GI Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

What to give when steriods & azathioprine not working in Chrons?

A

anti-TNF agents, such as infliximab

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2
Q

Testing for anti–tissue transglutaminase (tTG) IgA antibody?

A

Celiac dx symptoms (diarrhea, bloating, weight loss)

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3
Q

Tx for acute variceal bleeding?

A

combination of a vasoactive agent (octreotide for 2-5 days) and endoscopic variceal ligation.

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4
Q

Pt with ITP, but negative for HIV, Hep B/C? What should you test?

A

H. pylori => c-urea breath test

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5
Q

How often to repeat LFT & Hep B DNA in immune control phase: Hbsag + & Anti-Hbe?

A

6-12 months bc of risk of re-activation

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6
Q

How is a pancreatic pseudocyst managed in an asymptomatic patient?

A

Reassurance and clinical monitoring; no drainage is required unless the cyst causes significant symptoms or becomes infected, regardless of size.

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7
Q

Tx for microscopic colitis?

A

Budesonide

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8
Q

Treat severe ileocolonic Crohn disease.

A

Combination therapy with infliximab and azathioprine is more effective than monotherapy with either agent alone for maintaining remission & mucosal healing.

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9
Q

Initial management of pancreatitis?

A

Moderate fluid resuscitation, analgesics, and antiemetics.

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10
Q

What is the recommended colonoscopy surveillance interval for patients with ≤10 tubular adenomas <10 mm?

A

Every 3 years

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11
Q

What precautions are necessary before initiating ozanimod for ulcerative colitis?

A

EKG, contraindicated in patients with cardiovascular disorders and heart block, unless they have a pacemaker.

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12
Q

Complications of bariatric surgery?

A

Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth: abdominal discomfort, flatulence, gas, distention, bloating, and diarrhea.

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13
Q

When should colorectal cancer (CRC) screening begin for a patient with a first-degree relative diagnosed before age 60?

A

Begin colonoscopy at age 40 or 10 years earlier than the age of the youngest affected relative—whichever comes first.

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14
Q

How to treat pts on NSAID’s for pain but have an ulcer?

A

Celecoxib (cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitor) & PPI

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15
Q

How to treat mild ulcerative colitis?

A

Oral and enema mesalamine

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16
Q

How do you evaluate for reinfection in a patient successfully treated for chronic hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection?

A

Use HCV RNA testing to assess for reinfection.

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17
Q

How is advanced fibrosis evaluated in patients with metabolic dysfunction–associated steatotic liver disease (MASLD)?

A

Low score → Low risk; manage with weight loss and lifestyle changes

Indeterminate/high score → Perform liver stiffness measurement with transient elastography to assess need for subspecialty referral

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18
Q

How should nondysplastic Barrett esophagus be managed based on segment length?

A

For segments ≥ 3 cm: Perform endoscopic surveillance every 3 years

For segments < 3 cm: Perform endoscopic surveillance every 5 years

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19
Q

What are complications of cirrhosis, and how common is ascites due to portal hypertension?

A

Ascites, SBP, Hepatorenal syndrome

20
Q

What should be done before performing a ¹³C-urea breath test to evaluate H. pylori eradication?

A

Proton pump inhibitors should be discontinued for at least 1 to 2 weeks before testing.

21
Q

How is acute, uncomplicated left-sided diverticulitis treated in immunocompetent patients?

A

With a liquid diet alone; antibiotics are not routinely required.

22
Q

How is mild, nonbloody travelers’ diarrhea treated?

A

With hydration, bismuth, and loperamide for symptom relief; antibiotics are not routinely needed and are reserved for moderate to severe symptoms.

23
Q

How is eosinophilic gastritis evaluated after ruling out secondary causes of eosinophilia?

A

Perform allergy testing to identify food triggers that should be avoided.

24
Q

What tests should be ordered to evaluate a patient with suspected IBS-D to exclude other causes?

A

Stool testing for giardiasis

Testing for celiac disease

Fecal calprotectin to evaluate for inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

25
What is the treatment for Zenker diverticulum?
Cricopharyngeal myotomy to restore outflow at the pharyngoesophageal junction.
26
How is primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) diagnosed in a patient with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?
Suspect PSC in IBD patients with cholestatic liver tests. The preferred initial diagnostic test is magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP).
27
How is small-bowel bleeding evaluated in a stable patient after nondiagnostic endoscopy and colonoscopy?
Use video capsule endoscopy as the preferred next step.
28
How is type 2 autoimmune pancreatitis diagnosed?
associated with inflammatory bowel disease, and typically has normal IgG4 levels. CT findings may show parenchymal swelling (sausage-shaped pancreas) or a narrowed main pancreatic duct.
29
How is primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) diagnosed and what are its common features?
PBC is an autoimmune disease of the small and medium bile ducts. It is often asymptomatic, but may present with fatigue and/or pruritus.
30
How is irritable bowel syndrome with predominant constipation (IBS-C) treated when refractory to osmotic laxatives?
Use intestinal secretagogues such as lubiprostone, linaclotide, plecanatide, or tenapanor.
31
What medication is used to treat chronic idiopathic constipation unresponsive to first-line therapies?
Linaclotide, a peripherally acting guanylate cyclase C receptor agonist, approved for adults with refractory symptoms.
32
How is lactose malabsorption managed?
With a lactose-free diet; oral lactase enzyme replacement can be considered if complete lactose avoidance is difficult.
33
What is the initial treatment for type 1 autoimmune pancreatitis?
Prednisolone, tapered over 2 to 3 months.
34
What is the initial diagnostic test for suspected oropharyngeal dysphagia?
Video fluoroscopy (modified barium swallow) using a range of liquid and solid consistencies.
35
How much 25% albumin should be given after removing ascitic fluid? (Large volume paracentesis)
6 to 8 grams per liter (g/L) of ascitic fluid removed.
36
What is the recommended surveillance for a patient with gastric intestinal metaplasia?
Surveillance endoscopy every 3 to 5 years.
37
What is a treatment option for acalculous cholecystitis in an unstable or poor surgical candidate?
Percutaneous cholecystostomy tube.
38
When is primary antibiotic prophylaxis used to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
In high-risk patients with very low ascitic protein, serum sodium <130, creatinine >1.2, BUN >25, or advanced liver failure.
39
When should patients have a colonoscopy after uncomplicated diverticulitis?
6 to 8 weeks after the episode, once inflammation has resolved.
40
What is the first diagnostic test for suspected gastroparesis?
Upper endoscopy to exclude gastric outlet obstruction.
41
How is Gilbert syndrome diagnosed?
By finding unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia with normal liver tests in a patient with mild jaundice.
42
How often should colonoscopy be done in patients with serrated polyposis syndrome?
Every 1 to 3 years.
43
What test is used to evaluate anal sphincter pressure and rectal sensation in fecal incontinence?
Anorectal manometry.
44
What is the treatment for acute mesenteric ischemia due to a superior mesenteric artery embolus with signs of infarction?
Emergent exploratory laparotomy.
45
How is refractory hepatic hydrothorax treated?
Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS).
46
ARB associated with celiac-like enteropathy
Olmesartan
47
Treatment for Barrett esophagus with dysplasia
Endoscopic mucosal resection, followed by radiofrequency ablation or cryotherapy