Genetics SSN 2 Flashcards

(84 cards)

1
Q

oocytes formed as

A

fetus

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2
Q

female meiotic prophase at

A

14 weeks gestation

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3
Q

first meiotic division stops at ____, resumes/completes at ovulatoin

A

diplotene (when homologs repel)

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4
Q

meiosis II happens after

A

fertilization

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5
Q

Chromosomes 13, 14, 15, 21, 22

A

acrocentric (look one-armed)

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6
Q

Chromosomes 1,9,16, Y

A

heterochromatic region (tightly coiled, polymorphic)

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7
Q

repeats of ribosomal genes, polymorphic, acrocentric

A

satellite region

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8
Q

repeated info in the centromere

A

alpha satelite

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9
Q

repeated info just next to centromere

A

classical satellite

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10
Q

first unique sequence just next to telomere

A

telomeric sequences

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11
Q

large region colored (unique gene sequences)

A

repeated region

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12
Q

visually compares sample DNA to control DNA

A

CGH: comparative genomic hybridization

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13
Q

noninvasive prenatal testing

A

sample fetal DNA in maternal blood

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14
Q

copy DNA using normal and dideoxynucleotides, ddn are marker and tell you last nucleotide in sequence

A

sanger sequencing

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15
Q

characterized by expansion of a CGG triplet repeat in the first exon of the FMR-1 gene on the long arm of the X chromosome

A

fragile X syndrome

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16
Q

usually involve acrocentric chromosomes, which cluster together during meiosis.

A

robertsonian translocations

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17
Q

effects number of copies of all chromosomes

A

-ploidy

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18
Q

effects number of copies of individual chromosomes

A

-somy

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19
Q

most common genetic anomaly in still-births, 10% one year survival

A

Trisomy 18

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20
Q

brushfield spots, GI obstruction, Alzheimer’s

A

additional complications of Down syndrom

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21
Q

only mild sterility, learning disabilities with speech

A

triple X

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22
Q

tall, thin, slight IQ reduction, low testosterone, sterile, breast growth

A

Klinefelter XXY

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23
Q

tall, acne, mild IQ reduction, no aggression increase

A

Klinefelter XYY

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24
Q

Greek warrior helmet

A

4p deletion Wolf Hirschhorn

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25
Wolf Hirschorn and Cri du Chat are
partial deletions
26
Prader-Willi, Angelman, Williams, DiGeorge are
microdeletions (<1Mbp)
27
Paternal copy of 15q11.2 deleted
Prader-Willi
28
Maternal copy of 15q11.2 deleted
Angelman
29
Chromosome 7 microdeletion
Williams
30
Chromosome 22 microdeletion
DiGeorge
31
translocation where an acrosome is lost
robertsonian
32
When the information in region 15q11-q13 is derived only from a mother (either via uniparental disomy (both chromosomes from a single parent) or deletion on the paternal chromosome
Prader-Willi syndrome (the maternally imprinted chromosome is unable to express its genetic information )
33
consists mainly of a satellite and a thin stalk, containing multiple copies of genes encoding ribosomal RNAs
short arm of an acrocentric chromosome
34
therapies that increase fetal hemoglobin may help these patients
Sickle-cell
35
both forms of hemophilia B are
promoter mutations
36
triplet that increases in earlier onset Huntingtons
CAG
37
genetic variations present at a particular locus
allele
38
deletions of alpha chain hemoglobin, 2 genes per chromosome, more deletions, more severe phenotype
alpha thalessemia
39
large population, random mating, no selection, mutation rate is constant, no im/emigration
Hardy-Weinberg assumptions
40
Heterozygote advantage of the AS genotype manifests as
better resistance to malaria
41
one locus, multiple normal alleles
polymorphism
42
when calculating odds of AR transmission, don't forget
times one-half per parent (odds they will pass it)
43
different mutations in the SAME GENE cause similar phenotypes
allelic heterogeneity
44
different mutations in the SAME GENE cause different phenotypes
phenotypic heterogeneity
45
different mutations in DIFFERENT GENES cause same phenotype
locus heterogeneity
46
incomplete penetrance, variable expressivity, de novo mutation, germline mosaicism
AD pedigree problems
47
Known, micro: polymorphisms, insertions, deletions, NO heterozygotes
PCR
48
known, micro: deletions in heterozygotes
MLPA
49
known, macro: large scale deletions (>100bp)
Southern Blot
50
unknown, micro: determines sequence, NO short tandem repeats or copy-number variation
genome sequencing
51
unknown, micro: finds disease-causing genes, but stats may not be clinically useful (may identify marker, not gene of cause)
GWAS (Manhattan plots)
52
unknown, macro: detects chromosome-level changes such as copy number variation, NO <1 Mb
CGH (comparing sick and health genomes)
53
mRNA expressiong heatmapping, gene expression profile (cancer), BUT destroys architecture, can't distinguish if expression is tumor cell or other cell
microarray
54
stains mRNA in tissue, can see gene expression in intact cells, but only a few at a time
RNA in situ hybridization
55
use antibody probe to determine if protein is being expressed, is right size, but destroys architecture
western blot
56
stain for protein with architecture intact, but can't detect protein size
immunocytochemistry
57
sequence of 1-6 bps repeated many times
short tandem repeat (microsatellite)
58
sequence of 10-100bps repeated many times
variable tandem repeat (minisatellite)
59
good for CNVs but not microsatellites
array CGH. Use PCR and Sanger sequencing instead
60
detected with Guthrie assay (extra Phe on sample leads to bacterial growth)
PKU
61
detected with tandem mass spectrometry, avoid fasting!
MCADD
62
helps you rule out a disease
sensitivity (SNOUT)
63
helps you rule in a disease
specificity (SPIN)
64
methylation in a promoter region causes
DNA silencing
65
acetylation in a promoter region causes
increased DNA expression
66
still expressed on inactive X, helps to shut the X down
Xist
67
Mom wants it off, dad wants it on
Gene IGF2 (chromosome 11)
68
Mom wants it on, dad wants it off
Gene H19 (chromosome 11)
69
Oops, Mom turned IGF2 on (H19 normal)
Beckwith-Wiedemann: big baby
70
Oops, Dad turned on H19 (IGF2 normal)
Russell-Silver: small baby
71
imprinting diseases with epimutations
Russel-Silver, Beckwith-Weidman
72
imprinting diseases with real mutations
Prader-Willi, Angelman
73
mother's allele is normally off (chromosome 15)
Prader-willi (need to get from dad)
74
father's allele is normally off (chromosome 15)
Angelman (need to get from mom)
75
will have more methylation (which inactivates gene expression) and less acetylation (which activates gene expression)
inactive X chromosome
76
growth restricted genes are imprinted by
dad (to imprint=to turn OFF)
77
if monozygotic twins share a trait more often than dizigotic twins, that trait is
heritable
78
two genes segregate together due to proximity; one SNP is used to score a refion
linkage disequilibrium
79
under certain enviromental conditions, one genotype's phenotype resembles another
phenocopy
80
different genes causing same phenotype (early and late onset Alzheimer's, 18 genes responsible for cilia defects in Bardet-Beidl phenotype)
Genetic heterogeneity
81
smoking worsens prognosis in
alpha1 anti-trypsin disorder
82
In OI, missense mutation in α1 can lead to qualitative abnormalities in
¾ of type 1 collagen strands. Because of there are 2 α1 strands and 1 α2 strand in each collagen fibril, a mutation in α1 will cause defects in ¾ of the fibrils
83
The treatment for this condition is prenatal administration of cortisol, which prevents excess androgen production
congential adrenal hyperplasia
84
correct gene defects by gene addition, contain RNA
lentivirus vectors