genetics, biodiversity and classification Flashcards
(104 cards)
1
Q
what are DNA molecules like in prokaryotic cells and in mitochondria and chloroplasts?
A
short, circular and not
associated with proteins.
2
Q
what are DNA molecules like in eukaryotic cells? (2)
A
1) found in the nucleus
2) long, linear and associated with proteins called histones to form chromosomes
3
Q
when are chromosomes first visible and what are they made of? (4)
A
1) at the start of cell division
2) is the result of the DNA being tightly coiled around the histones
3) each thread is called a chromatid
4) DNA is highly coiled and folded to form the chromosome
4
Q
what is a gene? (3)
A
1) a base sequence of DNA that codes for:
2) the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide
3) a functional RNA (including ribosomal RNA and tRNAs).
5
Q
where are genes found? (2)
A
1) genes occupy a fixed position, called a locus
2) on a particular DNA molecule
6
Q
what is a triplet?
A
A sequence of three DNA bases
7
Q
what does a triplet code for?
A
a specific amino acid
8
Q
how can you describe the genetic code? (4)
A
1) universal- each triplet codes for the same amino acid in all organisms. This is indirect evidence for evolution (with a few minor exceptions)
2) non-overlapping- each base in the sequence is only read once as triplets.
3) degenerate- most amino acids are coded for by more than one triplet
4) The genetic codes contains start and stop codons.
9
Q
what are exons? (2)
A
1) A sequence of DNA that codes for an amino acid sequence. within a gene there are only some exons.
2) Within the gene, these exons are separated by one or more non-coding sequences, called introns.
10
Q
In eukaryotes, much of the nuclear DNA does not code for (1)
There are, for example (2) of base sequences between (3)
A
1) polypeptides
2) non-coding multiple repeats
3) genes
11
Q
what is the genome?
A
the complete set of genes in a cell
12
Q
what is the proteome?
A
the full range of proteins that a cell is able to produce.
13
Q
what is a codon?
A
a sequence of three bases on mRNA that codes for a specific amino acid.
14
Q
what is an anti codon
A
a sequence of three nucleotide bases at one end of a tRNA molecule that is specific to an mRNA codon.
15
Q
what is a homologous pair? (2)
A
1) two chromosomes that carry the same genes on the same location
2) they are not identical as they can carry different alleles of the same gene.
16
Q
why is each amino acid represented by more than one triplet?
A
There are therefore 64 possible triplets (4^3) meaning that each amino acid is represented by more than one triplet.
17
Q
what is an allele?
A
an alternative form of the same gene
18
Q
what is the structure of mRNA? (5)
A
1) a long , single polynucleotide chain strand arranged in a single helix, created during transcription in which the base sequence is complementary to DNA.
2) each set of three bases, called the codon, match a triplet on the DNA as well as the anitcodon tRNA.
3) pentose sugar is ribose
4) molecule is smaller than DNA but larger than tRNA
5) organic bases are adenine, uracil, guanine and cytosine
19
Q
what is the structure of tRNA? (7)
A
1) a single polynucleotide chain that is folded into a clover leaf shape
2) the specific anticodon found on the tRNA molecule is complementary to a specific codon on an mRNA molecule
3) pentose sugar is ribose
4) many types of tRNA each of which binds to a specific amino acid
5) has a sugar phosphate backbone
6) hydrogen bonds between some of the complementary bases
7) amino acids bind to a specific region of the molecule
20
Q
what is transcription in simple terms?
A
the production of mRNA from DNA
21
Q
outline the stages of transcription (7)
A
1) occurs in the nucleus
2) part of a DNA molecule unwinds (the hydrogen bonds between the complementary base pairs break)
which is catalysed by helicase, l(ike in DNA replication) which exposes nucleotide bases
3) this exposes the gene to be transcribed
4) one of the DNA strands is used as a template strand to make the mRNA and pairs with their complementary nucleotides from the pool which is present in the nucleus.
5) the enzyme RNA polymerase then moves along the strand and joins the nucleotides together by catalysing the formation of phosphodiester bonds to form a pre mRNA molecule
6) When RNA polymerase reaches a stop code on the DNA, it detaches and the production of pre-mRNA is then complete
7) In eukaryotic cells the pre-mRNA is then spliced to remove the introns leaving a strand of exons. The mRNA then moves out of the nucleus through a pore and attaches to a ribosome in the cytoplasm which is the site of next stage of protein synthesis called translation.
22
Q
why do different species produce some unique proteins?
A
each genome is specific to different species
23
Q
what does transcription result in, in prokaryotes?
A
the production of mRNA from DNA.
24
Q
what does transcription result in, in eukaryotes?
A
the production of pre- mRNA; this is then spliced to form mRNA
25
what is translation in simple terms?
the production of polypeptides from the sequence of codons carried by mRNA
26
outline the process of pre-mRNA splicing (4)
1) introns would prevent the synthesis of the polypeptide
2) introns are removed by enzymes within a splicosome complex and exons are joined/spliced together
3) the mRNA molecule leaves the nucleus through nuclear pores and is attracted to ribosomes
4) most prokaryotic DNA does not have introns
27
outline the process of translation (7)
1) mRNA molecule attaches to a ribosome in the cytoplasm
2) a tRNA molecule with the complementary anticodon moves to the ribosome and pairs with the codon on the mRNA.
3) The tRNA carries a specific amino acid
4) Two tRNA molecules fit onto the ribosome at any one time, bringing the amino acid they are each carrying side by side
5) A peptide bond is then formed between the two amino acids which requires energy in the form of ATP
6) as the ribosome moves along the codons, tRNA molecules detach themselves from the amino acids and are free to collect another amino acid from the cytoplasm
7) the process continues until a stop codon on the mRNA is reached- At this point, the ribosome, mRNA and the last tRNA molecule all separate and the polypeptide chain is complete
28
how do genes control the activities of cells? (5)
1) DNA sequence of triplets determine the sequence of codons on mRNA
2) sequence of codons on the mRNA determine the order in which tRNA molecules line up
3) this determines the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide
4) so genes determine which proteins a cell manufactures
5) many of these proteins are enzymes
29
give 2 molecules from which a ribosome is made (2)
1) rRNA
2) protein
30
give 4 structural differences between a DNA molecule and a mRNA molecule
1) DNA- double helix/stranded mRNA- single helix/ strand
2) DNA- thymine mRNA- uracil
3) DNA- H bonds mRNA- no H bonds
4) DNA- long mRNA- short
31
give 5 ways in which the DNA in a chloroplast is different from DNA in the nucleus
1) DNA is shorter/ accept smaller
2) fewer genes
3) DNA is circular not linear
4) DNA not associated with proteins
5) has no introns
32
why do some mutations in the nucleotide sequence of a gene not cause a change in the structure of a polypeptide? (2)
1) more than one triplet can code for the same amino acid/ genetic code is degenerate
2) mutations may occur in introns
33
describe 4 differences between the structure of a tRNA molecule and the structure of a mRNA molecule (4)
1) mRNA is linear whereas tRNA is clover leaf shaped
2) tRNA has hydrogen bonds but mRNA doesn't
3) tRNA has an amino acid binding site mRNA doesn't
4) tRNA has an anticodon, mRNA has a codon
34
describe and explain the difference in the structure of pre-mRNA and mRNA (2)
1) pre mRNA is longer as it has both exons and introns/ more nucleotides
2) mRNA only has exons/ less nucleotides as a result of splicing
35
describe how one amino acid is added to a polypeptide that is being formed at a ribosome during translation (3)
1) tRNA brings specific amino acid to ribosome
2) anticodon on tRNA binds to codon on mRNA
3) amino acids join by condensation reaction to form a peptide bond using ATP
36
describe how mRNA is produced from an exposed template strand of DNA (3)
1) free nucleotides form complementary base pairs
2) phosphodiester bonds form between adjacent nucleotides
3) by action of RNA polymerase
37
what would the effect be of an addition of one nucleotide within a sequence in terms of mutation? (2)
1) frameshift occurs as all triplets are moved
2) so affects more than one amino acid
38
what is a mutation and gene mutation? (2)
1) any change in the base sequence or quantity of DNA
2) gene mutations involve a change in the base sequence of chromosomes
39
when can gene mutations arise and what do they include (2)
1) can arise spontaneously during DNA replication
2) includes base deletion and base substitution
40
what can increase the rate of gene mutation?
Mutagenic agents (X rays/ Uv raidation)
41
describe how base substitution can result in a different amino acid sequence in polypeptides and its effects? (4)
1) original DNA triplet is replaced and so codes for a different amino acid
2) polypeptide produced will differ in a single amino acid
3) the effect of this change depends on the role of the original amino acid in the overall shape and function of the protein
4) a substitution may not always be harmful as the substituted nucleotide may code in that triplet for the same amino acid due to the degenerate nature of the genetic code
42
how can base substitution lead to a non functioning protein? (5)
1) original DNA triplet is replaced and so codes for a different amino acid
2) polypeptide produced will differ in a single amino acid
3) amino acid may be important in forming bonds that determine the tertiary structure of the final protein
4) replacement amino acid may not form the same bonds
5) protein may be a different shape and therefore not function properly.
43
what is the effect of base substitution if the new triplet of bases still codes for the same amino acid? (2)
1) genetic code is degenerate so most amino acids have more than one codon
2) If both DNA triplets code for the same amino acid there will be no change in the polypeptide produced and so the mutation will have no effect
44
how can base deletion result in different amino acid sequences in polypeptides? (4)
1) the loss of a single nucleotide can lead to a frame shift as each subsequent triplet has been shifted by one base, resulting in completely different amino acids being coded for
2) usually the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide is entirely different and so the polypeptide is unlikely to function correctly
3) this is because the sequence of bases in DNA is read in units of 3 bases/ non overlapping
45
what is a chromosome mutation?
changes in the structure or number of whole chromosomes
46
outline chromosome non-disjunction (4)
1) non-disjunction occurs when chromosomes/individual homologous pairs of chromosomes fail to separate correctly in meiosis
2) as a result the gametes and any zygotes formed will have one more or one less chromosome than they should
3) on fertilisation with a gamete that has the normal complement of chromosomes, the resultant offspring have more or fewer chromosomes than normal in all their body cells
4) Down’s syndrome is the result of non-disjunction where individuals have an extra chromosome 21
47
outline chromosome polyploidy (2)
1) changes can occur in the whole set of chromosomes so that an individual has three or more sets of chromosomes instead of two.
2) this is common in plants, with many modern wheats arising to be polyploidy.
48
how does mutation in the number of chromosomes arise?
can arise spontaneously by chromosome non-disjunction during meiosis
49
explain why a deletion gene mutation is more likely to result in a change to an organism than a substitution gene mutation (3)
1) in deletion all subsequent codons after the deletion are affected due to frameshift occurring
2) as a result most amino acids coded for by these codons will be different and the polypeptide produced will be affected more severely
3) in substitution only a single codon may change and may still code for the same amino acid due to the degenerate nature of the genetic code. Therefore a single amino acid will be affected and the effect on the polypeptide less severe
50
errors in transcription occur about 100,000 times more often than errors in DNA replication. Explain why errors in DNA replication can be far more damaging than errors in transcription (2)
1) DNA errors can be inherited and may have a permanent effect on the whole organism
2) errors in transcription are temporary in cells and not inherited
51
summarise meiosis (3)
1) two nuclear divisions result usually in the formation of four haploid daughter cells from a single diploid parent cell
2) genetically different daughter cells result from the independent segregation of homologous chromosomes
3) crossing over between homologous chromosomes results in further genetic variation among daughter cells.
52
what is the main role of meiosis? (2)
1) the production of haploid gametes
2) which is necessary to maintain a stable number of chromosomes
53
how is genetic variation achieved through meiosis? (3)
1) Independent segregation- causes various combinations of chromosome arrangement. During meiosis 1 homologous chromosomes line up in pairs, the arrangement of these pairs is random/ random which side of the equator maternal and paternal chromosomes end up on meaning that the division into the daughter cells is also random
2) crossing over of non-sister chromatids - when pairs of chromosomes line up they can exchange some of their genetic material. Crossing over occurs when one chromosome may swap places with the same part of its homologous pair leading to a different combination of alleles on the gene
3) both happen in meiosis 1/ first round of division
54
summarise the first nuclear division in meiosis/ meiosis 1 (2)
1) homologous chromosomes line up in pairs at the equator and are separated into 2 new cells - crossing over and independent segregation happens
2) The cell divides so each daughter cell contains one chromosome from each homologous pair
55
summarise the second nuclear division in meiosis/ meiosis 2 (2)
1) chromosomes line up at the equator and spindle fibres attach to centromeres, splitting them apart so sister chromatids are separated to either pole.
2) the chromatids of each chromosome are separated producing 4 genetically different haploid daughter cells
56
how can you identify where meiosis occurs when given information about an unfamiliar life cycle
look on the diagram where it goes from being a diploid parent cell to a haploid daughter cell/ or as 2n becoming n- this is where meiosis is happening
57
how can you calculate how many different possible gametes which can be made based on the no. of chromosomes a particular species has? (2)
1)2^n (n is the haploid number)
2) for humans this would be 2^23 bc we have 23 pairs of chromosomes
58
describe how crossing over introduces variation (3)
1) homologous chromosomes align at the equator
2) non sister chromatids form a bivalent and are joined together at the chiasma where they exchange equivalent alleles
3) creates new combinations of alleles in gametes
59
describe how independent segregation introduces variation (4)
1) it is random which side of the equator paternal and maternal chromosomes end up on during the meiosis 1/first division
2) ensures that each gamete receives a random mix of maternal and paternal chromosomes, resulting in unique combinations of alleles
3) large possible combinations of chromosomes in daughter cells
4) use 2^n to work out the different combinations
60
after meiosis 1, are cells haploid or diploid?
the cells are haploid because at each pole, there is just one of each pair of the homologous chromosomes. Therefore, only one full set of the chromosomes is present.
61
why does meiosis 2 not change chromosome number? (3)
1) each chromosome splits into its two chromatids, giving one to each daughter cell.
2) the four cells remain haploid, but now with single-stranded chromosomes
3) so diploid number is retained at feritilisation
62
explain the different outcome of mitosis and meiosis (4)
1) - Meiosis produces 4 daughter cells
-Mitosis produces 2 daughter cells
2) -Meiosis produces haploid cells.
-Mitosis produces diploid cells.
3) -Meiosis produces genetically different daughter cells.
-Mitosis produces genetically identical daughter cells.
4) -Meiosis only produces gametes
-Mitosis allows the replication of every body cell.
63
explain how random fertilisation of haploid gametes further
increases genetic variation within a species (2)
1) any sperm can fertilise any egg
2) random fertilisation produces zygotes with different combinations of chromosomes to both parents
64
what is genetic diversity
the number of different alleles of genes in a population.
65
what enables natural selection?
genetic diversity is a factor enabling natural selection to occur
66
how do the principles of natural selection link to the evolution of populations? (7)
1) random mutation can result in new alleles of a gene
2) many mutations are harmful but, in certain environments, the new allele of a gene might give its possessor an advantage over other individuals in the population
3) these individuals will be better adapted to survive their environment and will outcompete others in the population for vailable resources
4) as a result, they are more likely to breed successfully and produce more offspring
5) the advantageous allele is inherited by offspring
6) offspring with this advantageous are in turn more likely to survive and so reproduce successfully
7) As a result, over many generations, the new allele increases
in frequency in the population and the other population dies out/decreases.
67
why aren't all alleles of a population equally likely to be passed on to the next generation?
only certain individuals are reproductively successful and so pass on their alleles
68
what affects allele frequency in populations?
differences between the reproductive success of individuals
69
the larger the number of alleles of genes in the population...
the greater the genetic diversity for that population (larger variation)
70
what does natural selection result in? (3)
1) results in species that are better adapted to their environment.
2) these adaptations may be anatomical, physiological or behavioural
3) this is because alleles (genes) code for proteins which form living tissue
71
why is a larger genetic diversity in a population good? (2)
1) a larger genetic diversity (wider range of alleles in a population) results in a wider range of characteristics (more variation)
2) this means that it is more likely that at least some individuals within the population are better suited/ possess the characteristics to survive an environmental change
72
describe directional selection, exemplified by antibiotic resistance in bacteria (9)
1) antibiotic-resistant bacteria strains are becoming more common due to the overuse of antibiotics/ constant change in environment for the bacteria
2) a random mutation in a bacteria population arises so that some individuals have alleles which give them antibiotic resistance - it is an advantageous allele as the presence of antibiotics is a selection pressure/circumstances mean the mutation is advantageous
3) bacteria with this mutation are more likely to survive and undergo binary fission with less competition when exposed to an antibiotic
4) advantageous allele is passed on to offspring
5) most bacteria without the resistance mutation die
6) over generations, this leads to an increase in the frequency of beneficial allele that produces antibiotic resistance
7) the populations normal distribution shifts in the direction of a population having a greater antibiotic resistance
8) with continued use of antibiotics, there is a greater chance that the mutant population will out-compete and replace the original population as this puts directional selection pressure on the bacterial population
73
describe stabilising selection, exemplified by human birth weights (7)
1) humans have a range of birth weights
2) very small babies are less likely to survive - partly because they find it hard to maintain their body temperature
3) giving birth to large babies can be difficult so large babies are less likely to survive too
4) conditions are most favourable for medium sized babies - so weight of human babies tends to shift towards the middle of the range
5) very-low and very-high birth weights are selected against leading to the maintenance of the intermediate birth weights
6) Stabilising selection selects against the extreme phenotypes (high and low birth weights) and selects for the intermediate phenotypes (medium birth weights)
74
explain how a difference in its DNA might lead to an organism having a different appearance and hence the species showing greater genetic diversity (2)
1) change in the base sequence of DNA could change the primary structure of the protein
2) leading to the protein having different characteristics as it forms different hydrogen bonds.
75
outline the founder effect as a cause of reductions in genetic variation (3)
1) founder effect is when a small number of individuals colonise a new area
2) the new individuals contain a small proportion of the total alleles
3) and so the resulting population will display reduced genetic diversity
76
what is a genetic bottleneck and what role does it play in reduced genetic variation? (2)
1) genetic bottleneck occurs if a population is suddenly and significantly reduced by a catastrophic event
2) the survivors and subsequent population will possess fewer alleles and display reduced genetic diversity
77
_____ ______ will also cause reduction in genetic variation
artificial selection/ selective breeding
78
what are selection pressures? what do they affect? (2)
1) environmental factors that affect the chance of survival of an organism
2) these selection pressures can have different effects on the allele frequencies of a population through natural selection
79
what is stabilising selection? (3)
1) selection that favours average individuals and preserves the characteristics of a population
2) stabilising selection results in phenotypes around the mean of the population being selected for and those at both extremes being selected against
3) this means things stay as they are unless there is a change in the environment
80
what is directional selection? (2)
1) directional selection is selection that produces a gradual change in allele frequencies over several generations so changes the characteristics of a population
2) this usually happens when there is a change in environment and selection may favour individuals that vary in one direction from the mean of the population
81
what is natural selection? what does this mean? (2)
1) a process where the environment selects individuals with the most advantageous characteristics (produced by alleles) to survive and reproduce
2) because of this, not all alleles are passed on equally to the next generation
82
what is a distribution curve? (2)
1) most characteristics are influenced by more than one gene
2) the effect of the environment on polygenes produces individuals in a population that vary about the mean so have a range of characteristics for that phenotype.
83
what is the difference between discontinuous and continuous data? (2)
1) continuous- to come in a range, or 2) discontinuous- to come in groups.
84
one chromosome has two copies of allele T. What occurs during meiosis which results in only one copy of allele T being present in a gamete?
separation of chromatids
85
define species
a group of organisms that can interbreed to produce fertile offspring
86
what is courtship behaviour necessary for?
courtship behaviour is a necessary precursor to successful mating
87
what is the role of courtship behaviours in classifying species? (4)
1) courtship behaviours are species-specific
2) individuals of the same species will do the same courtship behaviour.
3) only individuals within the same species will respond to the courtship behaviour
4) and so, courtship behaviours are a useful tool for classifying species.
88
exam Q: Give three ways in which courtship behaviour increases the probability of successful mating. (3 marks)
1) recognise/identify/attract same species (fertile offspring produced)
2) allows recognition of individuals who have become able to breed (opposite gender with the correct physiological state)
3) synchronises mating/production/release gametes (maximum probability of gametes meeting and fertilisation to occur);
4) recognition/attraction/finding of mate/opposite sex/gender (sexually mature, fertile, receptive, advantageous characteristics);
5) indication of sexual maturity/fertility/receptivity/ readiness to mate;
6) allows formation of a pair bond between two organisms (to have/raise offspring);
89
exam Q: during courtship, vibration of the wings creates a sound. The sound is different in the two species of fruitfly. Explain how this prevents mating between members of different species (2)
1) (acts as) sign stimulus;
2) responds only to species specific sound.
90
To breed, members of the same species must: (5)
1) recognise members of their own species
2) identify a mate that is capable of breeding (opposite gender, mature and fertile)
3) form a pair bond
4) synchronise/stimulate mating
5) Become able to breed
91
what are the advantages of courtship behaviour?
1) courtship behaviours ensure species and gender recognition
2) ensure receptiveness to mating
3) maintain pair bonds for care of the young, enhancing their survival
92
what is a phylogenetic classification system? (2)
1) attempts to arrange species into groups
2) based on their evolutionary origins and relationships
93
name the 8 groups in the classification hierarchy, from largest to smallest
one hierarchy compromises the taxa:
Domain
Kingdom
Phylum
Class
Order
Family
Genus
Species
94
what system is used to give species a universal name?
Each species is universally identified by a binomial naming system consisting of the name of its genus and species, eg, Homo sapiens.
95
what are the 2 components to a binomial name? give an example (3)
1) generic name- the genus the organism belongs to, 2 closely related species will share the same genus
2) specific name- the species the organism belongs to
3) e.g Canis (genus) lupus (species)
96
how are binomial names written?
1) first letter of generic name should be capitalised with the rest in capitals
2) the whole name should be underlined/italicised
97
how can we clarify evolutionary relationships between organisms
1) analyse their molecular differences
2) advances in immunology/ genome sequencing provide clear pictures of how related organisms are
98
what does a phylogenetic/ hierarchical classification system use? (2)
1) it uses a hierarchy in which smaller groups are placed within larger groups, with no overlap between groups.
2) each group is called a taxon (plural taxa) which reflects the shared ancestry of its members
99
what can biodiversity include?
Biodiversity can relate to a range of habitats, from a small local
habitat to the Earth.
100
what is species richness?
species richness is a measure of the number of different species in a community.
101
what is index of diversity? (2)
1) index of diversity describes the relationship between the number of species in a community and the number of individuals in each species.
2) it is a measure of species diversity
102
Calculation of an index of diversity (d) from the formula
d= N(N-1)/ £n(n-1)
N = total number of organisms of all species
n= total number of organisms of each species
the larger the value for d, the greater the species diversity (1 lowest-10 highest)
103
how do farming techniques reduce biodiversity? (5)
1) destruction of hedgerows (habitats for small mammals/insects)
2) selective breeding (when plants/ animals with desirable characteristics are always chose to breed. narrows gene pool + reduces bio diversity)
3) monocultures (only growing 1 plant species in an entire field, only attracts same insects, lower diversity)
4) overgrazing
5)
104
how can there be a balance between conservation and farming? (5)
1) farming has to exist with human population increasing
2) compromise to conserve biodiversity but also enable farming
3) agreement to remove certain amount of hedgerows but not all of them
4) only selectively breed some species not all/ only do in a certain area
5) crop rotations for monocultures where farmers rotate crop each year or have sections or rows within the field of different species of plants
