Genetics/Embryology Flashcards

1
Q

Pleiotropy

A
  • Instances where multiple, seemingly unrelated phenotypic manifestations, often in different organ systems, result from a single genetic mutation
  • Exhibited by most syndromic genetic illnesses
  • Such as homocystinuria
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2
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Homocystinuria?

A
  • Autosomal recessive mutation
  • Due to Cystathionine Synthetase deficiency
  • Unable to form Cystathione from Homocysteine
  • Methionine is unable to be converted to homocysteine and then to Cysteine
  • Cysteine becomes essential amino acid
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3
Q

What are the clinical findings in Homocystinuria?

A
  • Optic lens dislocation (Ectopia Lentis)
  • Intellectual disability
  • Marfanoid habitus
  • Thromboembolic complications
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4
Q

How do you diagnose Homocystinuria?

A

Increased plasma and urinary homocystine levels

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5
Q

What is the treatment for Homocystinuria?

A
  • Pyridoxine (B6) administration

- Dietary methionine restriction & cysteine supplementation

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6
Q

What causes Patau syndrome?

A
  • Trisomy 13
  • Karyotype 47, XX
  • Results from meiotic nondisjunction or failure of chromosomal separation during meiosis.
  • Causes inheritance of a chromosome pair from one parent rather than a single chromatid
  • Maternal age >35 increases oocyte division abnormality
  • Most die in utero, only 5% survive after birth
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7
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Patau syndrome?

A
  • Defect in the fusion of the prechordal mesoderm

- Affects the growth of the mid face, eyes and forebrain

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8
Q

Physical presentation of Patau syndrome?

A

Catastrophic midline defects including:

  • Holoprosencephaly
  • Microcephaly
  • Microphthalmia
  • Cleft lip/palate
  • Omphalocele
  • Abnormal brain development results in intellectual disability and seizures
  • Polydactyly and cutis aplasia are other findings
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9
Q

Turner Syndrome

A
  • 45, X karyotype
  • Due to loss of paternal X chromosome
  • Neonates have lymphedema and cystic hygroma due to coarctation of the aorta.
  • Short stature, primary amenorrhea, bicuspid aortic valve, horseshoe kidney, webbed neck, broad chest and widely spaced nipples are other features
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10
Q

Holoprosencephaly

A

Embryology
- Incomplete division of the forebrain (prosencephalon) into two hemispheres
Etiologies
- Genetic causes are trisomy 13 or sonic hedgehog mutations
- Environmental causes are maternal alcohol use
Clinical features
- Leads to developmental field defect
- Mild: closely set eyes (hypotelorism), cleft lip/palate
- Severe: single midline eye (cyclopia), primitive nasal structure (proboscis), midfacial clefts

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11
Q

When does cleavage of the prosencephalon into the telencephalon and diencephalon normally occur?

A

5 weeks gestation

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12
Q

What is developmental field defect?

A

When an initial embryonic disturbance leads to multiple malformations by disrupting the development of adjacent tissues and structures within a region

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13
Q

Edwards Syndrome

A
  • Trisomy 18
  • Due to meiotic nondisjunction
  • Karyotype 47, XX
  • Increased risk due to maternal age >35
  • Micrognathia, low set ears, prominent occiput and rocker bottom feet
  • Significant hypertonia, clenched hands with overlapping fingers,
  • Cardiac anomalies include ventricular septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus
  • Genitourinary symptoms include horsehoe kidney
  • GI anomalies include meckel’s diverticulum or malrotation
  • Prenatal ultrasound may show restricted growth
  • Most die in utero and some live up to 2 years
  • Surviving patients have severe intellectual disability
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14
Q

What is Cri-du-chat syndrome?

A
  • Due to 5p deletion
  • Presents with weak cat-like cry
  • Hypotonia, failure to thrive and developmental delay
  • Phenotypic features include microcephaly, low set ears, hypertelorism (long orbit distance) and broad nasal bridge
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15
Q

What is DiGeorge syndrome?

A
  • Due to 22q11 deletion
  • Aortic arch anomalies
  • Thymic hypoplasia/aplasia
  • Hypocalcemia (parathyroid gland underdevelopment)
  • Hypertelorism, low set ears, micrognathia and cleft palate
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16
Q

Down syndrome

A
  • Trisomy 21
  • Most common autosomal trisomy
  • Classic findings are flat facial profile, upslanting palpebral fissures, low set small ears, single transverse palmar crease and hypotonia
17
Q

Infant with oral thrush, interstitial pneumonia and severe lymphopenia during the first year of life is consistent with what?

A

Vertical transmission of HIV-1

18
Q

What is the risk of HIV infection in infant born to an HIV-positive mother who received no prenatal antiretroviral therapy (ART) vs one that received ART?

A

35% vs 1-2%

19
Q

Which ART should be avoided due to teratogenic risks?

A

Efavirenz in first 8 weeks

20
Q

What is heteroplasmy? And how is it explained?

A
  • When some cells have completely healthy mitochondria and others contain mitochondria affected by genetic mutation
  • Explained by the random distribution of normal and mutated mitochondria between daughter cells during mitosis
21
Q

The dorsal pancreatic bud forms the _____, _____, _____ and _____.

A

Tail, body, head and accessory pancreatic duct

22
Q

The small ventral pancreatic bud forms the _____, _____ and the _____.

A

uncinate process, part of the head and the proximal portion of the main pancreatic duct

23
Q

What is pancreatic divisium?

What are the signs?

A
  • When the dorsal and ventral parts fail to fuse at 8 weeks gestation
  • Asymptomatic but may cause chronic abdominal pain and/or pancreatitis.