GI drugs Flashcards

1
Q

What is acid-peptic disease?

A

Disease of upper digestive tract caused by acid and pepsin - ex. gastroesophageal reflux, erosions, ulcers - due to gastric acid, decreased mucosal resistance to acid, H. pylori infection, Drugs (NSAIDs, warfarin and corticosteroids), stress, life style, gastrinoma

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2
Q

What is Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

Hypersecretion of gastric acid and pepsin most commonly due to gastrinoma - it is associated with severe acid-peptic ulcerations and diarrhea

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3
Q

What is a gastrinoma?

A

Tumor that produces large amounts of gastrin - this is associated with hypersecretion of gastric acid and pepsin leading to ulcerations

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4
Q

What is carcinoid syndrome?

A

Neoplasm of the GI tract or bronchi that secretes serotonin and other peptides - symptoms include skin flushing, facial skin lesions, diarrhea, difficulty breathing, rapid heartbeat

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5
Q

What are the categories of drugs used to treat acid peptic disease?

A
  1. Antacids - neutralize gastric acid
  2. H2 receptor blockers and proton pump inhibitors - reduce gastric acid secretion
  3. antimicrobial treatment - to eradicate H. pylori infection
  4. mucosal protective agents - help to augment mucosal surface defense
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6
Q

What are antacids and the most commonly used antacids?

A

Gastric antacids - weak bases that react with gastric HCl to form salt and water in order to increase gastric pH. The purpose of antacids are to provide quick relief of symptoms. Antacids may also affect drug absorption.

Common antacids:

  1. Magnesium hydroxide
  2. Aluminum hydroxide
  3. Calcium carbonate
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7
Q

What are the adverse effects of magnesium hydroxide?

A

Produces Mg salt, which is not absorbed very well leading to diarrhea

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8
Q

What are the adverse effects of aluminum hydroxide?

A

Reacts with HCl to form aluminum chloride which is insoluble leading to constipation. There is also hypophosphatemia.

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9
Q

What are the adverse effects of Calcium carbonate?

A

Hypercalcemia, nephrolithiasis, constipation

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10
Q

How do antacids affect drug absorption?

A
  1. decrease oral absorption of tetracyclines via milk (Ca2+), antacids (Ca2+ or Mg2+), or iron preparations (via chelation)
  2. increase oral absorption of weak bases (ex. quinidine)
  3. decrease oral absorption of weak acids (ex. warfarin)
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11
Q

What is the regulation of gastric acid secretion?

A
  1. Acetylcholine - binds M3 leading to elevation of Ca2+ to activate protein kinase
  2. Histamine - Gs activation increasing adenylate cyclase
  3. Gastrin - elevate Ca2+ to activate protein kinase
    * All three of these terminate in the activation of the H+/K+ ATPase pathway
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12
Q

What are the different H2 receptor blockers used to decrease gastric acid secretion?

A
  1. Cimetidine
  2. Ranitidine
  3. Famotidine
  4. Nizatidine
    * Ranitidine, Famotidine, Nizatidine - longer acting and more potent than the 1st generation Cimetidine
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13
Q

What is the role of H2 receptor blockers in the decrease of gastric acid secretion?

A

H2 blockers reduce almost 90% of basal gastric acid secretions. They do not have any effect on gastric emptying fine. H2 blockers are reversible receptor blockers therefore are usually give more than once a day.
Not only do they decrease amt of gastric acid secretion they are shown to be effective in promoting the healing of duodenal, gastric ulcers and relieving GERD. If monotherapy of H2 antagonist is used and then terminated, peptic ulcer recurrence is common.
H2 blockers may also be used preoperatively in the prevention of aspiration pneumonia (regurgitation of acid).
May be used to treat acute stress ulcers which are common in trauma and high risk patients in ICU. In this case, the H2 blocker is given via IV and not orally. It can also be used as a prophylaxis for pts in ICU.

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14
Q

What are the adverse effects of H2 blockers?

A

Cimetidine has anti-androgenic effects leading to gynecomastia, elevated prolactin levels, decreased libido, confusion in elderly and may cross BBB or placenta. Ranitidine, Famotidine, Nizatidine do not produce these same effects that cimetidine does. The newer drugs also DO NOT inhibit mixed-function oxygenase systems in the liver (CYP450 enzymes). The most common side effects are nausea, headache, and dizziness due to their entrance in to the CNS.
Cimetidine and ranitidine can decrease renal excretion of creatinine.
Cimetidine is a strong inhibitor of cytochrome P450 slowing metabolism of drugs such as warfarin, procainamide, phenytoin, benzos, theophylline, imipramine and quinidine.

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15
Q

What is the mechanism of proton pump inhibitors to control gastric acid secretion? Give examples of specific PPIs.

A

PPIs are consumed (IV or PO) as a prodrug that is converted to its active form in the parietal cells. Once in its active form it reacts with a cysteine residue of the H+/K+ ATPase forming a stable covalent bond leading to IRREVERSIBLE inactivation of the enzyme. Because it creates a reversible bond, the drug only needs to be given once a day (nearly 100% of the gastric acid secretion is inhibited with a single daily dose).

PPIs are used to treat…

  1. GERD, duodenal and gastric ulcers, MEN-1 or zollinger-Ellison syndrme
  2. heals ulcers in combination with Abx for H. pylori
  3. Treats NSAID induced ulcers by supporting platelet aggregation and maintaining clot integrity needed in hemorrhagic ulcers
Omeprazole (first generation)
Esomeprazole
Lansoprazole
Rabeprazole
Pantoprazole
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16
Q

What are the side effects of PPIs?

A
  1. nausea or diarrhea (but usually well tolerated)
  2. long term administration of omeprazole in animals has been linked to gastric carcinoid tumors (but this is not seen in humans)
  3. Omeprazole is a CYP450 inhibitor thereby inhibiting metabolism of Warfarin, clopidogrel, phenytoin, diazepam and cyclosporine
  4. small increase in respiratory and GI infections with long term use
  5. few cases have shown pancreatitis, hepatotoxicity, and interstitial-nephritis
  6. Prolonged use of PPIs and H2 blockers decrease bioavailability of vitamin B12, digoxin and ketoconazole b/c acid is required for their absorption
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17
Q

How do you diagnose an H. pylori infection?

A
  1. endoscopic biopsy of ulcer margin
  2. serologic tests
  3. urea breath tests
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18
Q

What are the first line antibiotics used to treat H. pylori?

A
ANTIMICROBIALS
Macrolides - Clarithromycin
B-lactams - Amoxicillin
Antiprotozoals - Metronidazole
Broad-spectrum antibiotics - Tetracycline

Treatment regimens…
PPI+Clarithromycin+amoxicillin = 10-14 days
PPI+Clarithromycin+metronidazole = 10-14 days
Bismuth subsalicylate+metronidazole+tetracycline+Ranitidine or PPI = 10-14 days

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19
Q

What is the role of macrolides (ex. Clarithromycin) in the treatment of H. pylori?

A

Clarithromycin is a bacteriostatic antimicrobial that binds to the 23S rRNA of the 50S bacterial ribosomal subunit thereby inhibiting protein synthesis by preventing translocation. Clarithromycin is given orally or via IV and resistance can be acheieved via methylation of the 23S rRNA-binding site preventing binding of the drug.
Clarithromycin is used to treat…. H. pyloria, atypical pneumonia, community-acquired pneumonia, pertussis, corynebacteria, and chlamydial infections

AE - binds motilin receptors, GI upset, prolonged QT intervals (causing arrhythmias), hepatitis, rash, eosinophilia

*It also increases serum concentration of theophyllin and oral anticoagulants as it inhibits CYP450 inhibition

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20
Q

What is the role of B-lactams (ex. Amoxicillin) in the treatment of H. pylori?

A

Amoxicillin is a bacteriocidal antimicrobial that binds transpeptidase (penicillin-binding proteins [PBP]) thereby preventing cross-linking of peptidoglycans in the cell wall. It also activates autolytic enzymes. Amoxicillin is administered orally or via IV and resistance can be achieved when B-lactamase cleaves the B-lactam ring on the drug.
Amoxicillin is effective against H pylori we well as gram positive and some gram negative bacteria.

AE - rash, hypersensitivity reactions, pseudomembrane colitis

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21
Q

What is the role of Antiprotozoals (ex. Metronidazole) in the treatment of H. pylori?

A

Metronidazole inhibits the electron transport system thereby producing toxic metabolites in the bacterial cell that damages DNA. Metronidazole is administered orally or via IV.
Metronidazole is active against H. pylori, anaerobes (C. difficile, bacteriodes), antiprotozoal

AE - severe flushing, tachycardia, hypotension with alcohol, metallic taste, headache, disulfiram reaction

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22
Q

What is the role of Broad-spectrum antibiotics (ex. Tetracycline) in the treatment of H. pylori?

A

Tetracycline is an antibiotic that binds to the 30S ribosomal subunit and prevents attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA. It is administered orally or via IV and resistance may be caused by reduced uptake or enhanced efflux out of the bacterial cells by plasmid-encoded transport pumps.
Tetracycline is effective against H. pylori, Chlamydia, Rickettsia, M pneumonia, Borrelia burgdorferi, and acne tx (at low dose).

AE - Gi upset, discoloration of teeth, inhibition of bone growth in children, superinfection, photosensitivity.

*do not use during pregnancy

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23
Q

What is the role of mucosal protective agents?

A

Sucralfate, Bismuth subsalicylate, Misoprostol

Sucralfate - sulfated disaccharide used in peptic ulcer disease. The drug undergoes polymerization and selective binding to necrotic tissue where it acts as a barrier to acid. [it may also stimulate endogenous prostaglandin synthesis]. Sucralfate requires an acidic pH to be activated therefore should not be administered with H2 blockers, PPIs or other antiacids.

Bismuth Subsalicylate - selectively binds to ulcer creating coat and protects it from acid and pepsin. It has some antimicrobial effect on H. pylori when used with metronidazole and Tetracycline.

Misoprostol - PGE1 analogue that decreases acid secretion, stimulates mucin and bicarb production (and causes uterine contractions). It is approved to prevent gastric ulcers induced by NSAIDs, but because of its adverse effects, it is less effective than PPIs or H2 blockers in acute cases. It is given orally and lasts for minutes.

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24
Q

What are the adverse effects of Misoprostol (PGE1)?

A

Diarrhea, uterine cramping, abortifacient, exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

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25
Q

What is GERD?

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disease - the LES normally acts as barrier b/t stomach and esophagus. With GERD there is abnormal relaxation of the LES allowing for the release of stomach acid into the esophagus. GERD is associated with increased BMI (obesity), ZES and drugs.
Non-pharmacological treatment of GERD - small meals, weight loss, avoid bed time acid rich drinks, elevate head of the bed 6-8 inches and lifestyle modifications (stop smoking and consuming alcohol)
Pharmacological treatments of GERD - Antacids, PPIs +/- H2 blockers

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26
Q

What GI symptoms are treatment with prokinetic drugs?

A

Abdominal discomfort, bloating, heart burn, nausea, vomiting, gastroparesis (paralysis of GI tract) and GI movement disorders.

Ex. metoclopramide, 5HT4 agonists, Cholinomimetics, Macrolides

27
Q

What is Metoclopramide?

A

Metoclopramide is a prokinetic drug that blocks 5-HT3 and D2 receptors. It’s prokinetic activity is mediated by muscarinic activity via 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity which accelerates gastric emptying and intestinal motility.
At higher doses, 5-HT3, antagonist activity may also contributeto the anti-emetic effect.

Metoclopramide is used in diabetic, post-op gastroparesis as well as relief of GERD symptoms. It is also associated with chemotherapeutic agents preventing nausea and vomiting.

AE - anti-dopaminergic effects (parkinsonian effects), sedation, diarrhea, increased prolactin, infertilit – the parkinsonian effects limit its high doses and long term uses

28
Q

What is Cisapride?

A

Cisapride is a prokinetic, 5HT4 agonist used in gastroparesis, GERD and constipation by stimulating ACh.

AE - arrhythmias

29
Q

What is the role of cholinomimetics on the GI tract?

A

Neostigmine - used in colonic pseudo-obstruction in hospitalized pts

Bethanechol - resistant to cholinesterase, long duration fo action, used in post op bowel and bladder atony

*both function as prokinetics

30
Q

What is the role of macrolides on prokinetic movement of the GI tract?

A

Erythromycin is given IV and acts on motilin receptors of the GIT. It is therefore used for gastric empyting before upper GI endoscopic procedures. Tolerance may develop if used for extended periods leading to gastroparesis.

31
Q

What is Ondansetron (Zofran)?

A

5HT3 antagonist used as antiemetic. It blocks the chemoreceptor trigger zone and enteric nervous system of 5-HT3 receptors. It is used as an anti-emetic during chemotherapy and postoperative vomiting. It can be administered orally (prophylaxis) or via IV and has a duration of about 3-6 hrs.

AE - QT prolongation leading to possible arrhythmias

32
Q

What are Diphenydramine, Cyclizine, Meclizine?

A

H1 antihistamines used as anti-emetics
These drugs act as competitive pharmacologic blocks of peripheral and CNS H1 receptors as well as a- and M-receptor blockers. It therefore has an anti-motion sickness effect along with anti-emetic effect.
These drugs can be used to treat hay fever, angioedema, motion sickness, OTC as sleep aid.

AE - sedation, autonomic block, rare CNS excitation

33
Q

What is Scopolamine?

A

Antimuscarinic used as a transdermal patch for anti-motion sickness [anti-emetic]

34
Q

What is Aprepitant and Fosaprepitant?

A

NK1 receptor blockers used as anti-emetics

Aprepitant - substance P antagonist, given PO whereas Fosaprepitant is given via IV. These drugs block the NK1- receptors in the CNS thereby decreasing early and delayed emesis in cancer chemo.

AE - dizziness, fatigue, diarrhea, CYP interactions are possible

35
Q

What are Dexamethazone and methylprednisolone?

A

Glucocorticoid (corticosteroids) agonists used as anti-emetics [hydrocortisone, prednisone, prednisolone, budesonide]

These glucocorticoids activate glucocorticoid receptors thereby altering gene transcription. They can be used in any inflammatory conditions (UC or CD), organ transplant, hematologic cancer. These agonists have a longer half-life due to its own gene transcription effects.

Corticosteroids can be combined with Ondansetron to increase anti-emetic effect and is the choice treatment for chemotherapy induced nausea and vomiting.

AE - adrenal suppression, growth inhibition, muscle wasting, osteoporosis, salt retention, glucose intolerance, behavioral changes

36
Q

What is the role of D2 receptor antagonists used as anti-emetics? Give examples.

A

Phenothiazines, promethazine, droperidol

Phenothiazines (prochlorperazine) - antagonist at D2 receptors and muscarinic receptors [AE - extrapyramidal symptoms, hypotension, sedation]

Promethazine - anti-dopaminergic and anticholinergic used as antiemetic, antipsychotic effects and sedative

Droperidol - anti-dopinergic, antiemetic, antipsychotic and neuroleptic analgesic agent

37
Q

What is the role of Benzodiazepines on the GI system?

A

Lorazepam, Alprazolam, diazepam - all have low Anti-emetic

The beneficial effects of these drugs may be due to their sedation, anxiolytic and amnesic properties. It is also used for anticipatory vomiting.

38
Q

What is Dronabinol?

A

Cannabinoid used as anti-emetic. It acts on CB1 receptors as agonist.

39
Q

What is the effect of Loperamide and Diphenoxylate on the GI system?

A

These are opiate derivatives used as anti-diarrheals or IBS (loperamide). They act on GI mu-opioid receptors inhibiting acetylcholine release and decrease peristalsis (slowing gut motility). There is negligible CNS effects, unless Diphenoxylate is given at high doses. Diphenoxylate is formulated with atropine to reduce abuse potential. There is a risk of toxic megacolon in children or pts with severe colitis.

Loperamide = Imodium
Diphenoxylate = Lomotil
40
Q

What is Octreotide?

A

Somatostatin analog used an anti-diarrheal.
Octreotide is used to treat diarrhea and flushing associated with carcinoid syndrome or VIP-secreting tumors.It can also be used to control acute bleeding from esophageal varices and in acromegaly (??). Octreotide is given as subcutaneous injection or intra-muscularly for long-actiging formulation.

AE - GI disturbance, gallstones, bradycardia, cardiac conduction anomalies

41
Q

What is Bismuth subsalicylate?

A

Bismuth subsalicylate is used as muco-protective (antacid) as well as antidiarrheal. It decreases inflammation associated with E. coli by binding its toxins.

42
Q

What is the role of Senna, bisacodyl and Castor oil?

A

These are stimulants used as laxatives. They may cause cramping or lead to a habit of perceived need for laxatives.

*Senna - used in combination with docusate (make stools softer and easier to pass), to treat cases of opioid-induced constipation.

43
Q

What is the role of Methylcellulose, Psyllium and bran?

A

These are bulk-forming agents used as laxatives. They are insoluble indigestible derivatives from fruit, vegetables (hydrophilic colloids). These are non-absorbable agents that increase water retention causing stools to become bulky. The distention of the bowel is what leads to peristaltic stimulation of the gut.

44
Q

What is the role of Magnesium oxide, magnesium hydroxide?

A

These are osmotic agents used as laxatives. The magnesium prep osmotically draws water into the lumen of the GIT which stimulates motility.
These are used from simple constipation to a bowel prep for endoscope.

AE - Mg maybe absorbed causing toxicity and renal impairment

45
Q

What is the role of lactulose?

A

Osmotic agent used as laxative. It is a semi-synthetic disaccharide sugar that acts as a osmotic laxative. The intestinal bacteria converts lactulose into lactic, formic and acetic acid which all increase the osmotic effect.
Lactulose can also be used to treat hepatic encephalopathy to draw ammonia (NH3) from the body thereby preventing hyperammonia.

46
Q

What is PEG (polyethylene glycol)?

A

Osmotic agent used as laxative for endoscopic and radiological procedures.

**colonoscopy

47
Q

What is the role of Glycerin, docusate and mineral oil?

A

These are stool-softening laxatives.

Gycerin - induces hyperosmotic effect that can be used as a enema

Mineral oil and docusate sodium (Colace) - emulsify stool and softens and lubricates it

48
Q

What is Lubiprostone?

A

Prostanoic acid derivative used as chloride channel activator thereby acting as a laxative and used in constipation associated IBS. It increases chloride secretion in to the GI tract therefore increasing fluid content.

49
Q

What is Alvimopan and Methylnaltrexone?

A

These are opioid receptor antagonists used as laxatives. They block GI mu-receptors inducing constipation, but DO NOT enter the CNS.

50
Q

What is Sulfasalazine?

A

This is an aminosalicylate used to treat mild to moderate crohn’s and ulcerative colitis [on proximal, distal colon and rectum]. It inhibits the eicosanoid inflammatory mediators. Sulfasalazine is converted to sulfapyridine (antibacterial) and 5-aminosalicylic acid (5-ASA) [anti-inflammatory] by colonic bacteria.

AE - nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, hypersensitivity, reversible oligospermia, bone marrow suppression related to sylfapyridine release from sulfaxalazine

*should be avoided in pts with sulfa allergy

51
Q

What is Mesalamine?

A

An aminosalicylate used to treat mild to moderately severe Crohn’s disease and UC. It inhibits eicosanoid inflammatory mediators and is designed to be delivered directly to the distal ileum and colon. There is little or no toxicity involved in this medication.

52
Q

What is Balsalazide?

A

Prodrug that releases mesalamine (5-ASA) in the large intestines to treat UC.

53
Q

What is Budesnoide?

A

glucocorticoid that are given as a controlled released formulation in distal ileum and colon

54
Q

What is methotrexate (MTX)?

A

Methotrexate is an immunosuppresant that is cytotoxic to rapidly dividing immune cells due to inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase. MTX is used to treat anti-cancer, rheumatic disorder, UC and CD.

*MTX eliminated via renal excretion

AE - nausea, mucosal ulcers, hematotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, teratogenicity

55
Q

What is 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP) and azathioprine?

A

Azathioprine is a prodrug of 6-mercaptopurine. It inhibits de novo purine synthesis and promotes apoptosis. It is used to treat AML (at high doses), and UC or CD at low doses.

AE - nausea and vomiting, myelosuppression, immunosuppression, hepatotoxicity

56
Q

What is Infliximab and Adalimumab?

A

These are anti-TNF-a drugs used to treat Crohns disease and UC remissions. They are humanized Monoclonal antibodies that target TNF-a. Treats ankylosing spondylitis and psoriatic arthritis.

Methotrexate+Infliximab - treats rheumatoid arthritis

AE - infusion reactions and infections.

Adalimumab - completely human IgG monoclonal antibody that binds TNF-a

57
Q

What is Natalizumab?

A

Anti-integrin agent that blocks leukocyte integrins – it has restricted use as it leads to multifocal leukoencephalopathy.

58
Q

How do you characterize IBS?

A

diarrhea (D), constipation (C) or alternating (A) – chronic symptoms with no structural abnormalities and abdominal pain correlated with altered stool frequency, pain relief upon defecation and altered stool appearance

59
Q

Which anticholinergics can be used to treat IBS?

A

Hyposcyamine, Dicyclomine, Glycopyrrolate, Methscopalamine

These are non-selective against the gut and are used to treat IBS.

AE - delirium, hallucinations, seizure, coma, tachycardia, hypertension, hyperthermia, mydriasis, decreased bowel sounds, urinary retention

60
Q

What is Alosetron?

A

5-HT3 antagonist used to treat IBS
It has long duration of action with high potency. It reduces smooth muscle activity in the gut therefore is best for severe IBS with diarrhea.
Rare serious constipation, ischemic colitis and infarct may occur.

61
Q

What is Ursodiol?

A

Bile acid therapy used for gallstones when a pt refuses or is ineligible for surgery. Cholesterol gallstones can be inhibited by the bile acid derivative ursodiol. The medication is administered orally and there is little to no toxicity.

62
Q

What is Pancrelipase?

A

Replacement enzyme from animal pancreatic extract used in pancreatic insufficiency. It improves the digestion of dietary fat, protein and carbs and increases absorption of vitamin D,A,K,E.
This is used in pts with chronic pancreatitis, after pancreatectomy, with steatorrhea or has cystic fibrosis associated insufficiencies.

63
Q

What is Orlistat?

A

Gastric and pancreatic lipase inhibitor used in weight loss. It decreases absorption of vitamin D, A, K, E.