GI #6 Flashcards

(57 cards)

1
Q

What is the diagnostic of choice for esophageal webs?

A

Barium esophagram (swallow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Treatment for esophageal web

A

Endoscopic dilation of the area

-PPI therapy after dilation to reduce recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an esophageal web?

A

Noncircumferential thin membrane in mid-upper esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Plummer-Vinson Syndrome?

A

Triad of dysphagia + cervical esophageal webs + iron deficiency anemia

(May also be associated with atrophic glossitis, angular cheilitis, splenomegaly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Patients with Plummer-Vinson Syndrome are at increased risk for _____

A

Esophageal Squamous Cell Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An esophageal (Shatzki) Ring is

A

-Circumferential diaphragm of tissue that protrudes into the esophageal lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

An esophageal ring is most common in which location?

A

Lower esophagus (at squamocolumnar junction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some risk factors for esophageal rings?

A

Hiatal Hernia
Acid reflux
Eosinophilic Esophagitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Symptoms of esophageal ring

A

-Episodic dysphagia (especially to solids) because bolus gets stuck in lower esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What diagnostic is the most sensitive for an esophageal ring?

A

-Barium Esophagram (Swallow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treatment for esophageal ring

A
  • Symptomatic: Dilation

- Antireflux surgery if reflux present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Esophageal varices are a complication of

A

portal vein hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the main risk factors in adults vs children for esophageal varices?

A

Adults: cirrhosis
Children: portal vein thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Symptoms of an esophageal varice

A

Upper GI Bleed: hematemesis, melena, hematochezia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Test of choice for esophageal varices

A

-Upper endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is included in the stabilization of the patient in managing an acute variceal bleed?

A
  • Stabilize patient: 2 large bore IV lines, IVF
  • -Packed red blood cells if low hematocrit
  • -FFP if increased INR and/or PT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the initial treatment of choice for an acute variceal bleed?

A

-Endoscopic intervention: endoscopic variceal ligation is initial treatment of choice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the first-line medical management for an acute variceal bleed?

A

Octreotide: somatostatin analog that causes vasoconstriction of the portal venous flow, decreasing portal pressure and reducing bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Second-line medical management for acute variceal bleed, if Octreotide is not an option

A
  • Vasopressin

- Adverse effects: causes vessel constriction in other areas such as an MI, bowel ischemia, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are other options, surgical-related, for acute variceal bleeds?

A
  • Balloon tamponade

- Surgical decompression: TIPS if not responsive to medication or advanced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What antibiotics are given to prevent infectious complications in an acute variceal bleed?

A

Fluoroquinolones (Norfloxacin) or Ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

To prevent a rebleed, what medication(s) are used

A

Nonselective beta blockers (Nadolol or Propanolol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Explain Celiac Disease (Sprue)

A

-Autoimmune-mediated inflammation of the small bowel due to reaction with alpha-gliadin in gluten-containing foods (wheat, rye, barley)

24
Q

What is the pathophysiology of celiac disease?

A

Loss of villi with subsequent malabsorption

25
Who is Celiac Disease most common in?
Females, European descent (Irish and Finnish)
26
Symptoms of Celiac Disease
- Malabsorption: diarrhea, abdominal pain, bloating, steatorrhea - Growth delays in children - Dermatitis herpetiformis: pruritic, papulovesicular rash on extensor surfaces, neck, trunk, and scalp
27
What is the initial test of choice for celiac disease?
-Transglutaminase IgA antibodies (Endomysial IgA antibodies)
28
However, what is the definitive and confirmatory diagnostic for Celiac Disease?
Small bowel biopsy (shows atrophy of the villi)
29
Treatment for celiac disease
- Gluten-free diet: avoid wheat, rye, barley - Limit oat consumption - Vitamin supplementation (iron, B6, B12, copper, zinc)
30
Lactose intolerance is the inability to digest lactose due to low levels of
lactase enzyme
31
Symptoms of lactose intolerance
-Loose stools, abdominal pain, flatulence, borborygmi after ingestion of milk products
32
What is the test of choice for lactose intolerance?
Hydrogen breath test
33
Treatment for lactose intolerance
- Lactose-free diet or use of enzymes | - Lactaid: prehydrolyzed milk
34
What are some risk factors for peanut and tree nut allergies
- Genetics | - Timing of exposure: delayed introduction of nuts until > 3 years = increased risk
35
Name 10 symptoms of a peanut/tree nut allergic reaction
- Pruritus - Wheezing - Arrythymias - Nausea, Vomiting - Dizziness, Sense of Doom - Conjunctival Injection - Cough - Rhinorrhea - Sneezing - Diarrhea
36
Treatment for an acute allergic reaction
- Antihistamines if mild | - Epinephrine if severe
37
Dumping syndrome, which is ______, is often a complication of _____
- Symptoms due to rapid gastric emptying when large amounts of carbs are ingested - Bariatric surgery
38
Symptoms of dumping syndrome
- Bloating, flatus, diarrhea, nausea (often within 15 minutes) - Then later, syncope, hypoglycemia
39
What diagnostics can be used to confirm rapid gastric emptying with dumping syndrome?
-Barium fluoroscopy and radionuclide scintigraphy
40
How do you manage a patient with dumping syndrome?
- Decreased carbohydrate intake - Eat more frequently with smaller meals - Protein rich foods - Separate liquids from solid intake by 30 minutes
41
What are the most common etiologies of a peptic ulcer?
- H. Pylori (MCC of gastritis) - NSAIDs and Aspirin (2nd MCC) - Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome (gastrin-producing tumor) - ETOH, Smoking, Stress - Males, elderly, steroids
42
MCC of upper GI bleed
PUD
43
What is the major difference in symptoms of a duodenal ulcer vs a gastric ulcer?
- Duodenal: dyspepsia classically relieved with food, antacids. Worse before meals or 2-5 hours after meals. - Gastric: symptoms classically worsened with food (especially 1-2 hours after), weight loss
44
Other symptoms of a peptic ulcer?
- Dyspepsia (burning, gnawing, epigastric pain) | - Nausea, Vomiting
45
If the ulcer is perforated, what would you expect the symptoms to be?
- Sudden onset of severe abdominal pain (may radiate to shoulder) - Peritonitis (rebound tenderness, guarding, rigidity)
46
What is the diagnostic of choice for PUD?
-Upper endoscopy with biopsy
47
All gastric ulcers need _________ to document healing even if asymptomatic
repeat upper endoscopy
48
What diagnostics can be done to confirm an H. Pylori infection
- Endoscopy with biopsy: GOLD STANDARD - Urea Breath Test: Noninvasive - H. Pylori Stool Antigen: Confirm eradication after therapy - Serologic Antibodies: Confirm, not for eradication
49
If the sample is H. Pylori positive, what treatment options can you suggest?
- Quadruple therapy: Bismuth + Tetracycline + Metronidazole + PPI x 14 days - Triple Therapy: Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin + PPI for 10-14 days (Metro if cannot take Amoxicillin) - Concomitant Therapy: CAMP for 10-14 days
50
If H. Pylori negative, what treatment should you recommend?
PPI, H2 blocker, Misoprostol, antacids, Bismuth, Sucralfate
51
If refractory to medication, what treatment should be pursued for PUD
- Parietal cell vagotomy | - Bilroth II (associated with Dumping Syndrome)
52
Name some facts about duodenal ulcers
- Almost always benign - MC in younger patients (30-55) - Better with meals - Increased damaging factors (acid, H. Pylori) - MC in duodenal bulb
53
Name some facts about gastric ulcers
- 4% malignant - MC in older patients (55-70) - Worse with meals - Decreased mucosal protective factors (NSAIDs, bicarb) - MC in antrum of stomach
54
Name some PPI Medications
Omeprazole Pantoprazole Rabeprazole
55
MOA of PPI medications
-Block H+/K+ ATP-ase (proton-pump) of parietal cell, reducing acid secretion
56
What are some common side effects of PPI's
- B12 deficiency - Diarrhea - Headache - Hypocalcemia, Hypomagnesemia
57
What is the most effective drug class to treat PUD?
PPI