GI incorrects Flashcards
(114 cards)
30 YO woman. diagnosed with iron deficiency. been taken iron supplements. some looseness of her stools and
low hemoglobin, low mcv, low ferritin
anti-ttg
coeliac disease most likely 30
pernicious anemia would cause macrocytic anemia! and iron deficiency anemia
A 38 year old woman has abdominal pain 7 days after a laparoscopic sleeve gastrectomy for weight loss.Her temperature is 36.5°C, pulse rate 110 bpm, BP 120/72 mmHg and oxygen saturation 96% breathing oxygen 4 L/min via nasal prongs. She has reduced breath sounds in both bases. She has abdominal tenderness with guarding and reduced bowel sounds.
Which is the most appropriate diagnostic investigation?
A. Abdominal X-ray
B. Barium enema
C. CT of abdomen
D. Erect chest X-ray
E. Point-of-care FAST scan
Correct Answer(s): C
Justification for correct answer(s): The question aims to assess investigation of an acute abdomen following abdominal surgery. A CT scan (usually with intravenous contrast) is most likely to provide diagnostic information to plan further management. None of the other investigations are likely to be useful in
The question is DIAGNOSTIC investigation not first investigation. Gold standard in bowel obstruction = CT
A 53 year old woman has 6 days of worsening abdominal pain. She has also had recent constipation. There is no rectal bleeding.Her temperature is 37.8°C, pulse rate 105 bpm and BP 140/85 mmHg. She has tenderness in the left iliac fossa with some guarding. Bowel sounds are normal. Rectal examination shows hard stools only.
Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ischaemic colitis
B. Meckel’s diverticulitis
C. Proctocolitis
D. Rectal carcinoma
E. Sigmoid diverticulitis
UKMLA ppq
Diverticulitis s
A 65 year old woman has had bloody diarrhoea six times each day for the past 4 weeks and is feeling unwell. She has noticed urgency to pass stool and has to get up in the night to pass stool. Her left eye has been red, but not painful.Her temperature is 38.5°C, pulse rate 109 bpm, BP 110/70 mmHg and respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute.Investigations:
Stool culture: negative
Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Adenocarcinoma of the colon
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Irritable bowel syndrome
D. Microscopic colitis
E. Ulcerative colitis
UKMLA ppq
Ulcerative colitis!
- A 48 year old man has 1 day of severe right upper quadrant pain. He has vomited five times. He smokes 10 cigarettes per day and drinks 31 units of alcohol per week.His temperature is 37.8°C, pulse rate 90 bpm and BP 140/84 mmHg. He is tender in the epigastrium and right upper quadrant, and there is voluntary guarding.Investigations:White cell count 15 × 109/L (3.8– 10.0)ALT 41 IU/L (10–50)
Alkaline phosphatase 125 IU/L (25–115) Bilirubin 14 μmol/L (<17)Amylase 222U/L (<220) CRP 42 mg/L (<5)
UKMLA question!!
History and investigations fit with acute cholecystitis. amylase not high enough for acute pancreatitis. would expect higher bilirubin with cholangitis. biliary colic would not have inflammatory Response. LFTS do not fit with hepatitis
Patient with hepatomegaly and T2DM. 16 units of alcohol a week. Alt is raised all other LFTs normal. Ferritin very raised. Most appropriate next investigation?
management?
Transferrin saturation to investigate hemochromatosis
venesection
desferroxiamine second line
A 53 year old man has increasing abdominal swelling over several weeks,
with severe abdominal pain developing over the past 12 hours. He drinks one
to two bottles of vodka per day.
He has jaundice. His temperature is 37.6°C. He has spider naevi and
prominent veins on his abdominal wall. His abdomen is diffusely tender.
Investigations:
Haemoglobin 136 g/L (130–175)
White cell count 9.6 × 109
/L (3.8–10.0)
Platelets 160 × 109
/L (150–400)
INR 1.2 (1.0)
ALT 350 IU/L (10–50)
ALP 140 IU/L (25–115)
Bilirubin 78 μmol/L (<17)
Ultrasound scan of abdomen shows ascites with mild hepatosplenomegaly.
what is the most appropriate next step?
ascitic tap!!! - would reveal wbcs with neutrophil predominance
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) should
be suspected in patients with ascites due to cirrhosis who develop symptoms
such as fever, abdominal pain or tenderness, and confusion.
A 53 year old woman has 6 months of worsening tiredness.
She has jaundice, xanthelasma and 7 cm non-tender hepatomegaly.
Investigations:
INR 1.2 (1.0)
ALT 60 IU/L (10–50)
ALP 302 IU/L (25–115)
Bilirubin 50 µmol/L (<17)
Antinuclear antibodies 1:40 (negative at 1:20)
Antimitochondrial antibodies 1:320 (negative at 1:20)
Ultrasound scan of abdomen hepatosplenomegaly, no biliary dilatation
diagnosis?
most appropriate treatment?
primary billiary cirrhosis!!! -> raised ALP, AMA positive, no evidence of obstruction!!!
ursodeoxycholic acid!!!
which type of inflammatory bowel disease involves presence of crypts abscesses!! and depletion of goblet cells?
Widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa which has the appearance of polyps (‘pseudopolyps’)
ulcerative colitis
vs deep ulcers in chrons disease
A 57-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a two-day history of abdominal pain and fever. She has a significant medical history of severe alcoholism, consuming at least 65 units of alcohol per week for the past 10 years. On examination, she appears to be in pain, exhibits a distended abdomen without shifting dullness, and has a jaundiced sclera.
raised lfts
most likely diagnosis?
managment?
alcoholic hepatitis!!
glucocorticoids!! eg prednisolone!!!!
this is not alcohol withrdawal!
this is not hepatic encephalopathy as there is no confusion, if it was, you would use rifaximin
First episode of C difficile treatment?
A recurrent episode of C. difficile within 12 weeks of symptom resolution should be treated wit
treatment for life threatening c difficile infection and criteria?
oral vancomycin aloneee for 10 days.
second line = oral fidoxmycin. must stop oral vancomycin first!!
still doesnt clear up = oral vancomycin + iv metro
oral!! fidaxomicin!!
Oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole. hypotension, ileus, or toxic megacolon.
name the types of surgery based on the location of the colon cancer
Sigmoid colon = High anterior resection
Upper rectum = Anterior resection
Low rectum = Anterior resection
Anal verge = Abdomino-perineal excision of rectum
the colon itself = hemicolectomy
A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with progressive abdominal swelling and no significant past medical history. On examination, his abdomen is distended and shifting dullness is present. Fluid aspiration from his abdomen and subsequent blood tests reveal the following results:
Serum albumin 31 g/L
Ascites albumin 11 g/L
What is the most likely cause of his presentation?
a high SAAG gradient (> 11g/L) indicates portal hypertension!!
Liver disorders are the most common cause
cirrhosis/alcoholic liver disease
acute liver failure
liver metastases
Cardiac
right heart failure
constrictive pericarditis
Other causes
Budd-Chiari syndrome
portal vein thrombosis
veno-occlusive disease
myxoedema
low saag indicates a peritoneal cause of ascites, including tuberculous peritonitis and peritoneal mesothelioma or nephrotic syndrome
Patients aged ≥ 60 years with anaemia (even in the absence of iron deficiency) should have a FIT test first to determine need for urgent colorectal cancer pathway referral
If a mild-moderate flare of distal ulcerative colitis doesn’t respond to topical (rectal) aminosalicylates then oral aminosalicylates should be added. still no response, oral corticosteroids.
how should a severe flare be treated?
signs of a severe flare?
admission and iv steroids
Features of severe disease include
>6 bloody stools per day + features of systemic upset (pyrexia, tachycardia, anaemia, raised inflammatory markers/ an ESR >30mm/hour.
A 64-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain that ‘comes and goes’ over the course of the past day. He is vomiting and hasn’t been able to eat. On examination, he has scleral icterus. There is guarding in the right upper quadrant. His heart rate is 110bpm, respiratory rate 25/min, temperature 37.9ºC, BP 100/60 mmHg.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
acute cholangitis!!!
note acute cholecystitis does not cause jaundice. lfts may be normal in acute cholecystitis and amylase may be slightly raised vs 3x upper limit criteria in pancreatitis
similarly fever in cholecystitis and not in biliary colic
ascites secondary to liver cirrhosis treatment?
spirinolactone
how should a colonic tumour with signs of perforation be managed?
(extraluminal air and a paracolic fluid collection). signs and symptoms of perforation (shallow breathing, abdominal distension, hypotension and tachycardia).
end colostomy/ end stoma
hemorrhoids grading system
Grade I Do not prolapse out of the anal canal
Grade II Prolapse on defecation but reduce spontaneously
Grade III Can be manually reduced
Grade IV Cannot be reduced
Ulcerative colitis inducing remission?
Chrons disease inducing remission?
maintaining remission in these conditions?
ulcerative colitis
mild to moderate
= salisciliates (topical/rectal first then oral), then ORAL glucocorticoids
(note you dont stop one, you just add on the next if not enough)
Severe
= IV glucocorticoids. if still not resolving consider IV ciclosporin or surgery
Features of severe disease include
>6 bloody stools per day + features of systemic upset (pyrexia, tachycardia, anaemia, raised inflammatory markers/ an ESR >30mm/hour.
*note -> if lesion extends past the left-sided colon, oral aminosalicylates should be added to rectal aminosalicylates as first line, as enemas only reach so far
chrons disease
= glucocorticoids immediately to induce remission!! oral topical or iV. eg prednisolone.
maintaining remission
topical mesalazine is used in UC as first line!!! azathioprine and mercaptopurine are reserved for severe or repeated relapses (>/= 2 admissions in last year). think of it as uc is not as extensive as chrons so start with something weaker first = topical mesalazine!!!!!
chrons = azathiprine, mercaptopurine!!!! are first line. can also try methotrexate
He has just returned from a week in Morocco.
Starting on the last day of his holiday, he described watery diarrhoea 4-5 times per day. He describes some mild cramping pains in his abdomen and nausea, but no vomiting. There is no blood in the stool.
He is afebrile and his observations are all normal.
most likely causative organism?
ecoli = travellers diarrhea
not cholera as no signs of dehydration or systemic upset
A 45-year-old man presents with an episode of alcoholic pancreatitis. He makes slow but steady progress. He is reviewed clinically at 6 weeks following admission. He has a diffuse fullness of his upper abdomen and on imaging a collection of fluid is found to be located behind the stomach. His serum amylase is mildly elevated. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
pseudocyst!!!
typically occurs 4 weeks or more after an attack of acute pancreatitis
Most are retrogastric
contrast pancreatic abscess which typically occur as a result of infected psuedocyst
A 22-year-old nurse is being screened for immunity to communicable diseases prior to commencing employment. The following results are found:
HBsAg negative
anti-HBs positive
anti-HBc (IgG) positive
Based on these results, what is the patient’s hepatitis B status?
previous infection not a carrier/resolved
due to hbc
meanwhile Positive anti-HBc IgG, negative anti-HBc IgM and negative anti-HBc in the presence of HBsAg implies chronic HBV infection
if HBsAg is present for > 6 months then this implies chronic disease (i.e. Infective)
Anti-HBc implies previous (or current) infection. IgM anti-HBc appears during acute or recent
must distinguish chronic from acte infection
Patients must eat gluten for at least 6 weeks before they are tested for coeliac disease