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DIT FACTS > GI > Flashcards

GI Flashcards

1
Q

Biopsy of patient with esophagitis reveals large pink intranuclear inclusions and host cell chromatin that is pushed to the edge of the nucleus.

A

HSV esophagitis

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2
Q

Biopsy of a patient with esophagitis reveals enlarged cells, intranuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions, and a clear perinuclea halo

A

CMV esophagitis

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3
Q

Biopsy of a mass in parotid gland reveals a double layer of columnar epithelial cells resting on a dense lymphoid stroma

A

Warthin’s tumor

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4
Q

Protrusion of the mucosa in the upper esophagus

A

Esophageal web (Plummer-Vinson)

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5
Q

Basal cell hyperplasia, eosinophilia, and elongation of lamina propria papilla seen in biopsy of esophagus

A

Chronic reflux

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6
Q

Goblet cells seen i ndistal esophagus

A

Barrett’s esophagus

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7
Q

What are the arterial branches off of the common hepatic artery?

A

Gastroduodenal artery –> R. gastroomental artery, superior pancreaticoduodenal artery
R. Gastric artery
Hepatic artery proper –> L and R hepatic artery

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8
Q

Which receptors found ongastric pariteal cells regulate acid secretion? (5)

A 
H2 receptors
CCK-B (gastrin)
M3 (ACh)
Prostaglandin
Somatostatin
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9
Q

What cell type secretes the histamine that stimulates the histamine receptor on parietal cells thereby increasing gastric acid production?

A

Enterochromaffin cells

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10
Q

The vagus n. stimulates G cells to release gastrin; however, the administration of a muscarinic antagonist such as atropine will inhibit the release of gastrin. Why?

A

Vagus n. stimulates G cells using gastrin-releasing peptide, NOT ACh.
Atropine decreases vagal stimulation at parietal and ECL cells.

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11
Q

3 hormones that are pro-gastric acid secretion

A

Histamine
ACh
Gastrin

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12
Q

4 hormones that inhibit gastric acid secretion

A

Prostaglandins
Somatostatin
Secretin
GIP

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13
Q

Stomach biopsy reveals neutrophils above basement membrane, loss of surface epithelium, and fibrin-containing purulent exudate

A

Acute gastritis

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14
Q

Small intestine biopsy reveals small lymphocytes with irregular nuclear contours and proliferation of these lymphocytes into the mucosa and epithelial glands

A

MALToma

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15
Q

Stomach biopsy reveals lymphoid aggregates in the lamina propria, columnar absorptive cells, and atrophy of glandular strctures

A

Chronic gastritis

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16
Q

Diffuse thickening of gastric folds, elevated serum gastrin levels, biopsy reveals glandular hyperplasia without foveolar hyperplasia

A

Zollinger-ellison

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17
Q

G cells secrete

A

Gastrin

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18
Q

I cells secrete

A

CCK

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19
Q

S cells secrete

A

Secretin

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20
Q

D cells secrete

A

Somatostatin

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21
Q

Parietal cells secrete

A

Gastric acid and IF

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22
Q

Chief cells secrete

A

Pepsinogen

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23
Q

Which GI ligament contains the portal triad and may be compressed to control bleeding?

A

Hepatoduodenal ligament.

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24
Q

Which GI ligament attaches the spleen to the posterior abdominal wall?

A

Splenorenal ligament.

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25
Q

Which GI ligament attaches the spleen to the stomach?

A

Gastrosplenic ligamnet.

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26
Q

Which 3 hormones stimulate pancreatic secretion?

A

ACh
CCK
Secretin

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27
Q

Name 10 etiologies of acute pancreatitis.

A 
GET SMASHED.
Gallstones
Ethanol
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmune disease
Scorpion stings
Hypercalcemia/hyperlipidemia
ERCP
Drugs (especially HIV Rx)
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28
Q

In addition to colon cancer, what is one of the most common causes of GI bleeding in elderly?

A

Angiodysplasia

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29
Q

3 most common causes of small bowel obstruction.

A

Adhesions*
Hernia
Tumor

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30
Q

What intestinal disorder is common in the NICU to premature babies that receive oral meds too soon?

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis

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31
Q

Serum albumin: Ascites gradient
When is it >1.1?
When is it <1.1?

A

> 1.1 in portal HTN.

<1.1 in cancer, nephrotic syndrome, TB, pancreatitis, biliary disease, and CT disease.

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32
Q

If you see hepatoencephalopathy in a child, you think

A

Reye’s syndrome.

33
Q

Budd Chiari syndrome is due to

A

occlusion of IVC or hepatic veins.

Associated with polycythemia vera, pregnancy, hepatocellular CA.

34
Q

Histological appearance of alcoholic hepatitis.

A

Mallory bodies! These are intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions.
The hepatocytes would look necrotic and swollen.

35
Q

Protozoan that causes liver abscesses and bloody diarrhea.

A

Entamoeba histolytica

36
Q

4 antibodies that can be used in dx of autoimmune hepatitis

A

ANA +
Anti-smooth muscle Ab +
Anti-liver-kidney microsomal Ab +
Anti-mitochondiral Ab -

37
Q

Risk factors for developing hepatic adenoma

A

Most often in females 20-44 y.o.

OCP use or anabolic steroids, glycogen storage diseases type I and II

38
Q

2 risk factors for hepatic angiosarcoma

A

Vinyl chloride

Arsenic

39
Q

Lab results in Hemochromatosis

A

Increased ferritin
Increased [transferrin]
Increased serum iron
Decreased TIBC

40
Q

5 risk factors for development of hepatocellular CA

A 
Hep B/C
Hemochromatosis
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
Hepatic adenoma
Alcohol cirrhosis
41
Q

3 causes of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemias due to inccreased bilirubin production

A

Hemolytic anemia
Sickle cell disease
Hematoma breakdown

42
Q

2 causes of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemias due to impaired bilirubin uptake and storage

A

Post-viral hepatitis

Rifampin

43
Q

3 causes of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemias due to decreased UDP-GT activity

A

Gilberts
Crigler-Najjar (Type I and II)
Neonatal physiologic jaundice

44
Q

2 causes of Conjugated hyperbilirubinemias due to impaired transport

A

Dubin Johnson syndrome

Rotor syndrome

45
Q

3 causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinemias due to biliary epithelial damage

A

Hepatitis
Cirrhosis
Liver failure

46
Q

3 causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinemias due to intrahepatic biliary obstruction

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis
Sclerosis cholangitis
Chlorpromazine, arsenic

47
Q

4 causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to extrahepatic biliary obstruction

A

Pancreatic neoplasm
Choledocholithiasis
Pancreatitis
Cholangiocarcinoma

48
Q

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis characteristics

A

+ ANA
Middle aged female
Autoimmune

49
Q

Primary Sclerosing Cholangiitis characteristics

A 
Unknown etiology
\+ pANCA
Males > 40
Associated with ULCERATIVE COLITIS and CHOLANGIOCARCINOMA.
ERCP shoes beading, stricturing.
50
Q

Reynold’s pentad for cholangitis

A 
Fever
Jaundice
RUQ pain
Hypotension
Altered mental status
51
Q

What are the arterial branches off the celiac trunk?

A

L. Gastric artery
Splenic artery
Common hepatic artery (which gives off the gastroduodenal artery, the R. gastric artery, and the hepatic artery.)
The gastroduodenal artery then gives off the R. gastroepiploic artery and superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
The R. gastric a. anastamoses with the L. gastric a.

52
Q

What are xanthomas composed of?

A

Lipid-laden histiocytes (the macrophages of the skin)

53
Q

Which deficiency causes familial hypercholesterolemia?

A

Deficiency of LDL receptors.

54
Q

Which apolipoprotein activates LCAT and where is it found?

A

Apo A1

In HDL

55
Q

Which apolipoprotein mediates chylomicron secreton and where is it found?

A

B-48

Found on chylomicrons and chylomicron remnants.

56
Q

Which apolipoprotein mediates VLDL secretion and binds the LDL receptor; where is it found?

A

Apo B-100
It is necessary for lipid recognition!!!
Its found on VLDL, IDL, and LDL.

57
Q

Which apolipoprotein is a cofactor for lipoprotein lipase and where is it found?

A

Apo CII

Chylomicrons, VLDL, HDL

58
Q

Which apolipoprotein mediates the uptake of remnant particles and where is it found?

A 
Apo E
Chylomicron
Chylomicron remnants
VLDL
IDL
HDL
****NOT LDL *****
59
Q

When looking at a slide of RBCs, you note the RBCs look spiny. What is likely to be deficient?

A

These are acanthocytes/burr cells. This pt probably has ABETALIPOPROTEINEMIA and thus is deficient in apoB100 and apoB48.

This is an autosomal recessive d/o in the microsomal triglyceride transfer protein gene (MTP). These patients would have decreased chylomicron and VLDL synthesis and secretion. Bx would show lipid accumulation within enterocytes due to the inability to export absorbed lipid as chylomicrons. These patients will also have ataxia and night blindness.

60
Q

4 GI pathologies associated with Down Syndrome

A

Duodenal atresia
Hirschsprung disease
Annular pancreas
Celiac disease

61
Q

Most common microbe found in colon

A 
B. fragilis
#2 is E. coli
62
Q

Type of polyp considered precursor to malignancy

A

Adenomatous

63
Q

Colon pathology with most malignant potential

A

Villous adenomas

64
Q

4 risk factors for colon cancer

A

Adenomatous polyps
High fat/low fiber diet
IBD
Age (with cancer syndromes)

65
Q

Classic presentation for diverticulosis

A

Usually asymptomatic
+/- painless rectal bleeing
+/- vague LLQ discomfort

66
Q

Portions of colon most commonly affected by volvulus

A

Sigmoid colon

Cecum

67
Q

50 y.o. female presents with pruritis w/o jaundice, lab reveals + AMA

A

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

68
Q

A patient with GI bleeding has buccal pigmentation –whats the dx and what does this put them at increased risk for?

A

Peutz-Jeghers. This is an AD syndrome featuring multiple non-malignant hamartomas throughout GI tract along with hyperpigmented mouth, lips, hands, genitalia. Its associated with increased risk of CRC/other visceral malignancies.

69
Q

60 y.o. female with RA and no alcohol hx presents with fatigue and right abdominal pain. Lab studies reveal high levels of ANA and anti-smooth muscle Ab, elevated serum IgG and no viral serologic markers

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

70
Q

Liver bx on a 23-year old female with elevated levels of LKM-1 abs, no alcohol hx, and no viral serologic markers reveals infiltration of the portal and periportal area with lymphocytes

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

71
Q

AFP levels >1000 pg/mL

A

Hepatocellular CA

72
Q

What is the Hep B status of a patient with a negative HepBsAg, positive HepBsAb, and a posiive HepBcAb?

A

Recovery phase

73
Q

What is the Hep B status of a patient with a negative HepBsAg, negative HepBsAb, and a positive HepBcAb?

A

Window phase

74
Q

4 extraintestinal manifestations seen in Ulcerative Colitis

A

Pyoderma gangrenosum (chronic, non-healing ulcer usually on lower legs; not specific for UC)
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Anyklosing spondylitis
Uveitis

75
Q

Major difference between Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis and Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

A

PSC involves intra- and extra-hepatic ducts.

PBC is a T-lymphocyte mediated attack against small intra-lobular bile ducts.

76
Q

6 things that the thoracic duct is responsible for draining

A

Most of the body incl. lower limbs, pelvis, abdomen, left thorax, left upper limb, left side of head and neck.

77
Q

5 areas drained by right lymphatic duct

A

right thorax, right upper limb, right head, right neck, most lung lobes (exception: LEFT UPPER LOBE)

78
Q

Name 8 organs found retroperitoneally.

A 
Pancreas
Abdominal aorta
IVC
Kidneys
Ureters
Duodenum (2nd, 3rd, 4th parts)
Ascending colon
Descending colon

DIT FACTS (16 decks)

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