GI cases Flashcards

1
Q

Peutz-Jeghers is what? and is associated with what two conditions?

A
  • it is hammartomatous polyps throughout GI track

- associated w: GI carcinoma, hyperpigmented lesions around mouth, hands, genitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma lesions usually present where

A

hard palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

oral hairy leukoplakia is associated with what

A

ebv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What disease does coxsackie virus cause in mouth and how does it present

A

(Hand-foot-mouth disease) painful vesicles or small white papules occur on an erythematous base typically at the junction of
the soft and hard palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dermatitis herpetiformis is assc with what disease? presents how? What pathogenesis

A

Celiac dz: vesicles on extensor surfaces of knees and elbows.
type III HSR with IgA-anti-IgA complex deposition at tip of dermal papillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CP: erythema multiform vs. SJS/TEN

A

erythema: targetoid lesions

SJS/TEN: blistering throughout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

erythema multiform vs. SJS/TEN: etiology

A

erythema: HSV, mycoplasma

SJS/TEN: drug rxn: NSAIDs, ABX, anti-epileptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bullous Pemphigoid vs Pemphigus Vulgaris: antibodies vs what? bullae presentation, sign?

A

Vulgaris: antibodies vs Desmosomes (clincially more severe), Nikolsky sign, flaccid bullae

Bullous: tense bullae, Anti-Hemidesmosome Abs, no sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the major risk factors for SqCC of the mouth? (4)

A

Alcohol, tobacco, HPV, chronic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

is SqCC of mouth painful or painless? MC population?

A

painless

MC >40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What direction/general location of the lesions has a better prognosis in oral SqCC

A

more anterior = better px (catch it sooner if it’s on the lips)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
Salivary gland tumors: MC:
age
sex
race
which gland
A

parotid
females
30-60
AA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

TEF: how does it present and why (3)

A
  1. polyhydramnios- baby can’t swallow and absorb amniotic fluid
  2. air in abdomen= distention
  3. pneumonitis (aspiration)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What doe sthe VATER syndrome stand for

A

V= vertebral
A = anal atresia
TE fistula
R - renal disease/radial agenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does VACTERL stand for

A
V = vertebral anomalies
A  = anal atresia
C= cardiac anomalies
TE fistula
R = renal disease/radial agenesis
L = limb abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does CHARGE stand for?

A
C= coloboma
H = heart defects
A = atresia of nasal choanae
R = retardation of development
G = GU abnormalities
E = ear abnl/deafness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does CREST stand for?

A
Calcinosis
Raynauds
Esophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangectasias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CP and test (and how performed) for Myasthenia Gravis

A

weaker as the day goes on

tensilon test - administer edrophonium (AChesterase inh) - if gets stronger = MG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pathogenesis of achalasia (primary and secondary)

A

Primary: myenteric plexus degeneration in LES –> decreased NO and VIP –> inability to relax LES

Secondary: Chagas (t. cruzi) damages plexus…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What 3 drug be used to treat Achlalasia and how does they work

A
  1. Botulism - ACH inhibitor –> decreased m. tone
  2. Nitrates: NO produciton
  3. CCB = sm relaxation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Candidiasis, HSV, CMV esophagitis:

drug tx

A

Candida: Fluconazole
HSV: Acyclovir
CMV: Gangcyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

2 possible outcomes of Barrets esophagus

A
  1. regression with mild dysplsia

2. continued exposure = increased dysplasia, CA, ulceration, stricture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does a Cushing ulcer cause Gastritis?

A

increased ICP due to trauma, etc –> increased ACh release –> increased acid production

24
Q

Which PUD shows pain that gets better with meals and what is the reasojn

A

Duodenal ulcer: pancreas secretes bicarb into duodenum with meals

25
What drug is a treatment for esophageal varices and how does it work
octreotide- decreases splanchnic BF to entire gastric tree
26
difference in gross apearnace and location of Esophageal Adenocarcinoma and esophageal SqCC?
adeno: flat lesion in lower 1/3 SqCC: exophytic lesion in upper2/3
27
what 3 sx are seen with gastric CA
weight loss, vomiting, epigastric pain
28
What are the 2 LNs assoc with gastric cancer (and where are they?)
Virchow's Node - supraclavicular | Sister Mary joseph Nodule - periumbilical
29
What are the 4 types of gastric CA and which are associated with H. pylori
GIST - GI stromal tumor Intestinal - associated with H.pylori Diffuse type MALToma/primay gastric malignant lymphoma
30
What mutations cause GIST (2) and is it benign or malignant
KIT or PDGF- benign
31
What causes intestinal-type adenoCA of stomach (4)
H.pylori metaplasia, smoked foods, smoking, achlorhydia
32
Diffuse type adenoCA of stomach: | micro appearance, gross appearance
micro: signet ring cells diffuse throughout gross: linitis plastica = thick stomach wall
33
Which 2 bacteria cause diarrhea with inflammation? What is found in stool?
Shigella, Campylobacter WBCs in stool
34
Which 2 bacteria cause diarrhea with NO inflammationo?
ETEC, vibrio cholerae
35
How do you dx Celiac dz? (3) and what is one sx?
small bowel bx shows blunted villi Anti-endomysial, or anti-transglutaminase Abs sx = steatorrhea
36
What is one etiology of lactose intolerance
vrial illness --> blunting and atrophy of the intestinal villi --> diarrhea, steatorrhea
37
tx for tropical and celiac sprue
``` celiac = gluten free diet tropical = abx ```
38
Whipple disease: etiology, finding, associated complications (3)
T. whipplei infx PAS+ foamy macrophages complications: cardiac, arthralgia, neurologic
39
3 things that C.diff presents with
watery stool leukocytosis fever
40
What are the 2 exotoxins in C. diff and what do they cause
Exotoxin A: watery diarrhea, cell death, infl Exotoxin B: actin depolymerization --> pseudomembranes
41
What 2 drugs tx C.diff
oral vancomycin, metronidazole
42
4 CP of appendicits
fever, nausea, diarrhea, peritonitis
43
What is elevated in appendicitis (2)
WBC, CRP
44
Rovsing's sign
RLQ with palpationof LLQ
45
McBurney sign
sever RLQ pain with rebound tenderness
46
What is the etiology and course of appendicitis
fecalith or lymphoid hyperplasia in appendix --> inflammation --> edema --> venous congestion --> rupture --> pain improvement --> peritonitis
47
What else can present with LLQ pain besides Appendicitis?
Intussuception
48
Intussuception: CP (2), dx, tx
CP: intermittent pain (colicky), "currant jelly stool dx: US of abdomen tx : air enema
49
Tx steps for lower GI bleed
1. stabilize (fluids, pRBC) 2. hold offending meds (NSAIDs) 3. PPI + octreotide 4. SCope 5. tagged RBC scan
50
Meckel's diverticulum: pathogenesis, CP
vitelline duct persists --> can contain ectopic gastric (can release acid --> painless bleed) or pancreatic tissue
51
What are meckels rules of 2's
``` ~2% of pop = MC congenital malf 2 feet of ileocecal valve 2 inches long 2x as common in males symptomatic by age 2 ```
52
How does diverticulitis present (4)
Fever, LLQ pain, leukocytosis, diarrhea
53
tx for diverticulitis
Abx (metronidazole) or surgery
54
4 things that cause ileus
Surgeries, opiates, hypokalemia, sepsis
55
preferred screening guideline for Colorectal cancer?
``` COLONSCOPY At 50 (or 10 years younger than youngest relative with colorectal cancer) – whichever is youngest ```
56
What is dx? Dysphagia, GERD , hx of autoimmune problems what labs?
scleroderma anti-centromere Abs