Geriatrics Flashcards

1
Q

MUST score

A

Screening tool to identify adults, who are malnourished, at risk of malnutrition

Score 0,1,2
BMI >20, 18.5-20, <18.5
Weight loss in past 3-6mo <5%, 5-10%, >10%

If ill and no nut intake for 5 days = add 2

score 0 - normal
score 1 - track intake for 3 days then screen at time intervals from then
score 2 - make a plan eg dietician etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define acute kidney injury

A

Rise in serum creatinine of 26 micromol/L or greater within 48 hours.

A 50% or greater rise in serum creatinine known or presumed to have occurred within the past 7 days.

A fall in urine output to less than 0.5mL/kg/hour for more than 6 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is uraemia pericarditis

A

pericarditis caused by build up of toxins as not being excreted eg aki/ckd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ECG pericarditis

A

Widespread concave ST elevation and PR depression

Reciprocal ST depression and PR elevation in lead aVR (± V1)

sinus tachy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Causes aki

A

Pre-renal (70%):
- hypovolaemia eg sepsis, dehydration
- renal artery stenosis
- Heart failure

Renal:
- glomerulonephritis
- acute tubular necrosis
- rhabdomyolysis

Post-renal:
- kidney stone
- prostatic hyperplasia
- urinary tract obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Complication of pre-renal aki

A

acute tubular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

urine sodium levels pre-renal aki

A

low as kidneys holding onto sodium to preserve volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Invetsigation pre-renal aki

A
  • hydration assessment
  • renal artery doppler if suspect renovascular disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When to suspect acute tubular necrosis

A

when there is renal hypoperfusion or a tubular nephrotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Invetsigations for renal aki

A

Urine dip:
blood and protein suggest glomerulonephritis
normal may suggest ATN

Urine protein:creatinine ratio

nephritic screen
myeloma screen
CK if rhabdomyolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

normal urine protein:creatinine ratio?

nephrotic?

A

<15mg/mmol =normal

> 300mg/mmol = nephrotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Investigations post-renal aki

A

Bladder scan
Renal tract USS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Drugs that should be stopped in AKI as may worsen renal function

A

NSAIDs (except if aspirin at cardiac dose e.g. 75mg od)
Aminoglycosides
ACE inhibitors
Angiotensin II receptor antagonists
Diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Drugs that may have to be stopped in AKI as increased risk of toxicity (but doesn’t usually worsen AKI itself)

A
  • Metformin
  • Lithium
  • Digoxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Management hyperkalaemia

A
  1. IV calcium gluconate to stabilise cardiac membrane
  2. Combined insulin/dextrose infusion, Nebulised salbutamol
  3. Removal of K from body: Calcium resonium (orally or enema), Loop diuretics, Dialysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

does aki cause alkalosis or acidosis

A

acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define CKD

A

Presence of marker of kidney damage (e.g. proteinuria) or decreased GFR for > 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Causes of CKD from most to least common

A

Diabetes (secondary glomerular disease)
Chronic hypertension
Chronic glomerulonephritis
Polycystic kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Invetsigations CKD

A

History
Urine dipstick
Renal USS
Renal biopsy if required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When is dialysis indicated CKD

A

when GFR is <15ml/minute, and there are symptoms or complications of kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Complications aki

A

Hyperkalaemia
Fluid overload, heart failure and pulmonary oedema
Metabolic acidosis
Uraemia (high urea) can lead to encephalopathy or pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Acute tubular necrosis, blood and urine test results

A

normal serum urea:creatinine ratio would be expected.

On urine tests, sodium levels higher than 40 mmol/, low osmolality, and muddy brown casts would be expected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CKD stages

A

The G score is based on the eGFR:
G1 = eGFR >90
G2 = eGFR 60-89
G3a = eGFR 45-59
G3b = eGFR 30-44
G4 = eGFR 15-29
G5 = eGFR <15 (known as “end-stage renal failure”)

The A score is based on the albumin:creatinine ratio:
A1 = < 3mg/mmol
A2 = 3 – 30mg/mmol
A3 = > 30mg/mmol

The patient does not have CKD if they have a score of A1 combined with G1 or G2. They need at least an eGFR of < 60 or proteinuria for a diagnosis of CKD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When to refer CKD to specialist

A

eGFR < 30
ACR ≥ 70 mg/mmol
Accelerated progression defined as a decrease in eGFR of 15 or 25% or 15 ml/min in 1 year
Uncontrolled hypertension despite ≥ 4 antihypertensives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
First line drug CKD
ACE inhibitors If: Diabetes plus ACR > 3mg/mmol Hypertension plus ACR > 30mg/mmol All patients with ACR > 70mg/mmol Aim to keep blood pressure <140/90 (or < 130/80 if ACR > 70mg/mmol).
26
How does CKD cause anaemia?
damaged kidneys --> less EPO --> less production of RBC
27
What is renal bone disease
1. High serum phosphate due to reduced excretion 2. Low vitamin D due to kidneys not converting to active form 3. Low serum calcium as there isn't vit D to help absorb it --> hyperparathyroidism --> PTH --> increased osteoclast activity --> resorption of calcium form bones
28
management of renal bone disease
Active forms of vitamin D (alfacalcidol and calcitriol) Low phosphate diet Bisphosphonates can be used to treat osteoporosis
29
Define postural hypotension
a fall of systolic blood pressure > 20 mmHg on standing
30
Causes postural hypotension
hypovolaemia autonomic dysfunction: diabetes, Parkinson's drugs: diuretics, antihypertensives, L-dopa, phenothiazines, antidepressants, sedatives, bendoflurothiazide Alcohol Chronic hypertension: due to loss of baroreceptor reflexes
31
How to know if there is autonomic dysfunction associated with the postural hypotension
if Autonomic dysfunction - heart rate won't increase to compensate
32
A 44 year old man comes to clinic complaining of episodes of a 2 week history of dizziness. These episodes come on suddenly. He feels like the room is spinning around, but does not experience any loss of hearing or tinnitus. His past medical history is relevant for an upper respiratory infection a few weeks ago
Vestibular neuronitis
33
Vertigo Recent viral infection Sudden onset Nausea and vomiting Hearing may be affected
Viral labyrinthitis
34
vertigo Associated with hearing loss, tinnitus and sensation of fullness or pressure in one or both ears management?
MEnieres disease antihistamines and bed rest
35
FRAX tool categories
low risk: reassure and give lifestyle advice intermediate risk: offer BMD test high risk: offer bone protection treatment
36
T score scoring
> -1.0 = normal -1.0 to -2.5 = osteopaenia < -2.5 = osteoporosis
37
Risk factors osteoporosis
SHATTERED Steroid use >5mg/day prednisolone Hyperthyroidism; hyperparathyroidism, hypercalciuria Alcohol and tobacco use Thin (BMI <22) Testosterone low (e.g. anti androgen in cancer of prostate) Early menopause Renal or liver failure Erosive/inflammatory bone disease (e.g. RA or myeloma) Dietary Ca low/malabsorption or Diabetes mellitus type 1 Family history
38
Secondary prevention of osteoporotic fractures in post menopausal women
Indicated when: - Fragility fracture and DEXA scan < 2.5 - over 75 doesn't require scan if unfeasible 1. alendronate (+ calcium +vit D) 2. risedronate or etidronate if can't tolerate SE of alendronate 3. strontium ranelate and raloxifene 4. Denosumab
39
SE alendronate
upper GI SE such as reflux in 25% of people
40
When should patients taking steroids be given bone protection
1. > 65 with history of fracture 2. < 65 with T score < -1.5 1. alendronate (+ calcium +vit D)
41
Dressings for pressure ulcers
Hydrocolloid dressings
42
What tool is used to screen for pressure ulcer risk
Waterlow score It includes a number of factors including body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility and continence.
43
Garden system for grading hip fractures
Type I: Stable fracture with impaction in valgus Type II: Complete fracture but undisplaced Type III: Displaced fracture, usually rotated and angulated, but still has boney contact Type IV: Complete boney disruption Blood supply disruption is most common following Types III and IV
44
What type of bacteria is c.diff
Gram positive anaerobic bacilli
45
features c.diff
diarrhoea abdominal pain a raised white blood cell count (WCC) is characteristic if severe toxic megacolon may develop
46
Pathophysiology c.diff
Clostridium difficile develops when the normal gut flora are suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics. Clindamycin is historically associated with causing Clostridium difficile but the aetiology has evolved significantly over the past 10 years. Second and third generation cephalosporins are now the leading cause of Clostridium difficile. produces an exotoxin which causes intestinal damage
47
Diagnosis c.diff
stool sample Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT)
48
Management c.diff
1. vancomycin 10 days 2. oral fidaxomicin 3. oral vancomycin +/- IV metronidazole If recurrent: within 12 weeks of symptom resolution: oral fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution: oral vancomycin OR fidaxomicin
49
Management life threatening c.diff eg toxic megacolon, hypotension
oral vancomycin AND IV metronidazole
50
MMSE scoring
20-26 = mild cognitive impairment 10-20 = moderate impairment less than 10 indicates severe impairment. MMSE <25 supports dementia. 25-27 is borderline.
51
What is FRAX tool
a fracture risk calculator that estimates an individual's 10-year probability of incurring a hip or other major osteoporotic fracture.
52
What is ABCD2 tool?
risk of stroke after TIA
53
4 components of comprehensive geriatric assessment
Medical assessment Functional assessment Psychological assessment Social and environmental assessment
54
How long should you continue bisphosphonates
After a 5year period for oral bisphosphonates (3years for IV zoledronate), treatment should be re-assessed for ongoing treatment, with an updated FRAX score and DEXA scan.
55
side effects bisphosphonates
oesophageal reactions: oesophagitis, oesophageal ulcers (especially alendronate) osteonecrosis of the jaw increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate
56
symptoms of digoxin toxicity
gastrointestinal disturbance (nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain), dizziness, confusion, blurry or yellow vision, and arrhythmias.
57
Drugs which contribute to falls
Via postural hypotension: diuretics antihypertensives, L-dopa phenothiazines antidepressants sedatives bendoflurothiazide Via other mechanisms: digoxin antpsychotics opiods benzo codeine anti-convulsants
58
tests for postural instability
'Turn 180° test' or the 'Timed up and Go test'.
59
initial step when someone prevents with altered cognition
1. confusion screen FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12 and folate levels Bone Profile (Calcium): hypercalcaemia can cause confusion
60
symptoms hypercalcaemia
‘painful bones, renal stones, abdominal groans, and psychic moans’
61
what drugs should you stop in dementia
TCAs STOPP-START
62
PRISMA-7
to assess frailty > 3 suggests an increased risk of frailty and the need for further clinical review
63
define frailty
Frailty is defined as a state of impaired homeostasis leading to increased vulnerability to minor stressor events.
64
GPCOG
GP screening tool for dementia.
65
NYHA
scale to classify the severity of heart failure
66
HAS-BLED
score given to assess the risk of major bleeding in patients who are taking anticoagulants. changed to orbit
67
STOPP-START
what drugs to stop and start in a med review for someone who is 65 years or older.
68
BPPV invetsigation and management
positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre epley maneouvre
69
1st line pain management EoL
morphine
70
pain management EoL if renal failure
Alfentanyl Useful for patients with renal failure who cannot take morphine
71
medications EoL N&V
Levomepromazine Cyclizine Haloperidol Metoclopramide
72
medications secretions EoL
Hyoscine hydrobromide Hyoscine butylbromide Glycopyrronium
73
What is an advanced statement?
An Advance Statement is sometimes called a "Statement of Wishes and Care Preferences". It allows an individual to make general statements about their wishes, beliefs, feelings and values and how these influence their preferences for their future care and treatment. An Advance Statement is not by itself legally binding, but legally must be taken into consideration when making a "best interests" decision on someone's behalf under the Mental Capacity Act (MCA), 2005. This is because one of the criteria of the MCA is that a patient's "wishes, feelings, beliefs and values" must be taken into consideration; an Advanced Statement provides evidence of this. Information that can be included in an Advanced Statement can be anything that is important to the individual. This might include: ​ Religious or spiritual views, and those that might relate to care ​ Food preferences ​ Information about your daily routine​ Where you would like to be cared for (in hospital, at home, in a care home etc.) ​ Any people who you would like to be consulted when best interests decisions are being made on your behalf (however this does not give the same legal power as creating a Lasting Power of Attorney)
74
presentation and management ramsay hunt
Ramsay Hunt syndrome features Herpetic infection of the facial nerve causes a facial nerve palsy, with or without vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss. This is treated with aciclovir and prednisolone.
75
causes of ototoxicity
Caused by aminoglycoside antibiotics (eg. gentamicin, vancomycin) and loop diuretics (eg. furosemide), most commonly.
76
causes of ototoxicity
Caused by aminoglycoside antibiotics (eg. gentamicin, vancomycin) and loop diuretics (eg. furosemide), most commonly.
77
management vestibular neuritis
Treatment is supportive (e.g. Prochlorperazine or Cyclizine), as the condition usually self-resolves over 1 week
78
calculating CHADSVASC
Congetsive heart failure Hypertension Age > 75 = 2 Diabetes Stroke or VTE in past = 2 Vascular disease Age >65 SC sex category (female) 0: no anticoagulation 1: consider anticoagulation >1: offer anticoagulation
79
Management AF
Rate control 1. beta blocker Rhythm control Cardioversion with Flecanide or amiadarone or electrical cardioversion Do immediately if AF< 48 horus and delayed if > 48 hours after ^ 1. beta blocker Anticoagulant 1. warfarin 1. DOAC eg Apixaban and dabigatran are taken twice daily, rivaroxaban is taken once daily.
80
MoA warfarin
vitamin K antagonist
81
INR target warfarin
between 2-3
82
Components of ORBIT tool
Older then 75 Renal function GFR <60 Blood Hb or haematocrit low Intracranial or GI bleed in past Thrombo medications (anti-platlets)
83
reversing a DOAC
Andexanet alfa (apixaban and rivaroxaban) Idarucizumab (a monoclonal antibody against dabigatran)
84
management anaemia CKD
1. correct iron defiicney 2. erythropoetin stimulatinga gents (EPO stuff)