ hours.
1) Short- acting
2) 30 minutes
3) 60 minutes
4) 2 hours
5) 4 hours.
117
Meniere's disease is a disorder of the __________ ____. It's primary symptom is ______.
Inner ear, vertigo
118
Why are restraints ordered after a child undergoes cleft lip/cleft palate repair?
To prevent child from rubbing/disturbing the suture line.
119
Normally, cerebrospinal fluid should appear what color?
Clear, colorless (NOT cloudy)
120
Normal hematocrit level?
35-52%
121
What is the purpose of a Miller-Abbot tube?
Intestinal decompression; allows fluid and air to escape
122
Patients taking lithium must be careful to monitor their intake of what electrolyte? Why?
Sodium. Sodium depletion will cause lithium retention, leading to toxicity.
123
[HYPERTENSION/HYPOTENSION] is characteristic of autonomic dysreflexia? What are other symptoms seen with autonomic dysreflexia?
Hypertension (pulse slows, bp increases, severe headache, diaphoresis, nasal congestion and gooseflesh)
124
What can be a cause of autonomic dysreflexia?
Bladder spasm due to overfilling of the bladder
125
What should be done for a vein with phlebitis?
Remove IV catheter and apply warm soak.
126
When are antacids most effective?
Taken after a meal
127
What type of drug is ethnacryic acid?
A loop diuretic
128
Loop diuretics are potassium wasting or potassium sparing?
Potassium wasting (client should eat potassium rich food)
129
How soon after poisoning should charcoal be ingested?
1 hour or less. (NOT after more than an hour)
130
Cool, clammy skin and tachypnea may be signs of _______?
shock
131
A client being treated for VTE should ambulate 1 x per shift. T / F?
False - should be on bedrest
132
What is the purpose of the drug pentamidine iesthionate?
treat pneumonia (often in AIDS clients)
133
Clients taking MAOIs should not eat what type of delicious tasty food?
Cheese - may cause hypertensive crisis
134
What is normal serum lithium level?
1.0 - 1.5
135
Nystatin (antifungal) should be swished in the mouth and then spit out, or swallowed?
swallowed
136
Side effects of prednisone?
Hyperglycemia
| Fluid retention
137
Jews don't mix what two foods?
meat and milk (dairy)
138
Salt substitutes contain what element?
Potassium
139
People taking ACE inhibitors should avoid what element?
potassium
140
```
Streptococcal pharyngitis
Mumps
Pneumonia
meningitis caused by influence type B
Respiratory viruses
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Influenza & Parainfluenza
Bordatella/Pertussis 1st 24 hours
```
All require what type of precautions?
DROPLET
141
Measles
TB
Chicken pox (until lesions are crusted over)
Herpes zoster (in AIDS pt)
All require what type of precautions?
AIRBORNE
142
How often trach care?
q8 or as needed
143
Indicators for need for trach care? (3)
Secretions on the dressing
Loose/soiled ties that secure the dressing
Dry/Excessive secretions at the site
144
Deflate or Inflate a tracheostomy cuff before eating? Why?
Deflate the cuff before eating - make it easier to swallow
145
What is an important point to consider when eating with a tracheostomy tube?
Deflate the cuff to facilitate swallowing - but also might cause aspiration.
146
What is the use of dopamine for blood pressure?
Increases Cardiac output by causing more intense contractions. Indirectly increases BP
147
```
Legumes
Whole grains
Oranges, bananas
Green leafy vegetables
Broccoli
Potatoes
Meat
```
These foods are high in ____________.
```
Potassium:
Legumes
Whole grains
Oranges, bananas
Green leafy vegetables
Broccoli
Potatoes
Meat
```
148
Risk factors for prostate cancer include (3)?
Age -- 50+
Race -- African american
Employment -- exposure to carcinogens
149
A catatonic patient whose limbs remain in a position in which they are placed is experiencing ____ _________.
Waxy flexibility
150
What type of skin condition may respond to UV therapy?
Psoriasis
151
What is plasmapheresis? What is it used for? What should be present at the bedside?
Seperation of plasma from the cells of blood. The plasma can contain antibodies that are attacking the immune system. Purpose is to remove that infected plasma and replace it with a plasma substitute. Used for Guillan Barre. Have warm blankets available for hypothermia.
152
Which inhaler should be used first? Albuterol or Beclomethasone? Why?
1) Albuterol = bronchodilator
2) Beclomethasone = steroid
Use albuterol first so it can open up the airways, allowing in the steroid medication
153
What class of drug is cimetidine?
What is it's MOA?
What is it used for?
Histamine (H2) Blocker
Inhibits stomach acid production
for GERD
154
Disulfiram can cause a reaction to alcohol even if the alcohol is not consumed. T/F?
True - avoid contact with alcohol in all forms, even inhalation or skin contact with alcohol containing products (Paint)
155
Chadwick's sign indicates what condition?
Pregnancy (bluish color to vagina, cervix, and labia resulting from increased blood flow)
156
What is the formula of the Naegele rule for calculating EDC?
Add 7 days to first day of last menstrual period. Then subtract 3 months.
157
A client's last menstrual period was May 8 to May 12. When is her estimated date of confinement?
Feb 15.
158
Normal Urine specific gravity
1.010 - 1.030
159
Beta blockers are MORE or LESS effective in African-Americans?
Less effective
160
Diuretics are MORE or LESS effective in African-Americans?
More effectie
161
Lactated ringer's is ISOTONIC, HYPOTONIC, or HYPERTONIC?
Isotonic (used as volume expander)
162
10% dextrose in water is ISOTONIC, HYPOTONIC, or HYPERTONIC?
hypertonic solution, used to wean clients of PN
163
How to calculate BPM from an EKG strip?
1,500/# of boxes between R-R wave
164
On an EKG strip, how many small boxes equals 1 minute?
1,500 small boxes
165
What effect can garlic have on blood sugar?
Can act to cause Hypoglycemic episode
166
When is the best time to take an antacid?
1 hour after meals to prevent epigastric pain
167
Caffeine, alcohol, and spicy foods will have what effect on gastric secretions?
Increase gastric secretions
168
What is the hallmark of aseptic technique?
Handwashing
169
A patient in a cast who complains of pain unrelieved by medication may be experiencing ______ _______
compartment syndrome
170
Compartment syndrome involves?
Lack of blood flow to extremities d/t increased pressure
171
What is the effect of atypical antipsychotics on WBC count?
May cause leukopenia
172
A 3 day old infant should have a bilirubin level of what?
15 mg/dL or less
173
```
Green Leafy Vegetables
Coffee, Tea
Fish
Liver
These foods are high in what vitamin?
```
Vitamin K
174
Anticoagulant medications act by antagonizing the effects of what Vitamin?
K (needed for clotting)
175
First recognition of fetal movements occurs at how many weeks of gestation? (range)
14-18 weeks
176
Foods high in potassium
Oranges
Kiwi
Banana
Cantaloupe
177
Normal newborn head circumference
33-35 cm
178
Normal newborn chest circumference
30.5 - 33 cm
179
Newborn heart rate
120-180 bmp
180
Newborn resp rate
30-60 breaths per minute
181
Should the anterior fontanelle of a newborn bulge at rest?
No - may indicate increased ICP. May bulge when newborn is crying
182
What 2 minerals are regulated by the parathyroid gland?
Calcium and phosphorus
183
The _______ gland secretes PTH, which causes calcium to be released from bones.
parathyroid gland
184
Aldosterone, cortisol, and sex hormones are all secreted by what gland?
Adrenal gland (adrenal cortex)
185
Aldosterone causes BP to ________.
Aldosterone causes BP to INCREASE.
186
Aldosterone causes resorption of ______ and _____; and loss of _______.
Aldosterone causes resorption of WATER and SALT; and loss of POTASSIUM.
187
Cortisol will have what effect on blood sugar?
Increase blood sugar
188
Cortisol will have what effect on proteins?
Protein breakdown
189
Graves' is associated with hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism?
Hyperthyroidism (bulgy eyes)
190
Myxedema is associated with hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism?
Hypothyroid (hard, nonpitting edema)
191
Cushing's disease is caused by adrenal [HYPERFUNCTION/HYPOFUNCTION].
HYPERfunction
192
Addison's disease is caused by adrenal [HYPERFUNCTION/HYPOFUNCTION].
HYPOfunction.
193
amytriptyline
MAOI
194
The onset of rapid acting insulin is ___ to ___ min.
5-15
195
The peak of short acting insulin is ___ to ___ min.
30-60
196
The peak of intermediate acting insulin is ____ to ____ hours.
6-12 hours.
197
The peak of long acting insulin is ___ to ____ hours.
3-14
198
Precautions for disseminated herpes zoster
airborne until lesions have crusted over
199
Precautions for TB
airborne
200
Precautions for chickenpox
airborne until lesions have crusted over
201
Precautions for measles (rubeola)
airborne
202
Precautions for Respiratory viruses
droplet
203
Precautions for influenza
droplet
204
Precautions for bordetella pertussa
droplet
205
Precautions for group A strep
droplet for first 24 hours
206
Precautions for acute bacterial meningitis
droplet
207
Precautions for Legionaire's
standard
208
Precautions for pneumococcal meningitis
standard
209
Precautions for infections mononucleosis
standard
210
The placenta partially or totally covers the opening in the mother's cervix. S/s include painless vaginal bleeding and a soft, nontender uterus.
Placenta previa
211
The placenta separates from its attachment to the uterine wall. S/s include vaginal bleeding, uterine hypertonicity, contractions, and abdominal pain.
Placenta abruptio
212
Airborne precautions should be used for what infections?
Measles (rubeola)
TB
Chicken pox (until lesions are crusted over)
Herpes zoster (in AIDS pt)
213
Put the steps of trach care in order.
- Suction inner cannula
- reassess the respiratory status
- Explain the procedure.
- clean around the stoma, and under trach faceplate.
- Elevate HOB
- Remove soiled dressing
- Observe stoma for signs of inflammation/infection
- Apply new dressing
- Document (COCA)
- Oral care
- Prepare trach care kit
- remove inner cannula, clean it if non-disposable
- APPly the new holder, THEN REMOVE THE OLD ONE
- Dry the inner cannula, reinsert it
- replace ties or tube holder
- place 2 fingers underneath the strap for sizing, secure
1) Explain the procedure
2) Elevate HOB
3) Suction inner cannula
4) Remove soiled dressing
5) Prepare trach care kit
6) remove inner cannula, clean it if non-disposable
7) Dry the inner cannula, reinsert it
8) clean around the stoma, and under trach faceplate
9) Observe stoma for signs of inflammation/infection
10) replace ties or tube holder
11) place 2 fingers underneath the strap for sizing, secure
12) APPly the new holder, THEN REMOVE THE OLD ONE
13) Apply new dressing
14) reassess the respiratory status
15) Oral care
16) Document (COCA)
214
What are normal values for neutrophils?
1,800-7,800 cells/mm3
215
During the transition phase of labor, the cervix should be dilated by how many cm?
8-10 cm
216
During the transition phase of labor, contractions should last ___ to ____ seconds. They should occur _____ to ____ minutes apart.
During the transition phase of labor, contractions should last _45_ to _90_ seconds. They should occur _1.5_ to _2_ minutes apart.
217
Stage 2 of labor begins when....?
The cervix is fully dilated (10cm).
218
Stage 3 of labor begins when ....?
Birth occurs
219
The placenta is delivered during what stage of labor?
3
220
During the active phase of labor, the cervix is dilated how many cm?
4-7cm
221
Late decelerations indicate what for the baby?
uteroplacental deficiency
222
Variable decelerations indicate what for the baby?
cord compression
223
What is a typical cause of acute glomerulonephritis?
Group A Strep
224
A client with acute glomerulonephritis requires what type of diet?
High calorie, low protein
225
By looking at a patient's EKG, how would you know they have 1st degree heart block?
Ekg will show a PR interval > than 0.2 seconds (slow conductivity.)
226
During 3rd degree heart block, what percent of atrial impulses are prevented from reaching the ventricles?
100% (all atrial impulses do not reach the ventricles)
227
What is the cause of hepatic encephalopathy?
increased ammonia in the blood
228
What medication is given in the case of hepatic encephalopathy?
Antibiotics to decrease serum ammonia levels
229
A client who has returned from a liver biopsy should be on bedrest for how long? And how should they be positioned?
24 hours bedrest
| Position R lateral
230
```
Nausea/vomiting
Slurred speech
Muscle weakness
Diarrhea
Thirst
EARLY/LATE signs of lithium toxicity?
```
early signs
231
```
Coarse hand tremors
Persistent GI upset
Mental confusion
Incoordination/ataxia
EARLY/LATE signs of lithium toxicity?
```
Late signs
232
Mild thirst
Find hand tremor
Polyuria
EARLY/LATE signs of lithium toxicity
trick question these are expected side effects of lithium
233
Cardiac patients prescribed digoxin should not have what type of horrible candy
licorice
234
Stridor breath sounds indicate...
obstruction of upper airway (Loud, harsh high pitched crowing sound)
235
Stridor breath sounds can be heard without a stethoscope true or false?
true
236
Crackles upon auscultation indicate...?
fluid in small airways, atelectasis
237
Wheezes upon auscultation indicate...?
Partial airway obstruction, constriction, swelling of airway
238
What is the cure for eclampsia?
delivery of the fetus
239
A distended bladder puts a postpartum woman at risk for what?
Hemmhorage
240
T/F an episiotomy is a risk factor for postpartum hemmorhage.
False
241
Name the cranial nerves.
```
I. Olfactory
II. Optic
III. Oculomotor
IV. Trochlear
V. Trigeminal
VI. Abducens
VII. Facial
VIII. Auditory (Vestibulocochlear)
IX. Glossopharyngeal
X. Vagus
XI. Accessory (Spinal accessory)
XII. Hypoglossal
```
242
Math, speech skills, and analytical thinking are controlled by the right or the left side of the brain?
Left
243
Control of impulsive behavior is a function of the right or the left side of the brain?
Right
244
Orientation to person, place and time is a function of the right or the left side of the brain?
Right
245
A postpartum client must receive WHAT before an epidural to counteract the effects of vasodilation?
Fluid bolus (Then the epidural should be given within one hour).
246
Turning a pregnant woman to the RIGHT or LEFT increases placental perfusion?
Left
247
What is the best way for infants with congenital heart deformities to receive nutrition? Why?
With least amount of effort (so Bottle > Breast) because they are weak and fatigue easily
248
Metoclopramide Hcl has what action on the stomach?
Causes increased gastric motility and faster emptying; can treat heartburn
249
Bladder infections typically caused by what type of bacteria?
E. coli
250
Bell's Palsy is caused by damage to which cranial nerve?
VII. Facial
251
Treatment for Bell's Palsy includes application of heat to the affected side. T/F?
True
252
Activated charcoal is given with diet soda and not milk or ice cream; why is this?
Dairy binds to the activated charcoal.
253
Small pits in the fingernail plate is a sign of what skin issue?
Psoriasis
254
Horizontal depressions in the nail plate of about 1 mm width indicate....?
Temporary illness, injury, or isolated periods of severe malnutrition
255
Spoon shaped nails signify what type of nutritional deficiency?
Iron deficiency anemia
256
The angle of the nail plate and nail fold that has straightened beyond 160 degrees indicates what issue?
Clubbing - a sign of hypoxia
257
Cheyne-Stokes breathing can be described how?
Periods of apnea alternated with periods of hyperpnea (Caused by damage to respiratory control center)
258
Hyperpnea can be described how? In what 2 situations may hyperpnea be seen?
Rapid, deep respirations. Diabetic ketoacidosis, metabolic acidosis
259
Multiple myeloma is caused by the excess production of what type of cell? What damage does this cause?
Too much plasma cells
| Causes destruction to Bone and bone marrow products
260
Patients with multiple myeloma should not receive what type of imaging study?
Nuclear scan (Causes false-negative results)
261
Dyspnea, S3, and dry, nonproductive cough indicate R or L sided heart failure?
Left (pulmonary congestion)
262
Dependant edema, distended jugular veins, and weight gain indicate R or L sided heart failure?
Right (backup of circulation)
263
What type of injury causes flail chest? What does it indicate.
Section of the rib cage broken off from chest wall (2 or more fractures). Indicates underlying pulmonary contusion.
264
What is the definition of a pneumothorax?
collapsed lung caused by air in the pleural cavity
265
The diet of atherosclerosis patients
low fat, low cholesterol
266
The diet of burns patients
high protein diet
267
The diet of cirrhosis patients
sodium-restricted
268
The diet of chronic renal failure patients
Renal diet
269
The diet of constipated patients
high fiber; high roughage
270
The diet of GI distress patients
low residue; full liquid; or clear liquid
271
The diet of hyperthyroid patients
high protein
272
the diet of heart failure patients
sodium restricted
273
The diet of hypertensive patients
sodium restricted
274
The diet of infection patients
high protein
275
Identify the diet
| Unsalted vegetables, white rice, canned fruit, sweets
Renal diet (excludes beans, cereal, or citrus fruit)
276
Identify the diet
| Egg, roast beef, milk
High protein (no soda and junk food)
277
Identify the diet
| Baked chicken, lettuce with tomatoes, applesauce
Sodium restricted (excludes preserved meat, cheese, canned food, added salt)
278
Identify the diet
| Fruit, vegetables, cereals, and lean meat
Low fat, cholesterol restricted (excludes marbled meats, avocado, milk, bacon, egg yolk, butter)
279
Normal daily water intake should be how many mL?
1800-2500
280
Green leafy vegetables are sources of what? (6)
```
Vitamin A
E
K
Calcium
Potassium
Iron
```
281
Consumption of raw shellfish is a risk factor for what type of hepatitis?
A
282
Normal T cell count?
500-1000
283
What is the purpose of nebulizer treatments?
Nebulizers improve oxygenation status for COPD patients.
284
COPD patients should have an apnea alarm True or False.
False - apnea is not a problem for COPD patients.
285
What type of drug is MANNITOL?
Osmotic diuretic
286
What type of drug is digitalis?
Cardiac glycoside (like digoxin)
287
When performing postural drainage on a patient, their head should be placed how?
In a dependant position.
288
Blood products should be given through what gauge needle?
20 gauge
289
What items are needed to initiate blood administration?
20 gauge needle
BP cuff
thermometer
Filtered piggyback tubing
290
Bismuth salicylate has what effect on other PO medications?
absorbs them
291
Butorphanol is what type of drug?
opioid agonist- antagonist
292
The bulge test assesses for presence of fluid in the....?
knee. Client should lay down and extend legs
293
A myelogram is a procedure where dye is injected into the ? to assess for ?
Spinal cord/vertebral column
| Spinal lesions
294
A cheif complaint should be recorded in the clients own words. T/F?
true (use quotes) "My stomach hurts after dinner."
295
Is milk allowed on a salt restricted diet?
Yes
296
Prenatal vitamins should be taken with what drink? Why?
Orange juice, because the acidity increases the absorbtion of iron.
297
phenelzine sulfate
MAOI
298
tranylcipromine sulfate
MAOI
299
what does calcium gluconate treat?
calcium defiency, magnesium overdose, rickets, lead colic, black widow bites
300
What is a concern when administering calcium gluconate?
Extravasion - severe chemical burn
301
Oxytocin should alsways be a primary or secondary infusion?
secondry controlled by pump
302
Precautions for RSV
Contact
303
Droplet precautions should be used for what infections?
```
Streptococcal pharyngitis
Mumps
Pneumonia
meningitis caused by influence type B
Respiratory viruses
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Influenza & Parainfluenza
Bordatella/Pertussis 1st 24 hours
```
304
The diet of cystic fibrosis patients
low fat, low cholesterol
