Genetics and Genomics MCQ Part 1 Flashcards by Aurora H

A person with two or more different cell lines originating from a single zygote is called a:
a. Syndrome
b. Chimera (=of two different zygotes)
c. Pleiotropy
d. Mosaic
e. Heterozygote

d. Mosaic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A cystic fibrosis mutation screen of an affected child reveals that he carries the Delta F508 mutation on one chromosome and the G551D mutation on the other chromosome. Which of the following terms best describes his situation?

a. Allelic heterogeneity
b. Complex heterozygosity (pete)
c. Locus heterogeneity
d. Lyonization
e. Pleiotropy

b. Complex heterozygosity (pete)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Myotonic dystrophy may show increasing severity and earlier age of onset in successive generations. This phenomenon is known as:

a. Compound heterozygosity
b. Incomplete penetrance
c. Anticipation
d. Variable expressivity
e. Locus heterogeneity

c. Anticipation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In people with sickle cell disease the red blood cells breakdown, clump, and clog the blood vessels. The broken cells accumulate in the spleen.
Among other things this leads to physical weakness, heart failure, pain, brain damage and spleen damage.
Affected individuals become paralyzed and can develop rheumatism, pneumonia and other diseases and kidney failure. This is an example of:

a. The polygenic nature of sickle cell disease
b. The pleiotropic effects of the sickle cell allele
c. An interaction between the sickle cell allele and proteolytic enzyme gene
d. Infectious organisms acting on the sickle cell allele
e. Side effects of the drugs used to cure sickle-cell disease

b. The pleiotropic effects of the sickle cell allele

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In a population expressing five different alleles for a particular gene, how many alleles may be present in each diploid organism in the population?

a. One
b. Two (One maternal + one paternal)
c. Three
d. Four
e. Five

b. Two (One maternal + one paternal)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Polyploidy refers to:
a. Extra copies of a gene adjacent to each other on a chromosome
b. An individual with complete extra sets of chromosomes
c. A chromosome which has replicated but not divided
d. Several duplications of a gene adjacent to each other
e. An individual with extra copies of a chromosome

b. An individual with complete extra sets of chromosomes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Pleiotropy refers to:
a. Multiple alleles each having partial control of one trait
b. The control of more than one trait by a single allele
c. Multiple alleles having co-dominant control of a trait
d. The tendency for alleles on the same chromosome to be inherited together
e. Multiple genes having control of one trait

b. The control of more than one trait by a single allele

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Duchenne muscular dystrophy and Becker muscular dystrophy have-different phenotypes but they result from mutations in the same gene. This is an example of:

a. Loss of heterozygosity
b. Locus heterogeneity
c. Variable expressivity
d. Compound heterozygosity
e. Allelic heterogeneity

Locus heterogeneity refers to mutations at different genetic loci (genes) that can cause the same or a similar phenotype. This situation fits the definition perfectly, since mutations at either of two loci on the X chromosome can both cause the hemophiliac phenotype.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Polydactyly (extra finger) is a dominant trait in humans. A person who has polydactyly has parents who do not have polydactyly, and a maternal grandfather who does have polydactyly. What is the most likely explanation for this?

a. Codominance
b. Incomplete dominance
c. All environmental effect
d. Variable expressivity
e. Incomplete penetrance

e. Incomplete penetrance

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following defines the pseudoautosomal region?
a. Regions of the X and Y chromosomes that don’t recombine during meiosis
b. Homologous regions of the X and Y chromosomes
c. Hemizygous regions of the X and Y chromosomes
d. Heterozygous regions of autosomal chromosomes (=feil)
e. Homozygous regions of autosomal chromosomes

b. Homologous regions of the X and Y chromosomes
(inherited just like autosomal genes but are on X and Chromosome)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Hemophilia A and hemophilia B have nearly identical phenotypes, but they result from a mutation in different genes on the X chromosome. This is an example of:

a. Allelic heterogeneity
b. Locus heterogeneity
c. Variable expressivity
d. Complex heterozygosity
e. Double heterozygosity

b. Locus heterogeneity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is true for the chromosome?
a. The DNA sequence of the two sister chromatids are identical
b. The DNA sequence of the two sister chromatids are similar the same
c. One of the sister chromatids of a chromosome is of maternal and the other is of paternal origin
d. The two sister chromatids are bound by kinetochore region (FEIL)
e. The DNA sequence of the two sister chromatids is different

a. The DNA sequence of the two sister chromatids are identical

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If you examine a pedigree showing the transmission pattern of mitochondrial gene mutation, which of the following states would be FALSE?

a. Mothers pass the gene to all offspring
b. Fathers do not transmit the gene
c. Only females will express the trait
d. Mothers pass the gene to all daughters
e. Mothers pass the gene to all sons

c. Only females will express the trait
(females and males can express the trait but only females can pass on the gene)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is it: The same genetic variations or genotype combinations simultaneously affect more than one phenotype trait?

a. Genetic heterogeneity
b. Complete penetrance
c. Pleiotropy
d. Expressivity
e. Phenocopy

c. Pleiotropy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Huntington’s disease is an example of a genetic disorder caused by

a. Homozygous recessive alleles
b. A late acting recessive allele
c. A late acting dominant allele
d. A non-lethal dominant allele
e. Multiple alleles

c. A late acting dominant allele

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An interstitial deletion of paternal chromosome subregion 15q11-q13 results Prader- Willi syndrome (PWS). The deletion of the same subregion of maternal chromosome results another disease Angelman syndrome. The reason for this is:

a. Genomic imprinting
b. Non-mendelian inheritance
c. Mitochondrial inheritance
d. Nuclear inheritance
e. Variable expressivity

a. Genomic imprinting

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A genetic defect in humans results in the absence of sweat glands in the skin.
Some men have this defect all over their bodies, but in women it is usually expressed in a peculiar way.
A woman with this defect typically has small patches of skin with sweat glands and other patches where sweat glands are lacking.
This pattern suggests the phenotypic effect of:

a. Chromosome mutation
b. Gene mutation
c. Chromosome inactivation
d. RNA splicing
e. Chimerism

c. Chromosome inactivation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which one of these is caused by repeats of base triplets rather than a whole chromosome?

a. Down syndrome
b. Edward Syndrome
c. Klinefelter syndrome
d. Fragile-X syndrome
e. Turner syndrome

d. Fragile-X syndrome

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

DNA fingerprinting is possible because:
a. Individuals, except identical (monozygotic) twins, are genetically unique
b. Different restriction enzymes is needed to cut different person’s DNA
c. Each person’s DNA uses different types of bases
d. Individuals are grown up in different environment
e. Each person has a unique set of genes

e. Each person has a unique set of genes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During anaphase II (meiosis II)
a. Homologues separate and migrate towards opposite poles
b. Sister chromatids separate and migrate towards opposite poles
c. Nuclei reform
d. Chromosomes line up in the equator of the cell
e. The cells are diploid

b. Sister chromatids separate and migrate towards opposite poles

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In meiosis I anaphase:
a. Sister chromatids move toward opposite poles
b. Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles
c. Sister chromatids move toward the same poles
d. Homologous chromosomes move toward the same pole
e. Homologous chromosomes move randomly toward either pole

e. Homologous chromosomes move randomly toward either pole

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How can archeologist obtain enough DNA from unearthed human bones?

a. Subject the DNA to electrophoresis
b. Use a nucleic acid probe
c. Subject the specimen to Northern blot
d. Use polymerase chain reaction
e. Subject DNA to restriction enzyme

d. Use polymerase chain reaction

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is it: severity of the illness can often vary in the affected persons even suffering from the very same variant?

a. Complete penetrance
b. Genetic heterogeneity
c. Phenocopy
d. Expressivity
e. Pleiotropy

d. Expressivity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In a group of 100 women with the genotype for widow’s peak in the hairline, only 87 actually exhibited the trait. This is an example of:

a. Reduced penetrance
b. Anticipation
c. Heterogeneity
d. Pleiotropy
e. Variable expressivity

a. Reduced penetrance

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

27. Which of the following syndromes are associated with PATERNAL disomy for chromosome 15? a. Beckwith-Wiedeman syndrome b. Hydatidiform mole c. Prader willi syndrome d. Klinefelter’s syndrome e. Angelman Syndrome

e. Angelman Syndrome

28. Which of the following syndromes are associated with MATERNAL disomy for chromosome 15? a. Hydatidiform mole b. Beckwith-Wiedeman syndrome c. Klinefelter’s syndrome d. Prader willi syndrome e. Angelman Syndrome

d. Prader willi syndrome

29. Which of the following identifies NOT correctly the mode of inheritance for the given genetic disease? (A eller E?) a. G-6PD X-linked recessive b. Familiar hypercholesterolemia – autosomal dominant c. Tay-Sachs – autosomal recessive d. High blood pressure - multifactorial I e. Phenylketonuria – X – Linked recessive

e. Phenylketonuria – X – Linked recessive

30. What is it: different allelic combinations lead to similar phenotypes? a. Phenocopy b. Complete penetrance c. Allelic heterogeneity d. Pleiotropy e. Expressivity

c. Allelic heterogeneity

31. Marfan syndrome, a dominant single-gene defect, is characterized by lens dislocation, long limbs, spndly fingers, a caved-in chest and a weakened aorta. This is an example of a(n):______ trait. a. Pleiotropic b. Variable expressed c. Heterogenic d. Fully penetrated e. Multifactorial

a. Pleiotropic

32. Some mutations have been found that are expressed differently depending on the set of the parent the gene is passed through. This is called _______ a. Incomplete dominance b. Variable penetrance c. imprinting d. Sex-linked inheritance e. Sex-limited inheritance

c. imprinting

33. Which statement is NOT true about X and Y chromosomes? a. Sex determination is based on them. b. Pseudoautosomal regions are found on both ends of X and Y c. During male meiosis X and Y chromosomes pair by their short arm ends. d. In rare instances SRY is also involved in genetic recombination causing XX males and XY females e. Most of X and Y chromosomes located genes are related to gonadal and genital development.

e. Most of X and Y chromosomes located genes are related to gonadal and genital development.

34. A man with type A blood marries a woman with type B blood. If both parent are homozygous, their offspring will have type _____ blood, which is an example of ___ a. O; recessiveness b. AB; incomplete dominance c. AB; codominance d. B; dominance of B over A e. A; dominance of A over B

c. AB; codominance

35. What is it: Environmental factors lead to the same clinical phenotype as do the genetic factors? a. Complete penetrance b. Genetic heterogeneity c. Phenocopy d. Expressivity e. Pleiotropy

c. Phenocopy

36. Male pattern baldness is a ______ trait. a. Y-linked b. X-linked c. Sex-linked d. Sex-influenced

d. Sex-influenced

37. Which of the following is NOT true about mtDNA? a. It has many DNA repair mechanisms b. The rate of mutation is 10 times higher than that of nuclear DNA c. It contains 2 rRNAs and 22tRNAs d. It contains no introns e. Variable expression in mitochondrial diseases is due to mtDNA heteroplasmy

a. It has many DNA repair mechanisms

38. During the mitosis the spindle fibers connect to the: a. Nucleoli b. kinetochores c. lamina fibrosa d. intermediate filaments

b. kinetochores

39. A farmer wishes to know whether his corn is homozygous or heterozygous for a particular trait. If it were homozygous a test cross would yield: (A eller B?) a. All offspring with the parental phenotype (riktig?) b. All offspring with the parental genotype c. 50% of the offspring with the parental phenotype d. 50% of the offspring with the parental genotype e. None of the offspring with the parental phenotype

a. All offspring with the parental phenotype

40. Match the appropriate answers! a. Mitosis early prophase b. Late prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase 1/ Chromosomes line up along the equatorial plane of the cell 2/ nucleolus disappears 3/ Centrioles move to the poles of the cell, spindle forms between the centrioles 4/ Chromatids separate and move toward each pole 5/ Chromatin begins to condense as visible chromosomes

a. Mitosis early prophase (2 + 5) b. Late prophase (3) c. Metaphase (1) d. Anaphase (4)

41. Match the appropriate answers! a. Mitosis b. Meiosis 1/ Four daughter cells are formed 2/ Homologous chromosomes form pairs 3/ Occurs in reproductive organs 4/ Sister chromatids separate 5/ Diploid cells are formed 6/ New gene combinations occur

a. Mitosis (4 + 5) b. Meiosis (1+2+3+6)

42. Mary’s father has haemophilia, but her husband doesn’t. What is the chance her son will have the disease? Write up the genotypes and the Punett square to prove the answer.

43. Which statement if FALSE for inheritance? a. The zygote gets 23 maternal and 23 paternal chromosomes b. The 23 chromosomes contain 23 DNA molecules c. Each chromosome out of the 23 inherited in an unchanged form either from the grandmother or from the grandfather d. When germ cells are formed parental chromosomes recombine during crossing over e. In females one of the X chromosomes is inactivated

c. Each chromosome out of the 23 inherited in an unchanged form either from the grandmother or from the grandfather

44. Which statement is TRUE for the cell cycle? a. It does not include mitosis b. It is the state of resting cells in the body c. The DNA content of the cell is duplicated before mitosis d. Rapidly dividing cells have longer cell cycles e. Embryonic cells never go to the cell cycle

c. The DNA content of the cell is duplicated before mitosis

45. Which statement is true for the Rh blood group? a. A blood sample either belongs to the ABO or to the Rh type b. Rh negative mothers carrying a Rh positive fetus risk their lives during pregnancy c. An Rh negative mother will always develop antibodies against red blood cells antigens of her fetus d. Rh incompatibility can cause problems during the second pregnancy with a heterozygous fetus

a, d

46. The number of chromosomes in a zygote is a. Half as many as in an unfertilized egg cell b. The same as in a sperm c. The same as in an egg d. The same as in a skin cell

d. The same as in a skin cell

46. The number of chromosomes in a zygote is a. Half as many as in an unfertilized egg cell b. The same as in a sperm c. The same as in an egg d. The same as in a skin cell

d. The same as in a skin cell

47. How are Klinefelter and Turner syndromes related? a. The result of non-disjunction b. Can be detected by karyotyping c. Involve abnormal number of X or Y chromosomes d. Have 44 autosomes e. all

e. all

48. A girl has a brother with fragile X and wants to know if she carries the gene. What is the best way?

Southern blot

49. Monozygotic twins showed 45% concordance, dizygotic twins showed 15%. What is true about the inheritance? a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. Sex-linked d. Mitochondrial e. multifactoria

e. multifactoria

51. Taq polymerase: a. Responsible for making new DNA in humans b. A thymine-sensitive eukaryotic enzyme c. A heat stable enzyme, used in PCR

c. A heat stable enzyme, used in PCR

53. What is the function of Anaphase promoting complex?

b. Ubiquitin ligase

54. A person has 3 barr bodies, what is true? a. Has turner b. Has klinefelter c. Has trisomy d. Has 4 chromosome X

d. Has 4 chromosome X

55. DNA endonuclease makes

a. Sticky ends

57. In the position of alanine we put glutamine, this is:

a. Substitution / point mutation

58. In vitro DNA synthesis requires the activity of _________ a. DNA polymerase b. RNA polymerase c. DNA helicase d. Taq polymerase e. All above

d. Taq polymerase

59. Choose the correct statement for the M-phase a. In anaphase the astral microtubules pull the chromosomes to the poles b. In metaphase the APC/C is activated c. In prophase the lamins are dephosphorylated d. At the beginning of prophase the nuclear envelope disintegrates e. The M checkpoint is in anaphase

d. At the beginning of prophase the nuclear envelope disintegrates

0. Find the genetic disorder and protein mismatch a. Marfan syndrome – fibrillin 1 b. Thalassemia - hemoglobin c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy - myosin d. Familial hypercholesterolemia – LDL receptor e. Osteogenesis imperfecta – collagen

c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy - myosin => Should be dystrophin protein

61. Find the genetic disorder and protein mismatch: a. Marphan syndrome – fibrillin b. PKU-phenylalanin hydroxylase c. Hemophilia – hemoglobin d. Osteogenesis imperfecta – collagen e. Duchenne muscular dystrophy – dystrophy

c. Hemophilia – hemoglobin

62. Find the genetic disorder and protein mismatch a. Marfan syndrome – fibrillin 1 b. Albinism - tyrosinase c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy - myosin d. Familial hypercholesterolemia – LDL receptor e. Osteogenesis imperfecta – collagen

c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy - myosin => Should be dystrophin protein

63. A disease caused by an autosomal non-disjunction is a. Turner syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Achondroplasia d. Klinefelter syndrome e. Phenylketonuria

b. Down syndrome

64. A human genetic defect that is caused by non-disjunction of sex chromosome is a. Marfan syndrome b. Hemophilia c. Down syndrome d. Turner syndrome e. Duchenne muscular dystrophy

d. Turner syndrome

65. Huntington disease is a deadly dominant disease. How can this allele be transmitted from one generation to another if one copy is enough to make the carrier die? a. Because symptoms appear between 30 and 50 years old and death occurs several years later b. Because actually some people with one defective allele survive c. Because this disease has reduced penetrance d. Because this disease is characterized by variable expressivity e. Because X chromosome carrying the gene is inactivated

a. Because symptoms appear between 30 and 50 years old and death occurs several years later

66. Which one is NOT a length mutation? a. SNP b. Insertion c. VNTR d. Trinucleotide (triplet) repeat e. deletion

a. SNP

67. Which of the following statements regarding mutations causing Huntington Disease is FALSE? a. Typically involves abnormal expansion of trinucleotide repeat units. b. The trinucleotide repeats are located within the 3’ untranslated region of the Huntingtin gene. c. The mutations are considered to be gain of function d. Expansion is more likely to occur when the repeat is inherited from the father rather than the mother e. The larger the expansion, the younger an individual may manifest symptoms, a genetic phenomenon referred to as genetic anticipation

b. The trinucleotide repeats are located within the 3’ untranslated region of the Huntingtin gene.

68. Which technique would be most suitable for testing the hypothesis: Treating an estrogen-responsive cell line with estrogen gives a five-fold increase in the level of a specific mRNA with a length of 1800 nucleotides a. In situ hybridization b. Western blotting c. Northern blotting d. Southern blotting e. Polymerase chain reaction

c. Northern blotting (The northern blot, or RNA blot, is a technique used in molecular biology research to study gene expression by detection of RNA in a sample)

69. A point mutation that changes a codon specifying an amino acid into a stop codon is called a: a. Missense mutation b. Nonsense mutation c. Frameshift d. Deletion e. Sense mutation

b. Nonsense mutation

70. What is the mode of inheritance of color blindness? a. It is an X-linked dominant trait b. It is an autosomal recessive trait c. It is an autosomal dominant trait d. It is an X-linked recessive trait e. It is an autosomal codominant trait

d. It is an X-linked recessive trait

71. There are are three types of alleles denoting blood type: I^A, I^B and I^O. How many of alleles does a typical person have? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Two or Three e. 2x3=6

b. Two

72. In which phase or stage do sister chromatids separate during meiosis? a. In metaphase I b. In anaphase II c. In anaphase I d. In diakinesis e. In prophase

b. In anaphase II

73. PCR is used to: a. Cleave DNA b. Produce recombinant DNA c. Copy DNA sequences d. Clone cells e. Multiply RNA

c. Copy DNA sequences

74. Both sickle cell anemia and hemophilia a. Are caused by genes coding for hemoglobin b. In heterozygote form provide resistance to malaria infection c. Are expressed in homozygous dominant individuals d. Are the most frequent inherited diseases e. Are monogenic

e. Are monogenic

75. The substitution of one nucleotide for another is known as a(n)________ a. Insertion b. deletion c. point d. frame shift e. somatic

c. point

76. Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling are both techniques used to________ a. Karyotype a fetus b. Determine sex of a fetus c. Look for chromosomal aberrations d. Perform biochemical studies e. All of the above answers are correct

e. All of the above answers are correct

77. A human female is born with ________ cells in the primordial follicles of her ovaries a. Primary oocytes b. Secondary oocytes c. oogonia d. primordial germ cells e. polar bodies (polocytes)

c. oogonia

78. Housekeeping gene controls should be included in the following assays: a. Southern blot b. PCR c. R(everse)T(ranscriptase)-PCR d. DNA fingerprinting e. All of the above

e. All of the above

79. Which of the following represents the best description for the movement of a fragment of the short arm of chromosome 6 to the long arm of chromosome 8 and concurrently, moving the fragment that should have been on the long arm of chromosome 8 to the short arm of chromosome 6? a. Robertsonian translocation b. Deletion c. Duplication d. Isochromosome e. Reciprocal translocation

e. Reciprocal translocation

80. How many tetrads are found in meiotic prophase in an organism with a diploid number of 12? a. 4 b. 6 c. 18 d. 24 e. 12

b. 6

81. Homologous chromosomes are NOT necessarily identical in their _______ a. Overall size b. Centromere placement c. Arm ratio d. Placement of genes e. alleles

e. alleles

82. Genes of which of the following are coded on the Y chromosome: a. Haemophilia b. Testosterone c. Male pattern baldness d. Testis development e. Testosterone receptor

d. Testis development

83. The human genome is: a. All of our genes b. All of our DNA c. All of the DNA and RNA in our cells d. Responsible for all our physical characteristics e. All of our nuclear DNA

b. All of our DNA

4. Klinefelter’s syndrome (XXY) is an example of chromosomal aneuploidy that can readily be diagnosed by: a. Twin studies b. Southern blot c. Karyotyping d. Biochemical analysis e. Pedigree analysis

c. Karyotyping

85. A 47, XXY karyotype may be caused by the non-disjunction of __________ a. Meiosis I of paternal spermatogenesis b. Meiosis I of maternal oogenesis c. Meiosis II of paternal spermatogenesis d. Meiosis II of maternal oogenesis e. Meiosis II in either parent

e. Meiosis II in either parent

86. Which type of inheritance results in continuous variation – often bell shaped curve – because genes at many loci are involved? a. Multifactorial b. autosomal dominant c. sex-limited d. X-linked e. Sex-influenced

a. Multifactorial

87. What is true about sister chromatid exchange? a. It happens only in meiosis b. It happens only in mitosis c. It happends in interphase before DNA synthesis d. It has no genetic consequence in most of the cases e. It increases genetic variability

d. It has no genetic consequence in most of the cases

88. Which cells are haploid in the process of spermatogenesis? a. Spermatogonia, primary spermatocytes b. Primary spermatocytes, secondary spermatocytes c. Secondary spermatocytes, spermatids d. Only sperms e. Only spermatids

c. Secondary spermatocytes, spermatids

89. The effect of Barr body formation in mammals is that_______ a. Females are mosaics for heterozygous X-linked genes b. Males are mosaic for heterozygous autosomal genes c. Males are mosaics for hemizygous X-linked genes d. Females are mosaics for homozygous X-linked genes e. Females are mosaics for heterozygous autosomal genes

a. Females are mosaics for heterozygous X-linked genes

90. From whom did a male with red-green color blindness inherit the defective allele? a. Only from his mother b. Only from his father c. Either from his mother or father, but not from both d. Both from the mother and the father e. This information is not enough to determine

a. Only from his mother

91. Alleles that are both expressed in a heterozygote are a. Completely dominant b. Codominant c. Incompletely dominant d. Completely penetrating e. Completely expressed

b. Codominant

92. Archaeologists unearthed a human skull with a small dried fragment of the scalp still attached. They extracted a tiny amount of DNA from the scalp tissue. How could they obtain sufficient DNA for an analysis of the ancient human’s genes? a. Subject the DNA to electrophoresis b. Use a nucleic acid probe c. Subject the specimen to Northern blot d. Use polymerase chain reaction e. Subject the DNA to restriction enzymes

d. Use polymerase chain reaction

93. Southern blotting is: a. Non-radioactive cellular RNA, separated by electrophoresis and blotted onto a membrane filter, is tested for hybridization with radioactive gene-specific probe of either RNA or DNA. b. Radioactive DNA restriction fragments, separated by electrophoresis and blotted onto a membrane filter are tested for hybridization with a non-radioactive, gene-specific probe of either RNA or DNA c. Radioactive cellular RNA, separated by electrophoresis and blotted onto a membrane filter, is tested for hybridization with radioactive gene-specific probe of either RNA or DNA. d. DNA research done south of the equator e. Non-radioactive DNA restriction fragments, separated by electrophoresis and blotted onto a membrane filter, is tested for hybridization with radioactive gene-specific probe of either RNA or DNA.

e. Non-radioactive DNA restriction fragments, separated by electrophoresis and blotted onto a membrane filter, is tested for hybridization with radioactive gene-specific probe of either RNA or DNA.

94. In recombinant methods, the term “vector” refers to _______ a. The enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments b. The “sticky” ends of a DNA fragment c. An RFLP marker d. A plasmid or other agent used to transfer DNA into a living cell e. a DNA probe used to locate a particular gene

d. A plasmid or other agent used to transfer DNA into a living cell

95. In the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique, a heating phase and a cooling phase alternate. An original sample of DNA would have to pass through how many total rounds of heating and cooling before a sample is increased eight times in quantity? a. two b. three c. four d. six e. eight

c. four

96. If a gene is expressed within human liver cells, which of the following cells can be used to create a cDNA library? a. Liver b. Heart c. Spleen d. Bone marrow e. Any human cell

a. Liver

97. The horn length of unicorns ranges from 45cm to 102 cm. When the horns of hundreds of unicorns are measured, the distribution forms a bell (Gaussian) curve. These data indicate that horn length in unicorns is controlled by a. A single gene with only one allele b. A single gene with many alternative alleles c. Two genes with redundant functions d. Single gene with different expressivity e. Many genes

d. Single gene with different expressivity

98. Which of the following would eliminate X linkage as a possible mode of inheritance? a. An affected female has an affected mother b. An affected female does NOT have an affected mother c. An affected female has an affected father d. An affected female does NOT have an affected father e. None of the above

e. None of the above

99. Naturally occurring methods of recombining DNA within a species include: a. mitosis b. crossing over during meiosis I only sexual reproduction only c. in-vitro fertilization d. crossing over and sexual reproduction

d. crossing over and sexual reproduction

100. Ana's dad developed this thirties a disease caused by genes carried by his mitochondria. Ana is 20 years-old and she is worried that she may have inherited the same disease. => What can you tell Ana? a. She has a 25% chance to inherit the disease because mitochondrial diseases are always recessive b. She has a 50% chance to have inherited the disease since half of her mitochondria come from dad c. She has a 100% chance to inherit the mutant gene but due to reduced penetrance the disease is not manifested d. She should not worry because mitochondria are inherited maternally e. She will unfortunately develop the disease because all mitochondria are inherited from the dad

d. She should not worry because mitochondria are inherited maternally