Genral Flashcards

1
Q

What is the treatment used in medical abortion and what are the time frames for doing so?

A

Up to 9 weeks: 200mg mifepristone orally followed by 800mcg misoprostol vaginally/sublingually.

Over 9 up to 13+6: 200mg mifepristone orally followed by 800mcg misoprostol vaginally/sublingually, then 400mcg every 3 hours until abortion occurs.

Always offer analgesia

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2
Q

What surgical abortion methods are used. When are they used? What are the risks?

A

Vacuum aspiration with large bore cannulae or dilation and evacuation.

Used greater than 14 weeks.

Uterine rupture
Bleeding requiring transfusion
Cervical damage.
Future scarring and infertility.
Infection - UTI give you some antibiotics - doxycycline
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3
Q

Reasons for termination of pregnancy.

A

A - risk to mothers life.
B - prevent grave permanent injury to mothers physical or mental health.
C - prevent risk of injury to physical or mental health of mother (24wk)
D - prevent risk to existing child(ren) of the family.(24wk)
E - child born would suffer from handicap
F - emergency save mothers life.
G - emergency prevent grave danger

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4
Q

Recommended dose of aspirin for PIH

A

75mg OD low dose aspirin. FROM 12weeks. Until birth
Risk factors : t2DM, CKD, hypertensive disease in previous preg, autoimmune disorders.

Greater than 140 s or 90 d or increase above booking of 30 s or 15 d

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5
Q

3 anti emetics used in pregnancy

A

Cyclizine
Metoclopramide
Prochlorperazine

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6
Q

Safest anti- epileptics in pregnancy

A

Lamotrigene
Carbimazepine

Valproate is causes neural tube and craniofacial defects.

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7
Q

Hyperthyroidism treated with?

A

Propylthiouracil is preferred to carbimazole as less likely to cross placenta

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8
Q

Which antihypertensives should not be used in pregnancy? Why?

A

Ace inhibitors as causes renal dysgenesis and craniofacial abnormalities

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9
Q

When shouldn’t certain UTI antibiotics be used?

A

Don’t use trimethoprim in first trimester due to being a folic acid antagonist
Don’t use nitrofurantoin in third trimester due to neonatal haemolysis

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10
Q

what is the cut off for anaemia in pregnancy

A

1st T: 110
2nd/3rd T: 105
post: 100

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11
Q

When would you consider giving parenteral iron

A

when oral iron is not tolerated or there is no time before delivery.

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12
Q

Do you need bleeding to diagnose abruption

A

no - oly 80 percent of cases

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13
Q

What are the risk factors for abruption

A
age(increasing)
smoking
cocaine or other drug use
maternal hypertension
trauma
previous abruption
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14
Q

How do you manage PID

A

Test for chlamydia and gonnorhoea
treat with antibiotics - empirically if severe and suspicions are high
remove intrauterine devices unless very mild.

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15
Q

what are the main complications with PID?

A
10-20% after single episode.
chronic pelvic pain
ectopic
fitz hugh curtis syndrome
peritonitis
reactive arthiritis
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16
Q

What is the cutoff for antepartum haemorrhage?

A

after 24 weeks is classes as APH

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17
Q

when can you get placenta praevia

A

only in 3rd trimester?

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18
Q

What is the management of uterine fibroids

A

1st - IUS
2nd Tranexamic acid
3rd OCP
4th myomectomy/ hysteroscopic endometrial ablation

GnRh agonist may be used in the short term to shrink fibroids - typically before surgery

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19
Q

When in hyperemesis most common

A

8 - 12 weeks but may be upto 20 weeks

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20
Q

What are the associations of HG

A
nulliparity
obesity
multip
trophoblastic disease
hyperthyroidism
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21
Q

What are the treatment options for HG

A

antihistamine - promethazine or cyclazine(also anticholinergic)
can advise p6 pressure point - but little evidence.
admission for IV hydration

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22
Q

What are the complications of HG

A
Wernickes encephalopathy - hence giving pabrinex
Mallory weiss tear
central pontine myelinolysis
ATN
small for dates
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23
Q

What is the management in primary genital herpes infection within 6 weeks of delivery.

A

oral acyclovir should be given to any infection after 36 weeks and any primary infection within 6 weeks of delivery.

c section should be for anyone with primary infection over 28 weeks

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24
Q

what is the treatment for BV

A

oral metronidazole

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25
trichomonas vaginalis treatment (TV)
Oral metronidazle
26
what do you see on BV histology
clue cells and stippled vaginal epithelial cells
27
TV symptoms
``` green/yellow frothy discharge vulvovaginitis strawberry cervix (rare) ```
28
gonnorhoea treatment
IM ceftriaxone + oral azithromycin
29
What is the difference betweena complex and a simple ovarian cyst?
simple - unilocular - usually benign | complex - multilocular (
30
What are the 4 causes of PPH
Tone - atony 90% Tissue - retained products Trauma - tears Thrombin - coagualtion
31
How much blood counts as PPh
>500ml
32
What is the management of primary PPH
ABC IV syntocinon 10 units or ergometrine 500micrograms IM carboprost stitchign and ligation
33
what is a rokitansky nodule
outgrowth of contents of a mature terratoma - dermoid cyst.
34
What is the natural course of a corpus luteal cyst in pregnancy
involute in second trimester
35
at how many weeks does the blood pressure trough during pregnancy
20-24
36
how long does it take PIH to resolve?
around 1 month
37
What are the high risk groups which require aspirin in pregnancy? what does should be given?
``` 75mg OD from 12 weeks Diabetes previous PIH or preecalmpspia CKD autoimmune disease such as SLE ```
38
At what age is menopausal symptoms with elevated gonadotrophins considered premature ovarian failure
before 40
39
Quantify the breast cancer risk with HRT
~1.25x @5 years breast cancer higher if progestogen added risk declines and return to normal after 5 years when stopped taking and is equal to someone who did not take HRT
40
test for chlamydia
first void urine sample for NAAT
41
What are the risk factors for placenta praevia
previous praevia previous c section (implantation on lower segement scar multiple pregnancy multiparity
42
danazol usage
used to treat endometriosis is an ethisterone derivative but will not prevent implantation. can also be used in fibrocystic change of the breast
43
why wont the COCP help someone after UPSI
because it prevents ovulation rather than implantation
44
upto how many hours is leveonogestrel lisenced?
72 hours but work upto 120 unlicensed.
45
What is the pearl index?
The Pearl Index is the most common technique used to describe the efficacy of a method of contraception. The Pearl Index describes the number of pregnancies that would be seen if one hundred women were to use the contraceptive method in question for one year. Therefore in the question, assuming the Pearl Index is 0.2 and the medication is adhered to perfectly, we would expect to see 0.2 pregnancies for every hundred women using the pill for one year - or 2 for every thousand.
46
When should you give Magnesium sulphate
rarely required to stop current fit as usually resolve. howver if a decision has been made to deliver the foetus then it should be given with: Loading dose: Magnesium Sulphate 4 grams  8mls of MgSO4 (50%) diluted with 12mls Normal Saline (0.9%) = Total 20mls  Give IV over 20 minutes using syringe driver rate of 60 mls/hour Maintenance dose: Magnesium Sulphate 1 gram per hour  20mls MgSO4 (10 gms) diluted with 30mls Normal Saline (0.9%) = Total 50mls  Give IV using syringe driver at rate of 5mls/hour Recurrent seizures whilst on Magnesium Sulphate  Further bolus of 4mls MgSO4 (2 gms) diluted with 6mls Normal Saline (0.9%) Give IV over 5 minutes  If possible take blood for Magnesium levels before bolus  Notify Obstetric and Anaesthetic Consultants
47
is trimethoprim safe in pregnancy
yes
48
What is the normal dose of folic acid
400mcg
49
What is the high risk dose of folic acid, when shoulkd it be taken until, and who needs to take it?
``` 5mg taken upto 12th week risk factors: them or partner or family history of NTD have coeliac, diabetes, thalasaemia, taking antiepileptics Obese - >30kg/m2 ```
50
When should contraception be stopped in menopause
after 1 year of no periods with women over 50, and after 2 years in those under 50
51
Which contraceptives must be withdrawn at 50
oestrogen containing | depot provera
52
use of contraception with beginning HRT
POP cannot be relied upon to protect the uterus from cancer risk with HRT unless HRT contains a progestogen component too. The IUS however does provide this protection.
53
define a late deceleration
Deceleration of the heart rate which lags the onset of a contraction and does not returns to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction Indicates fetal distress e.g. asphyxia or placental insufficiency
54
define variable decelleration
Independent of contractions | May indicate cord compression
55
What is the usual dose of levonogestrel for emergancy contraception
1.5mg. repeat dose if vomiting within 2 hours
56
what are the anatomical sections of the fallopian tube? which is most likely to be the site of an ectopic? same as fertilisation place
fimbriae 10% infundibulum ampulla 65% isthmus 11%
57
most common POP complaint/side effect?
Women should be advised about the likelihood and types of bleeding patterns expected with POP use. As a general guide: 20% of women will be amenorrhoeic 40% will bleed regularly 40% will have erratic bleeding. Between 10% and 25% of women using a POP will discontinue this method within 1 year as a result of these bleeding patterns.
58
What is the management of shoulder dystocia
mcroberts episiotomy manual manipulatin and manoevres including mood screw syphisiotomy
59
What is an amniotic fluid embolism and how does it present:
amniotic fluid embolism usually occur during or within 30 minutes of labour. Respiratory distress, hypoxia, and hypotension is a diagnosis of exclusion - can be differentiated from intracranial haemorrhage by lack of headache. it should be managed in ITU
60
Who should be traced in a chlamydial infection
partners in the last 6 months or most recent partner - they should be offered treatment beofer getting test results.
61
Causes of secondary post partum haemorrhage
endometritis retained products of concenption occurs 24hrs - 12 weeks (recent change from 6)
62
what are the causes of puerperal pyrexia
``` endometritis UTI wound infection (tears or csection) mastitis VTE ```
63
what is the management of endometritis
Hospital for IVabx - clindamycin and Gent
64
Are steroids safe in breastfeeding
yes
65
How do yo umanage breech
upto 36 weeks nothing then ECV offered to nulliparous at 36 weeks and multiparous at 37 weeks most opt for c sectin if still breech
66
What should be done at birth of a baby to a rhesus negative mother
``` Cord blood taken FBC Blood group Coombs test kleihauer test ```
67
What are the sensitising events of rhesus disease?
delivery of a Rh +ve infant, whether live or stillborn any termination of pregnancy miscarriage if gestation is > 12 weeks ectopic pregnancy (if managed surgically, if managed medically with methotrexate anti-D is not required) external cephalic version antepartum haemorrhage amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, fetal blood sampling
68
what percentage of mothers are rhesus negative
15%
69
when are normal doses of anti D given
either single at 28 or double at 28 and 34
70
What is the contraindication to IUD
suspected PID - those at high risk should be screened first for infection. The IUD may cause PID
71
what is ashermans syndrome
Adhesions and fibrosis of the endometrium - often a complication of ERPC or curretage
72
What are the causes of secondary amenhorrhoea
``` Pregnancy Hypothalamic - stress and exercise Premature ovarian failure thyroid dysfunction sheehans prolactinoma PCOS ashermans ```
73
What are the risk factors for POM (premature ovarian failure)
family history of POM Chemo/radiation autoimmune disease
74
Who gets fibroids
20% white and 50% black women after menopause Rare before puberty as they are a response to oestrogen
75
what is microgynon 30
COCP
76
How long does it take for each contraceptive to become effective?
Instant: IUD 2Days: POP 7 Days: COCP, IUS, implant, injection. Unless on first day of cycle.
77
When should you start the COCP
ideally in the first 5 days of the period and it will be effective instantly. if not then 7 days are required till it is effective.
78
which antibiotics can reduce the efficacy of COCP?
only enzyme inducing antibiotics
79
how should a UTI be treated the first trimester
NOT with trimethoprim. use nitrofurantoin (not in third trimester - neonatal haemolysis)
80
What is a missed miscarriage
gestational sac which contains a dead fetus before 20 weeks without the symptoms of expulsion mother may have light vaginal bleeding / discharge and the symptoms of pregnancy which disappear. Pain is not usually a feature cervical os is closed when the gestational sac is > 25 mm and no embryonic/fetal part can be seen it is sometimes described as a 'blighted ovum' or 'anembryonic pregnancy'
81
what is the difference between in inevitable and incomplete miscarriage
idea that incomplete, the body is unable to expel the remaining content and will require erpc.
82
symptoms of a hydatiform mole
high hcg causing HG thyrotoxicosis due to stimulation of TSH R usually large for dates bleeding in 1st or early 2nd trimester
83
what percentage of hydatiform moles go on to become choriocarcinoma
2-3%
84
what is the management of a hydatiform mole
referral to specialist centre for removal | contraception for 1 year - do not get preggerz
85
What percentage of CIN3 becomes cancer
31%
86
What is a nexplanon
implant
87
what are the common side effects of progestogens
headache nausea breast pain
88
Which UKMEC levels should you worry about
4 - DO NOT use 3 - not worth the risk 2 - small risk but usually safe
89
When is the implant contraindicated
ACTIVE BREAST CA previous breast ca, liver cirrhosis, heart disease or stroke. antiphospholipid antibodies
90
What place does MRI have in endometriosis
can help with diagnosis if bowel symptoms and rectal involvement
91
What do you measure to test a womans fertility
day 21 progesterone. | the corpus luteum should have produced a day 21 surge in progesterone. telling you that the patient has ovulated.
92
How should you NOT manage an ectopic
do not palpate for adnexal mass as increases risk of rupture
93
what are the absolute contraindications to VBAC
classical scar and previous uterine rupture.
94
How do you define recurrent miscarriages and what are the most common causes?
anyone with 3 spontaneous miscarriages ``` Antiphospholipid antibodies 15% Poorly controlled endocrine disorders e.g DM, PCOS, thyroid Uterine abnormality e.g septum parental gene abnormality smoking ```
95
what is antiphospholipid syndrome
causes increased clotting risk - antibodies to fat
96
What stage of disease do endometrial cancers usually present with?
stage 1 - treated with a hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. Radiotherapy is often used more than chemo. and routine removal of lymph nodes is not helpful
97
ovarian FIGO
Stage 1 Tumour confined to ovary Stage 2 Tumour outside ovary but within pelvis Stage 3 Tumour outside pelvic but within abdomen Stage 4 Distant metastasis
98
what diabetic drugs are safe in pregnancy
metformin and insulin and then second line instead of metformin you can use glibenclamide. you cannot use gliclazide or liraglutide.
99
Who needs to undergo peak monitoring of LMWH levels?
under 50kg and over 90kg women. Monitor anti Xa activity
100
VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy
``` Age > 35 Body mass index > 30 Parity > 3 Smoker Gross varicose veins Current pre-eclampsia Immobility Family history of unprovoked VTE Low risk thrombophilia Multiple pregnancy IVF pregnancy ``` Four or more risk factors warrants immediate treatment with low molecular weight heparin continued until six weeks postnatal. If a woman has three risk factors low molecular weight heparin should be initiated from 28 weeks and continued until six weeks postnatal. Low molecular weight heparin is the treatment of choice for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy.
101
What is klaxons syndrome
failure to produce GnRH - primary amenorrhoea
102
what is primary amenhorrhoea defined as
failure to start menses by age of 16 - HOWEVER you should start workup if there is no change by 13. secondary must have had 6 months of periods before stopping to count
103
What are the symptoms of imperforate hymen
blue bulging membrane with cyclical pain and no bleeding
104
what is mullerian agenesis
absence of internal female organs. only external genitalia
105
When can you identify twin to twin transfusion syndrome
monochorionic twins shared placenta means there is blood flow between the twins. can be fatal to one or both. polyhydramnios and oligohydramnios it is identified between 16 and 24 weeks. after this time you are scanning for IUGR
106
Management of PCOS in conception
weight loss clomiphene metformin ovarian drilling then try above again
107
What is the difference between a complete and partial hydatidiform mole
Complete: 46 chromasomes all from the father Partial: 69 chromasomes XXX or XXY
108
What is the treatment for urge incontinence
bladder retraining for atlas 6 weeks | medical management including antimuscarinics oxybutinin(avoid in older frail) or tolterodine
109
What is the surgery of stress incontinence
retropubic mid urethral tape procedures
110
what is the most common cause of postcoital bleeding
ectropian
111
how many antenatal visits should a woman have
10 if first and 7 if more (uncomplicated)
112
Which children are at risk of vitamin k deficient bleesing
BREASTFED. need vit k at birth.
113
How does chorioamnionitis present
brown fould smell9ing discharge with fever, tachy etc, may have raised fetal heart rate
114
when does red degeneration usually happen?
1st or second trimester and presents with fever pain and maybe vomiting
115
management of chorioamnionitis
IV abx and delivery
116
When are you in second stage of labour
when the cervix is fully dilated - this process will take about an hour and is associated with transient foetal bradycardia
117
what is lochia
Lochia may be defined as the vaginal discharge containing blood mucous and uterine tissue which may continue for 6 weeks after childbirth. Lochia typically takes the course of fresh bleeding, which undergoes colour changes before finally stopping. The patient can be reassured and advice should be given to her regarding lochia. Specifically, she should be told that if this begins to smell badly, its volume increases or it doesn't stop, she should seek medical help
118
which blood products need to be crossmatched
all except platelets
119
what is cryoprecipitate
essentially clotting factors
120
What is the management of DIC
Clotting studies and a platelet count should be urgently requested and advice from a haematologist sought. Up to 4 units of FFP and 10 units of cryoprecipitate may be given whilst awaiting the results of the coagulation studies.'
121
What is in SAG-M blood
When plasma taken out it is replaced by saline, mannitol, glucose and adenine. upto 4 units of this can be given before whole blood is preferable.
122
What are the layers cut through to get to the uterus in a c section
``` Superficial fascia Deep fascia Anterior rectus sheath Rectus abdominis muscle Transversalis fascia Extraperitoneal connective tissue Peritoneum Uterus ```
123
what are the risks of prematurity
``` Risk of prematurity increased mortality depends on gestation respiratory distress syndrome intraventricular haemorrhage necrotizing enterocolitis chronic lung disease, hypothermia, feeding problems, infection, jaundice retinopathy of newborn, hearing problems ```
124
what drugs should be used in peurperal depression and why?
paroxitine because it has low availibility in the breast milk Fluoxetine should be avoided as it has a long half life CBT is th first line treatment still as this disease is likely to peak at 3 months
125
braxton higgs
occur in the last 4 weeks, irregular and may be spaced at 20 mins
126
What are the risk factors for cord prolapse
``` prematurity multiparity polyhydramnios twin pregnancy cephalopelvic disproportion abnormal presentations e.g. Breech, transverse lie placenta praevia long umbilical cord high fetal station ```
127
How should a cord prolapse be managed
push presenting part back into the uterus administer tocolytics patient to get on all fours c section 1 in 500 births but reduced as breech is usually c sectioned now. can deliver a cord prolapse with forceps but requires skill
128
When should you get a mec baby seen by a doc
``` low threshold for abnormalities respiratory rate above 60 per minute the presence of grunting heart rate below 100 or above 160 beats/minute capillary refill time above 3 seconds temperature of 38°C or above, or 37.5°C on 2 occasions 30 minutes apart oxygen saturation below 95% presence of central cyanosis ```
129
what drugs can be used to help with smoking cessation
varenicline and bupropion (neither should be used in pregnancy - NRT)
130
which hepatitis is screening for in pregnancy
hep b
131
what is the target range for blood pressure in pre eclampsia or PIH
<150 systolic and 80-100 diastolic
132
Ace inhibitors - okay in preganancy?
no fetotoxic
133
contraindications to ergometrine
hypertension - use oxytocin
134
What does a bishops score of 5 or less
labour is unlikely to progess without induction
135
at how many weeks should an uncomplicated pregnancy be offered induction
41-42 weeks
136
at how many weeks should diabetic mother be induced
38
137
How should you manage a PPROM
admit for 48 hours, and give antibiotics and steroids safety net with regular temperature reading s and signs of chorio. ABX = erythro for 10 days at 34 weeks consider induction as likely that risk of infection outweighs risk of delivery
138
What drug is used in the management of OC
ursodeoxycholic acid
139
what are the risks of OC
IUD - induced at 37 | prem babies
140
What is one of the most severe risks of an instrumental delivery
Femoral nerve Weakness in knee extension, loss of the patella reflex, numbness of the thigh Lumbosacral trunk Weakness in ankle dorsiflexion, numbness of the calf and foot Sciatic nerve Weakness in knee flexion and foot movements, pain and numbness from gluteal region to ankle Obturator nerve Weakness in hip adduction, numbness over the medial thigh most recover within 6 week sbut some are permanent
141
contraindications to epidural
``` Coagulopathy: APTT ratio or INR >1.4 Platelet count < 100 Low molecular weight heparin (e.g. Enoxaparin, Clexane) given within last 12 hours if on prophylactic dosing (20 or 40mg) or within last 24 hours if on therapeutic dosing (>40mg) Clopidogrel given within the last 7 days ``` Local sepsis
142
what vaccinations should be offered in pregnancy and when?
Influenza - to all pregnant in the flu season regardless of trimester (october to january) pertussus - ideally given at 28-32 but can be given upto 38. it should be given in every pregancy there is no individual pertussus vaccine so it is given with diptheria, polio and tetanus. rubella should be offered if the individual is not immune. - it is not a live vaccine
143
Late decellerations should be investigated how?
fetal blood sampling to measure a pH - >7.2
144
What is placenta accreta? what are the risk factors?
Attachment of the placenta TO the myometrium due to a defective decidua basalis. (hence why the normal is called placenta decidua) there is a risk of PPH due to improper detachment previous c section or praevia?
145
what are the other placental attachment abnormalities?
17% Increta - IN the myometrium 5% Percreta - PAST the myometrium into uterine serosa and can attach to other organs
146
What measures ofSFH are there?
20 weeks at umbilicus | 36 weeks at xiphisternum
147
is nifedipine contraindicated in breastfeding
no
148
epidural anaesthesia reduced blood pressure and therefore is helpful in pre eclampsia
same day delivery of pre eclampsia is an option from 34 weeks - just as with PPROM etc
149
what is johnsons manoevre
used for inversion of the uterus - slow manual replacement of the uterus. tocolytics can be used to help relax the uterus but this may aggrevate bledding
150
how often do type 1 diabeteics need to measure blood sugard in pregnancy
daily fasting, pre meal, 1 hour post meal, and bed time
151
different types of grade 3 tear
3a: less than 50% of EAS thickness torn 3b: more than 50% of EAS thickness torn 3c: IAS torn fourth degree: injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex (EAS and IAS) and rectal mucosa
152
what is the presentation of chorioamnionitis in the absence of ruptured membranes? what organism causes it?
associated with the genital mycoplasma bacteria foul smelling, maternal signs of infection
153
First steps in managing postnatal depression
Edinburgh score
154
IVF is a risk factor for what
most things praevia
155
which antibiotic should be used in UTI when breastfeeding
trimethoprim - nitro is bad - causes G6PD
156
Guidelines for foetal monitoring in uncomplicated 1st stage
For foetal monitoring: carry out intermittent auscultation immediately after a contraction for at least 1 minute, at least every 15 minutes, and record it as a single rate. Palpate the woman's pulse every 15 minutes to differentiate between the two heart rates. Contraction monitoring every 15 minutes. Strength; during a contraction, you shouldn't be able to indent the uterus with your fingers. Duration; usually 3 or 4 per 10 mins, lasting <1 min each.
157
What are the risks for a child and mother with shoulder dystocia?
Baby: Erbs palsy or other brachial plexus injuries, HIE Mother:3rd degree tear is not episiotomy, PPH, risk recurrence
158
what are the risk factors for a breech presentation?
``` prematurity Praevia fibroids previous breech oligo/polyhydramnios fetal anomalies multiple pregnancy ```
159
What are the benefits of VBAC
decreased risk of foetal respiratory difficulties and decreased maternal fever. can allow better chance of further vaginal deliveries.
160
things which worsen chance of VBAC?
previous c section for shoulder dystocia. Baby >4kg, increasing maternal age and BMI, induction.
161
What are the chances of succesful VBA in someone with 1 single c section? and then also one SVD
75% | 85-90%
162
what is the risk of uterine rupture? what are the oother risks?
1 in 200 increased risk of needing transfusion. HIE 8 in 10,000
163
absolute contraindications to VBAC
classical c section incision
164
Relative contraindications to VBAC
myomectomy or hysterotomy
165
What is the management of HG?
``` USS for reassurance Fluids - plasma-lyte/NACL with KCL20mmol Anti emetics - cyclizine50mgTDS, metoclopramide10mgTDS, Ondansetron4-8mgTDS Vitamins - Pabrinex 1+2, folic acid Stomach protection - ranitidine VTE prophylaxis - enoxaparin 40unitsOD ```
166
what are the indications for admission of HG?
2+ ketones clinical evidence of dehydration intolerance to food and fluid weight loss?
167
What are the complications of HG?
Psychological/ emotional - can effect bonding with baby and have mental health repercussions Wernickes Hyponataemia - seizures respiratory arrest, central pontine myelinolysis mallory weiss tear DVT fetal - SGA, preterm
168
What is the difference between exomphalos and gastroschisis
free loops in gastro and whole protrusion in exomphalos
169
What does glucocorticoid reduce the risk of antenataly?
RDS IVH mortality
170
What 3 markers are used in the triple test
oestroil bHCG AFP
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what markers are used in the combined test
Age NT b hcg PAPP-a
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what is the main difference between amnio and chorionic villous sampling
time at which is can be done. chorio at 13 vs amnio from 16. slightly greater risk of 1-2% miscarriage with chorio.
173
what is the treatment for genitourinary prolapse.
Physio - pelvic floor exercises Pessary lasts 6-12 months fir biggest that isnt uncomforatble - support or space occupying surgery - sacrohysteropexy, sacrocolpopexy
174
Why do spetic children often need FFP
to treat the DIC as is evidenced by their non blanching rash
175
What contraception can be used in breast cancer
IUD. no hormonal contraception is allowed
176
Upto what day do you not need emergancy contraception after child birth
21 you cannot insert the coil until after 28 days anyway due to perf risk
177
What 3(of4) things are needed for diagnosis of BV
``` AMSEL's criteria clue cells ph>4.5 possitive whiff test (additon of potassium hydroxide produced fish smell) thin white homogenous discharge ``` mx oral met for 5-7 days and washing advice relapse rates are high with >50% in 3 months
178
how long after birth should a woman wait to have her cervical smear
atleast 12 weeks
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When should you do a smear test during pregnancy
if there has been a previous abnormal smear then can be done by a specialist as long as there is no praevia
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how do you diagnose a suspected praevia
abdominal uss
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What should be done if a pravia is found on the 16-2 week anomaly scan
rescan at 34 weeks until which time they do not need to limit activity unless they bleed if at 34 there is still grade1/2 then recheck in 2 weeks if there c section should be given for grades 3 and 4 grade 1 is Vaginal delivery
182
Which HRT should be used in the perimenopause
CYCLICAL as this allows for withdrawal bleeds. topical creams and pessaries are only useful to prevent vaginal symptoms
183
What is the management in OHSS
fluid replacement and thromboprophylaxis
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What causes OHSS
hcg, gonadotrophin and clomiphene
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tranexamic acid and mefanamic acid are safe to use in women trying for children?
yes - they must be started on the first day of the period and are taken for 3-4 days
186
What are the chances that a salpingotomy will become a salpingectomy
1 in 5
187
How often can emergancy contraception be used?
once per cycle - can use different type to get around this
188
What things increase the chance of ectropian
higher oestrogen levels: pregnancy, COCP, ovulatory phase of cycle) they may result in features of increased discharge and post coital bleeding can be managed with cold coagulation but only if really causing an issue
189
What is the management of dysmenorrhoea
mefanamic acid
190
What produced hcg
first by the embryo and then by the placental trophoblast levels peak at around 8-10 weeks gestation
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What is the second line treatment for chlamydia
doxy 100mg BD 1/52
192
What is the colour difference of blood in abruption and in praevia
bright red in praevia and dark red in abruption
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What is the difference between a simple and complex cyst
simple - fluid filled | complex - solid
194
At what level of 21-day progesterone would you repeat the test and confirm ovulation?
upto 30 repeat, over means ovulation if lower than 16 likely to need refferal
195
What are the precipitants of thrush
recent antibiotic use immunosuppression it causes a non offensive discharge
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what is the management of thrush
``` pessary of clotrimazole500mg OR oral fluconazole 150mg PO stat OR oral itracnazole 200mgbd 1day ``` Oral agents are not for use in pregnancy consider a maintenance dose each week if the infection is chronic
197
Whirlpool sign
volvulus and ovarian torsion
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What would dopplers show of a torted ovary
no venous flow with absent or reversed diastolic flow
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What is associated with a low and high AFP in pregancny
``` Low = downs High = NT defects ```
200
Treatment for PMS
OCP and SSRI aswell as lifestyle factors such as sleep hygeine, healthy diet, weight and exercise, reduction of stress.
201
What is wertheims hysterectomy
I think it is the same as a radical hysterectomy i.e everything including the upper third of the vagina BUT with resection of pelvic nodes added on. used for stage 2b
202
What is the difference between a subtotal, total, and radical hyseterectomy
subtotal doesnt take the cervix. total takes the cervix Radical takes the surrounding tissue aswell. including parametrium and upper third of the vagina. It hink this may include the ovaries and tubes too?
203
what is the management for lichen sclerosus
Topical steroids and emollient and regular checkup due to increased risk of vulval cancer. NOTE: a biopsy should only be taken if there is clinical uncertaintly or there is a poor response to treatment
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what are the coplications of a hysterectomy
vault prolapse and enterocele may get urinary retention post op for a bit
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How does a degenerating fibroid present and what is the management?
low grade fever, pain and vomiting with reassuring signs of the foetus offer analgesia and rest and it should resolve witin a week.
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What is the triad of symptoms seen in vasa praevia
rupture of membranes with continuous blood but no pain with foetal bradycardai. no risk to the mother but HIGH to the child
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Which is worse for bleedign risk prolonged ventouse or a forceps?
ventouse
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What are the risk factors for a placenta praevia?
previous c sections and multiparity
209
What is the management for hepatitis B in pregnancy?
They may have a vaginal birth as there is no evidence to duggest there is a reduction in vertical transmission with a c section. The child should be given HBIg and a hep b vaccine within 12 hours of birth and then further vaccine at 1-2 months and 6 months.
210
What are the normal changes heard on cardiovascular examination in pregnancy?
an ejection systolic murmur is heard in 96% of women and 84% have a third heart sound. Forceful apex beat is not a cause for concern provided it is still within 2cm of the mid-clavicular line uterus may block blood return to the heart - i.e when lying supine
211
What are the physiological changes in pregnancy affecting the lungs?
tidal volume increases 40% | o2 requirement goes up 20% along with BMR of 15%
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What are the physiological changes in pregnancy affecting the blood?
Factor 7,8 and 10 and fibrinogen rise. blood volume up 30% - 20% red cell rise and 50% plasma rise platelets fall WCC and ESR rise
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What are the physiological changes in pregnancy affecting the urinary system?
blood flow increases by 30% and so GFR goes up 30-60% retention of salt increases due to sex steroids and there is some increase in protein loss
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What are the physiological changes in pregnancy affecting the liver?
ALP rises by 50% albumin levels fall hepatic flow doesnt change
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What is the weight of the uterus?
100g up to 1100g
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What are the biochemical changes happening during pregnancy?
calcium requirement goes up and even more so once lactation begins. serum levels of calcium fall due to increased demand and active transport accross the placenta. increases in 1-25 hydroxy vitamin D cause huge increases in gut absorption of calcium.
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What size of ectopic can be treated medically?
<35mm, it must have no heartbeat and they must have a hcg of less than 1500. stable without pain. they must be willing to attend for follow up.
218
what does a hydatidiform mole look like on USS?
On ultrasound, the mole appears as a solid collection of echoes with numerous small anechoic spaces which resembles a bunch of grapes (also known as 'snow-storm' appearanc
219
what is the riskiest form of breech presentation?
footling due to high risk of cord prolapse
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When would you give abx for mastitis?
when you suspect the cause is infective: no improvement with expression in 12-24 hours there is an infected nipple fissure there is a positive culture
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hyperechogenic bowel on USS
CF downs CMV infection
222
Name the 5 tumour markers and what they indicate?
CA 125 Ovarian cancer CA 19-9 Pancreatic cancer CEA Bowel cancer AFP Liver cancer and germ cell tumours (e.g. testicular)
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What are the long term complications of PCOS
``` Subfertility Diabetes mellitus Stroke & transient ischaemic attack Coronary artery disease Obstructive sleep apnoea Endometrial cancer ```
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What are the causes of oligohydramnios
``` premature rupture of membranes fetal renal problems e.g. renal agenesis/pckd/urethral obstruction intrauterine growth restriction post-term gestation pre-eclampsia ```
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What is an overactive bladder
due to an increase in detrussor activity
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What is mixed incontinence?
mixture of stress and urge
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What is overflow incontincenc
likely due to outflow obstruction
228
from how many weeks gestation does gestaionally induced hypertension present?
20. cannot develop before this.
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What is the treatment for group b strep colonisation?
intrapartum IV ben pen
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treatment of choice for stage 1 and 2 endometrial cancer?
total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
231
What is the major risk factor for cord prolapse
although not a risk factor per say artificial rupture of membranses is when the majority happen. To manage it one should place the hand into the vagina to elevate the presenting part. use of tocolytics
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Management for uterine atony?
``` 5 units of syto then ergo then sytno infucion carboprost miso 1000 PR ```
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Is vaginal bleeding pre 12 weeks a sensitisation event?
no as long as bleeding is not really heavy or continupous or painful.
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What is oxybutinin
anti muscarinic for detrussor overactivity
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What might make you suspect vesicovaginal fistulae? what is the way to diagnose it?
continuous dribbling incontinence - dye studeies should be done to diagnose
236
When should urodynamic studies be done?
when there is a degree of clinical uncertainty as to the cause of incontinence
237
How big does a uterine fibroid need to be before one would opt for surgical intervention rather than medical?
3cm
238
What is the treatment of twin to twin transfusion syndrome?
indomethacin - NSAID inhibits prostaglandin synthesis
239
How often should HIV sufferers have smears?
annually
240
What is miegs syndrome
benign ovarian ymour ascites pleural effusion
241
What are the 3 things associated with an increased nuchal translucency?
downs congenital heart defects abnormalities of the abdominal wall
242
What are alternatives to HRT
tibolone is a synthetic androgen SSRI clonadine and gabapentin are niche progestogens such as norethisterone
243
When does a kleihaur test need to be done?
in any sensitizing event after 20 weeks. (given with anti D)
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In whom should fgm be reported to the police
anyone under 18. it does not need to be reported if you can identify that another professional has made the report.
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What is the management for someone with FGM
if under 18 reported to the police and social cervices. anyone must have fgm documented in notes, and their details submitted to a register owned by the HSCIS (health and social care information centre) They should be given advice to make them aware that it is a criminal offence which can gain them upto 14 years in prison (7 for not stopping) de - infibulation must be offered.
246
What are the 4 types of FGM
1 - partial or total removal of the clitoris/and or the hood 2 plus minora (with or without majora excision) 3 - narrowing of the oriface i.e sewing up 4 - all others eg piercings and pricking scraping
247
When should a mother be checked for anaemia and red cell alloantibodies?
8-12 and then 28
248
why cant you do a smear in pregnanc
difficult to interpret results
249
When should oxybutinin not be used?
frail elderly due to increased risk of falls. solifenacin or tolteradine should be used instead
250
What are the causes of polyhydramnios
Maternal DM | fetal abnormalities such as duodenal atresia or tracheooesophageal fistula.
251
what grip must not be used in assesment of foetal lie if possible?
pawlicks grip
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treatment of candidiasiss in pregnancy?
imidazole PV
253
What are wilsons criteria?
the condition should be an important health problem the natural history of the condition should be understood there should be a recognisable latent or early symptomatic stage there should be a test that is easy to perform and interpret, acceptable, accurate, reliable, sensitive and specific there should be an accepted treatment recognised for the disease treatment should be more effective if started early there should be a policy on who should be treated diagnosis and treatment should be cost-effective case-finding should be a continuous process
254
Where are LH and FSH produced
anterior pituitary
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what is the role of LH
to form and maintain the corpus luteum as well as thinning og the graffian follicle membrane
256
What does oestrogen do in the follicular phase
thins cervical mucous and thickens the endometrium
257
When are you most fertile in the cycle?
5 days before and 2 days after ovulation. (sperm remains in for a long time
258
What does progesterone do?
stimulates oestrogen production initiates the secretory phase increases basal body temperature inhibits LH and FSH production
259
What are the phases of the menstrual cycle?
menstrual follicular luteal
260
How do you know if someone is about to ovulate?
thinning of cervical mucous due to oestrogen surge and rise in body temperature due to LH surge.
261
How much of the endometrium is shed suring the menstural phase
basal layer remains intact and the rest is shed by contraction of the myometrium
262
At how many weeks would you expect a woman to start kicking?
18-20 if not had a baby before | 15-18 if they have
263
How many weeks does the 3rd trimester start at?
29 weeks? first one ends at 12
264
when does the first stage of labour begin
when the effaced cervix is at 3cm dilation
265
how do you estimate the due date
add 9months and 1 week to the first day of the LMP
266
What are the potential complications of induction
``` uterine hyper stimulation uterine rupture c section prolapsed cord prolonged labour if induced too early ```
267
What is the MOA of tranexamic acid?
it is an antifibrinolytic and reduces losses by around 50%
268
What should be done before endometrial ablation?
biopsy to check tissue as it will be burnt
269
What should be done before endometrial ablation?
biopsy to check tissue as it will be burnt
270
What causes pain during menstruation?
high prostaglandin levels often cause large contraction and uterine ischemia
271
How do you define precocious puberty in a girl
secondary sex characteristics before 8 or menstruation before 10
272
What is the treatment for MCune albright syndrome
cyproterone acetate
273
What is thought to cause PMS
progetogens - PMS in luteal phase
274
What is the management for PMS
SSRI in second half of cycle or contnuous OCP oestrogen HRT can be useful
275
What are the main differences in the male and female pelvis
larger pelvic inlet | u shaped pubic arch rather than a 'v'
276
When should you give gnrh pretreatment for fibroid shrinking
when doing open. not lap. injection of vasopressin reduces blood loss
277
What are the symptoms of adenomyosis
painful, heavy irregular periods
278
what is a haematomaetra
collection of blood in the uterus - rare - caused by wlling off of the cervix after endometrial resection OR by an imperforate hymen
279
What are uterine polyps
uaually arise from endometrial tissue and are mostly benign however can have potential for dysplasia. commonly found in 40+ often found in women on tamoxifen
280
what is a nabolthian follicle
overgrowth of squamous cells over the top of gladular
281
CIN1 vs 3
cells only in lower 1/3 vs whole thickness(carcinoma in situ) 1/3 of women with CIN3 develop cancer in 10 years
282
at what age does screening for cervical cancer become 5 yealy
49
283
What are the complications of the LLETZ
haemorhage | premature birth
284
When doe sa functional cyst become worrying?
over 5cm and been there for more than a couple of months measure ca125 - cutoff is >35 for scan
285
What markers should you measure in women under 40 if you suspect a malignancy?
AFP and hCG as germ cell tumours are more common in these age groups and produce these hormones
286
Where does the lymph drainage go?
inguinal femoral external iliac
287
What is the difference between plichen planus simplex sclerosus
planus - purple/red simplex - majora mainly affected inflamed and thickened sclerosus - pink white, loss of collagen thinning
288
What is the function of the bartholian gland
to secrete lubricatng mucus for coitus infection would rsult in large painful tender swollen nodules insicion and rainage with marsupialsation
289
What is the difference between small for gestational age and small for dates(or IUGR)
lower than the 10th centile for their weight is small for GE wheras growth restriction or small for dates means the SFH is smaller than expected. IUGR is when there is faltering growth and they are falling off the centiles
290
What are the symetrical causes of IUGR?
congenital abnormality infection normal small poor nutrition
291
What are the asymetrical causes of IUGR?
``` Placental insufficiency Pre eclampsia (hypertension) diabetes smoking placental factors such as abruption maternal chronic disease ```
292
What are the sequlae of IUGR?
Higher levels of morbidity and mortality overall with many long term dequelae. They may be: ``` Cerebral palsy learning disability short stature IUD prematurity - all sequalae of that. NEC ```
293
What does bakers hypothesis suggest?
can cause fetal programming which leads to increased risk of what we would consider diseases of the aged such as CHD, hypertension, diabetes dyslipidaemia.
294
What is the management for a patient with IUGR.
immediate referral to obstetric team who will need to do: close observation and monitoring dopplers scans may indicate amniocentesis to test for congential abnormalities or infection May need to consider early delivery if risks outweigh benefits increased risk of emergancy c section will need to have corticosteroids at some point to reduce risk of surfactant deficinecy and IVH.
295
How long should follow up smear be in CIN2
6 moths
296
What do you do if you find moderate dyskaryosis
refer for colposcopy REGARDLESS of hpv status
297
How much crystalloid can you give before you need to give blood products
3.5l and so you can wait for blood products
298
how do you confirm small for dates
uSS - no need for doppler
299
how do POPs work?
thickens cervical mucous
300
At what age is the OCP become ukmec2
40 and then should be stopped at 50
301
At what age does injectable become UKMEC 2
45
302
how do you manage delayed speach and language
hearing test and SALT