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GI Flashcards

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1
Q

What genes is coeliac disease associated with?

A

HLA-DQ2 + HLA-DQ8

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2
Q

Investigations for coeliac disease?

A

serum IgA transglutaminase antibody (tTGA) + total IgA

GOLD STANDARD diagnostic test - OGD and duodenal/jejunal biopsy

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3
Q

Skin condition associated with coeliac?

A

dermatitis herpetiformis

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4
Q

complications of coeliac?

A
  • anaemia
  • hyposplenism
  • osteoporosis
  • lactose intolerance
  • enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine
  • sub-fertility
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5
Q

scoring system for NAFLD?

A

FIB-4 (fibrosis - 4) or NFS (NAFLD fibrosis score)

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6
Q

LFT pattern for NAFLD with advanced fibrosis?

A
  • bilirubin may be raised
  • AST > ALT ratio
  • low albumin
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7
Q

Most common causes of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Chronic hepatitis B or C

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8
Q

What do you use to screen for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

USS +/- alpha-fetoprotein

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9
Q

Who should be considered for screening of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

high risk groups such as patients with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C/B or haemochromatosis or men with alcoholic liver cirrhosis

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10
Q

Management of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A
  • if early - surgical resection
  • liver transplant
  • radiofrequency ablation
  • transarterial chemoembolisation
  • sorafenib - a multikinase inhibitor
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11
Q

Typical symptoms of UC?

A
  • bloody diarrhoea
  • abdo pain in lower left quadrant
  • tenesmus
  • urgency
    -extra-intestinal symptoms
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12
Q

Examples of extra-intestinal symptoms of IBD?

A
  • arthritis
  • erythema nodosum
  • episcleritis
  • osteoporosis
  • PSC
  • uveitis
  • pyoderma gangrenosum
  • clubbing
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13
Q

Investigation for diagnosis of UC?

A
  • colonoscopy + biopsy
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14
Q

severity of UC classification?

A

mild - <4 stools/day + small amount of blood
moderate - 4-6 stools/day, varying amounts of blood
severe - >6stools/day bloody, systemic upset

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15
Q

Treatment for mild-moderate UC?

A
  1. topical (rectal) aminosalicylate (mesalazine)
    if not change within 4 weeks then:
  2. oral aminosalicylate
  3. oral corticosteroid
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16
Q

treatment for severe UC?

A
  • should be treated in hospital
  • iV steroids - first line
  • IV ciclosporin if steroids contraindicated
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17
Q

treatment for severe relapse or >/= 2 exacerbations of UC in a year?

A

oral azathioprine or oral mercaptopurine

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18
Q

treatment for mild-moderate UC flare?

A

aminosalicylate (either topical or oral - depending on flare)

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19
Q

Adverse effects of PPI’s?

A
  • hyponatraemia
  • hypomagnasaemia
  • osteoporosis
  • microscopic colitis
  • increased risk of c.diff infections
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20
Q

Gold standard investigation for coeliac following serology?

A

endoscopic intestinal biopsy (jejunal)

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21
Q

Two main causes of duodenal ulcers?

A

H.pylori
NSAID’s

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22
Q

hiatus hernia investigation?

A
  1. barium swallow
  2. endoscopy
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23
Q

hiatus hernia management?

A
  1. conservative e.g. weight loss
  2. medical e.g PPI
  3. surgical
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24
Q

management of diverticulitis?

A

oral antibiotics (co-amoxiclav OR cefalexin + metronidazole OR trimethoprim + metronidazole) + liquid diet + analgesia

if symptoms don’t settle within 72 hours then admit and IV antibiotics

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25
most common cause of large bowel obstuction?
colon cancer
26
investigations for large bowel obstruction?
Abdominal Xray CT
27
management of large bowel obstruction?
1. nil by mouth + IV fluids + NG tube with free drainage 2. conservative management can be trailed if low risk 3. IV antibiotics if risk of perforation or surgery 4. surgery
28
investigation for upper GI bleed?
1. the Glasgow-Blatchford score at first assessment 2. resus 2. endoscopy (OGD) within 24 hours
29
management of non-variceal upper GI bleed?
1. PPI 2. If further bleeding then options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology and surgery
30
management of variceal upper GI bleed?
1. terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients at presentation (i.e. before endoscopy) 2. band ligation for oesophageal varices and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for gastric varices 3. transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures
31
Investigation of acute cholecystitis?
USS - 1st line - if unclear then cholescintigraphy (HIDA scan)
32
treatment of acute cholecystitis?
intravenous antibiotics cholecystectomy (laparoscopic - within 1 week of diagnosis)
33
antibodies for primary biliary cholangitis?
Anti michondrial antibodies (AMA)
34
>60y + iron deficiency anaemia - what should you be suspicious of + do?
colorectal cancer - refer to colorectal services to get a colonoscopy + OGD
35
Tumour marker for colon cancer (not diagnostic)?
CEA - used to see disease progression / establish treatment
36
Bowel cancer screening test?
faecal occult blood (qFIT)
37
prophylaxis for oesophageal bleeding?
non-cardioselective B-blocker e.g. propanolol
38
which antibodies are raised in autoimmune heptaitis?
anti-nuclear (ANA) +/- anti smooth muscle
39
which antibodies are raised in autoimmune hepatitis?
anti-nuclear (ANA) +/- anti smooth muscle (Type 1) anti-liver/kidney microsomal type 1 antibodies (KLM1) - type 2 (affects children only)
40
management of autoimmune hepaitits?
steroids other immunosuppressants such as azathioprine liver transplant
41
Management of primary biliary cholangitis?
Ursodeoxycholic acid - 1st line Pruritus = cholestyramine fat-soluble vitamin supplementation liver transplantation e.g. if bilirubin > 100 (PBC is a major indication)
42
What is barrett's oesophagus?
metaplasia of the lower oesophageal mucosa, with the usual squamous epithelium being replaced by columnar epithelium.
43
Management of Barrett's oesophagus?
- High-dose proton pump inhibitor - Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies for patients with metaplasia (but not dysplasia) endoscopy is recommended every 3-5 years If dysplasia of any grade is identified endoscopic intervention is offered. Options include: - radiofrequency ablation - 1st-line - endoscopic mucosal resection
44
Management of hepatic encephalopathy?
Lactulose - 1st line (removes ammonia from system) rifaximin - if lactulose not working
45
What is thought to cause hepatic encephalopathy?
Excess absorption of ammonia and glutamine from bacterial breakdown of proteins in the gut.
46
Encephalopathy + coagulopathy + jaundice = ?
acute liver failure
47
severe, colicky post-prandial abdominal pain, weight loss, and an abdominal bruit = ?
Intestinal angina (or chronic mesenteric ischaemia)
48
Causes of acute pancreatitis?
G - gallstones E - ethanol T - trauma S - steroids M - mumps A - autoimmune (Polyarteritis Nodosa/SLE) S - scorpion bite H - Hypercalcaemia, hypertriglycerideaemia, hypothermia E - ERCP D - drugs
49
Stabbing-like, epigastric pain which radiates to the back that is relieved by sitting forward or lying in the fetal position + vomiting = ?
acute pancreatitis
50
Investigations for acute pancreatitis?
U&E + FBC amylase (3x limit is suggestive) and lipase (more sensitive) LFT - may be deranged if gallstones imaging (USS, MRCP, ERCP, CT) - to look for underlying cause
51
Management of acute pancreatitis?
1. fluids 2. analgesia 3. anti-emetics 4. treat underlying cause e.g. ERCP for gallstones, antibiotics if infection
52
What is acute cholangitis?
infection of the biliary tree - most commonly caused by obstruction (gallstones)
53
Investigations for acute cholangitis?
FBC U&E Creatinine ABG's - metabolic acidosis if severe LFT's - ↑bilirubin, ↑ALP, ↑AST ↑ALT CRP - ↑ blood cultures USS ERCP
54
Management of acute cholangitis?
IV antibiotics ERCP or surgical drainage
55
What is Charcot's triad?
right upper quadrant pain, fever and jaundice - classically linked to ascending cholangitis.
56
Investigations for alcoholic liver disease?
- LFTs - ALT/AST raises, Gamma-GT - raised. Low albumin in severe disease. raised bilirubin if cirrhosis - elevated prothrombin - deranged U&E's USS
57
Management of acute alcoholic hepatitis?
glucocorticoids e.g. prednisolone
58
Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal based on time?
6-12 hours: tremor, sweating, headache, craving and anxiety 12-24 hours: hallucinations 24-48 hours: seizures 24-72 hours: “delirium tremens”
59
Management of alcohol withdrawal?
Chlordiazepoxide (“Librium”) or diazepam + IV high-dose B vitamins (pabrinex). + regular lower dose oral thiamine.
60
What comes first Wernicke’s encephalopathy or Korsakoffs syndrome?
Wernicke's
61
Features of Wernicke's encephalopathy?
- Confusion - Oculomotor disturbances (disturbances of eye movements) - Ataxia (difficulties with coordinated movements)
62
Features of Korsakoffs syndrome?
- Memory impairment (retrograde and anterograde) - Behavioural changes
63
Treatment of Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome (WKS)?
thiamine supplementation and alcohol abstaining
64
Ascites drug management?
spironolactone
65
What is primary sclerosing cholangitis?
biliary disease of unknown aetiology characterised by inflammation and fibrosis of intra and extra-hepatic bile ducts.
66
How does primary sclerosing cholangitis present?
- cholestasis - jaundice, pruritus, raised bilirubin + ALP - right upper quadrant pain - fatigue
67
Investigations for primary sclerosing cholangitis?
ERCP or MRCP - diagnostic (shows 'beaded' appearance) p-ANCA +ve ANA and Anticardiolipin antibodies may also be raised - less common
68
Complications of primary sclerosing cholangitis?
- cholangiocarcinoma (in 10%) - increased risk of colorectal cancer
69
Conditions associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis?
UC crohns HIV
70
Management of primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Liver transplant - curative ERCP - to dilate and stent Colestyramine - helps with pruritus
71
What is primary biliary cirrhosis (cholangitis)?
Primary biliary cirrhosis is a condition where the immune system attacks the small bile ducts within the liver.
72
Clinical features of PBC?
normally middle aged woman fatigue pruritus jaundice abdo pain pale stool xanthelasma / xanthoma may progress to liver failure
73
Components of Glasgow - blatchford score?
Urea hb Systolic BP HR Malaena Syncope
74
Causes of upper GI bleed?
- oesophageal varices - Mallory - Weiss tear - gastric ulcers / duodenal ulcers - malignancy
75
Why does urea rise in upper GI bleed?
The blood in the GI tract gets broken down by acid and digestive enzymes - one of the breakdown products is urea- the urea is then absorbed by the intestines
76
Clinical features of appendicitis?
- Peri-umbilical pain which radiates to the RIF - N&V - mild temperatures (37.5-38 degrees celsius) - anorexia - Rovsing sign - Psoas sign
77
Management of appendicitis?
- Appendectomy - IV prophylactic antibiotics if perforated then copious abdominal lavage.
78
Inguinal vs femoral hernia locations?
inguinal - superior and medial to pubic tubercle femoral - inferior and lateral to pubic tubercle
79
What is Budd-chiari syndrome?
hepatic vein thrombosis
80
Causes of Budd-chairi syndrome?
- polycythaemia rubra vera - thrombophilia: activated protein C resistance, antithrombin III deficiency, protein C & S deficiencies - pregnancy - combined oral contraceptive pill (20% of cases)
81
Features of budd-chairi syndrome?
abdominal pain tender hepatomegaly ascites
82
Investigations for budd-chairi syndrome?
USS with doppler flow studies
83
PSC diagnostic investigation?
MRCP
84
Barretts oesophagus - what change?
stratified squamous -> simple columnar
85
most common site of colorectal cancer?
rectal (40%) sigmoid (30%)
86
What is the initial and what is the definite investigation for bowel obstruction?
initial - abdominal XRAY definite - abdominal CT
87
H.pylori treatment?
clarithromycin/metronidazole, amoxicillin and omeprazole
88
Diverticulitis hospital antibiotics management?
IV ceftriaxone + metronidazole
89
Haemochromatosis investigations?
Raised transferrin saturation and ferritin, low TIBC
90
SBP - when do you require prophylactic antibiotics + antibiotic of choice?
Patients who have previously suffered an episode of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis and who have a fluid protein <15 g/l require antibiotic prophylaxis, this is most commonly ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin.
91
SBP treatment?
intravenous cefotaxime
92
Pancreatitis prognostic criteria - what indicates severe?
Modified glasgow score >/= 3
93
What are the different domains in the modified glasgow scale?
P - PaO2 <8kPa A - Age >55-years-old N - Neutrophilia: WCC >15x10(9)/L C - Calcium <2 mmol/L R - Renal function: Urea >16 mmol/L E - Enzymes: LDH >600iu/L; AST >200iu/L A - Albumin <32g/L (serum) S - Sugar: blood glucose >10 mmol/L
94
H.pylori post eradication therapy investigation?
Urea breath test
95
Colostomy vs ileostomy?
colostomy - flat ileostomy - sprouted

Finals (18 decks)

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