Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

gen path final > GI pathology > Flashcards

GI pathology Flashcards

1
Q

what is a sialadenitis?

A

Inflammatory lesion of the salivary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the symptoms of sialadenitis?

A

Dry mouth and/or gland swelling with pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what causes a sialadenitis to develop?

A

1) Sarcoidosis
2) mumps
3) salivary duct stones with obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what causes Sjogren’s Disease? what group is the most at risk?

A

Autoimmune

most likely in 50-60 year old Females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the clinical characteristics of Sjogren’s disease?

A

Dry mouth (xerostomia), dry eyes (kerato-conjunctivitis sicca)

BILATERAL swelling of parotid glands

Increased incidence of lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which salivary gland is most frequently involved with salivary gland tumors?

A

Parotid gland

80% of all salivary tumors, most benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the most common MALIGNANT tumor of the salivary gland?

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

name the 2 types of benign salivary tumors

A

Pleomorphic adenoma (mixed tumor)

Warthin’s tumor (Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which type of benign SALIVARY tumor has the following characteristics:

  1. Most common neoplasm
  2. Mesenchymal and epithelial component
  3. may undergo malignant transformation
A

Pleomorphic adenoma (mixed tumor)

  • 60% occur in parotid
  • lobulated, firm on palpation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the characteristics of warthin’s tumors?

A
  1. Occurs virtually only in the parotid gland
  2. mainly in MALES
  3. 10% bilateral, 10% multifocal
  4. Oncocytes, lymphocytes
  5. Benign
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the 2 types of malignant salivary gland tumors?

A
  1. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

2. Other carcinomas, which include Adenoid cystic and Acinic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the characteristics of mucoepidermoid carcinomas?

A
  • Malignant
  • 15% of all salivary gland tumors
  • Parotid gland + minor palate glands
  • may see BLUISH color
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For the esophagus, what causes functional obstructive diseases? what about obstruction diseases?

A
  • Functional: discoordinated contraction or spasm of the musculature
  • Obstruction-can be mechanical e.g. due to post-inflammatory stenosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what usually causes esophageal varices?

A

portal hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

reflux of gastric juices is central to the associated mucosal injury of _______

A

GERD

gastroesophageal reflux disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the symptoms of GERD?

A

dysphagia, heartburn, regurgitation gastric contents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is Odynophagia? what disease is it associated with?

A

pain on swallowing

associated with GERD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is Barrett Esophagus? what is it the result of?

A

intestinal metaplasia within the esophagus squamous mucosa

its a complication of GERD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Barrett Esophagus is associated with an increased risk for _____________

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F: most people with Barrett esophagus develop esophageal tumors

A

FALSE

they do NOT develop esophageal tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the 2 diagnostic features of Barrett esophagus

A

1) extension abnormal mucosa above gastro-esophageal junction
2) demonstration of squamous metaplasia (intestinal metaplasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the “first pass effect”?

A

material absorbed from the GI tract are delivered to the liver via the portal vein before reaching inferior vena cava

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what groups are at a higher risk for esophageal adenocarcinoma? where does it develop?

A

increased in caucasians, increased in males over females (7:1)

Usually develops in the distal third of the esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus?

A

EtOH
tobacco use
very hot beverages
caustic esophageal injury (acid reflux)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

SCC of the esophagus occurs primarily in the _________ third of the esophagus

A

middle third

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

_________ is the most common esophageal malignancy worldwide

A

SCC

squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what groups are at risk for esophageal Squamous Cell Carcinoma?

A

adults

over 45 yo

males > females (4:1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

name the characteristics of Acute gastritis:

A
  • TRANSIENT, abrupt, variable pain
  • Asymptomatic to ulceration
  • Punctate hemorrhage, erosion, inflammation
  • causes: smoking, alcohol, stress, NSAIDs, asprin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

chronic gastritis is almost always associated with an infection of _____________

A

Helicobacter pylori

65% gastric ulcers
85-100% duodenal ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

T/F: the progression of chronic gastritis is relatively rapid after exposure to H. pylori

A

False

Often acquire the infection in childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the pathogenesis & clinical course for chronic gastritis:

A

Pathogenesis:

  • Autoimmune e.g. pernicious anemia
  • Infection, chemical

Clinical course:

  • Ulceration
  • cancer risk 2-4% (intestinal metaplasia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Approximately 75% of gastric polyps are ___________ or ______________

A

inflammatory or hyperplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the types of benign stomach neoplasias?

A

hyperplastic, fundic gland polyps, adenomas & inflammatory polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

there is an increased risk for gastric adenomas in people suffering from _______________ (a genetic disease)

A

Familial adenosis polyposis (FAP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

where to gastric adenomas frequently arise from?

A

arise in a background of atrophy and intestinal metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

90% of gastric cancers are _______________

A

adenocarcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

why has the rate of GI adenocarcinoma decreased in the united states?

A

due to reduced use of smoked and salt-cured meat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

There is an association of gastric adenocarcinoma with ________ due to increased rates for cancer of gastric cardia

A

GERD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is “Linitis plastica”?

A

“leather bottle appearance” markedly thickened stomach wall

  • very aggressive and deadly form of stomach cancer

(a type of adenocarcinoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Linitis plastica is a diffuse type of ___________ adenocarcinoma

A

stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Risk factors for development of gastric adenocarcinomas:

A
  • Hereditary factors
  • Additional factors e.g. consumption of smoked and salt cured meat, GERD
  • Pernicious anemia (B12deficiency), atrophic gastritis (intestinal metaplasia)
  • A pre-existing adenomatous polyp
42
Q

T/F: a lymphoma neoplasia can develop in the stomach

A

true

43
Q

what are the 2 other names for celiacs disease?

A

celiac sprue or gluten-sensitive enteropathy

44
Q

Infectious enterocolitis, and celiac’s disease, are examples of what type of GI disorder?

A

Small Intestine-reactive, non-neoplastic conditions

45
Q

viral gastroenteritis and parasitic enterocolitis can both effect the ______________

A

small intestine

46
Q

________________ arises from inappropriate mucosal immune activation

A

inflammatory bowel disease

47
Q

what are 2 examples of inflammatory bowel disease?

A

Crohn Disease

ulcerative colitis

48
Q

what are the characteristics of ulcerative colitis?

A
  • severe ulcerating inflammatory disease
  • limited to the colon and rectum
  • extends only to mucosa and submucosa
49
Q

what are the characteristics of crohn’s disease?

AKA regional enteritis

A
  • may involve any area of the GI tract
  • is frequently transmural (extends over entire wall)
  • note noncaseating granulomas
50
Q

T/F: both ulcerative colitis and crohn’s disease are idiopathic

A

true

unknown cause

51
Q

although ulcerative colitis is related to Crohn’s, ______ is limited to the colon and always involves the rectum

A

ulcerative colitis

52
Q

both Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease put the person at a higher risk for __________

A

neoplasia

53
Q

tumors of the ____________ Accounts for less than 5% of all GI tumors

A

small intestine

54
Q

what are the risk factors for colorectal cancers?

A
  • AGE (over 50)
  • high fat, low fiber diet
  • family history of Colorectal cancer
  • Hereditary colon syndromes (FAP)
55
Q

what are the possible types of BENIGN small intestine tumors?

A

leiomyoma

Adenoma

56
Q

what are the 3 types of malignant neoplasias of the small intestine

A

Adenocarcinomas

carcinoid tumors

lymphoma

57
Q

name the characteristics of autoimmune (chronic) gastritis

A

loss of parietal cells

↓intrinsic factor

↓ B12 absorption

pernicious anemia

58
Q

what is the pathogenesis of acute gastritis?

A

Cigarettes, alcohol
Stress, ischemia
NSAID’s, aspirin, infection

59
Q

where are 98% of peptic ulcers found?

A

duodenum* or stomach

60
Q

what are the complications of peptic ulcers?

A

Bleeding- 15% to 20%, 1/4 deaths

Perforation- 5%, 2/3 deaths (most common cause)

Obstruction- edema, scarring- 2%

61
Q

what are the histological signs of Celiac’s disease? (gluten sensitivity)

A

Blunted villi
Inflammatory infiltrate

(dramatically improves when gliadin is removed)

62
Q

a malaborption of what nutrients causes Osteopenia and tetany?

A

from defective Ca, Mg, Vit D and protein absorption

63
Q

what is the effect of vitamins A and B12 Deficiencies?

A

peripheral neuropathy

nyctalopia (night blindness from ↓Vit A)

64
Q

what is the first ORAL manifestations of malabsorption?

A
  • atrophic glossitis (bald, red tongue)

- glossopyrosis (burning tongue)

65
Q

___________ (a Burning sensation of the tongue) is a common complaint during malabsorption

A

glossopyrosis

66
Q

what diseases cause malabsorption in the small intestine?

A

1) Celiac disease
2) Tropical sprue (bacteria)
3) Whipples disease (lymphatics)
4) Disaccharidase deficiency
5) Abetalipoproteinemia (effects transport across epithelium)

67
Q

what are the different types of colon polyps?

A

A) Hyperplastic- ↑ number cells
B) Inflammatory
C) Hamartomatous- ↑ in tissue normally found at this site)
D) Adenomatous (neoplastic, tumor)

68
Q

________ is the most important factor in predicting the malignancy of a adenoma colon polyp

A

size

69
Q

______________ is the most common malignancy of the GI tract

A

Adenocarcinoma of the colon

70
Q

when determining the STAGE of colon cancer, what do the letters “T N M” stand for?

A

T= depth of invasion

N= lymph nodal involvement

M= presence of metastasis

71
Q

_______________ (a genetic disease) Entails mutations of APC gene, and is the MOST COMMON polyposis syndrome of the gastrointestinal tract

A

Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

72
Q

Familial Adenomatous Polyposis, plus Extraintestinal lesions, is known as ___________ syndrome

A

Gardner’s syndrome

73
Q

** name the oral manifestations for FAP

A

1) Unerupted teeth
2) supernumerary teeth
3) dentigerous and mandibular cysts
4) increased risk for odontomas

74
Q

to be diagnosed with FAP, the patient must have how many tumors?

A

over 100

75
Q

what are the characteristics of Peutz Jegher Syndrome?

A
  • Gastrointestinal hamartomatous polyps

- pigmented macules of mucous membranes and skin

76
Q

what are the oral manifestations of Peutz Jegher Syndrome?

A

Melanin deposits around nose, lips, buccal mucosa

77
Q

In patients with Peutz Jegher syndrome, Gastrointestinal and non-gastrointestinal cancer are more common after _______ years old

A

45

78
Q

what are the ORAL characteristics of Gardener’s syndrome?

A

Jaw osteomas
Supernumerary and/or unerupted teeth
Increased risk for odontomas

(can also have Desmoid tumors and CHRPE)

79
Q

what disease is associated with “skip lesions” and can be found anywhere in the GI tract?

A

Crohn’s disease

80
Q

what type of Fissure/fistula forms in Crohn’s disease?

A

Noncaseating granulomas

81
Q

which ulcerative disease is RARELY found in the oral cavity?

A

Ulcerative colitis

82
Q

what are the 2 types of malignant tumors of the ESOPHAGUS?

A

Adenocarcinoma (Barrett’s)

Squamous cell carcinoma

83
Q

SQUAMOUS CELL CANCER of the ESOPHAGUS is associated with what population groups?

A

M > F

black > white

84
Q

squamous cell cancer of the esophagus is usually found in the _____-third

A

middle

85
Q

where do most Adenocarcinomas of the esophagus form?

A

distal 1/3rd

86
Q

what are the 2 causes of esophageal adenocarcinoma?

A

Barrett’s esophagus and/or long standing GERD

87
Q

T/F: both SSCa and Adenocarcinomas of the esophagus have POOR 5 year survival

A

true

88
Q

what type of neoplasm is responsible for 90-95% of all stomach tumors?

A

Adenocarcinomas

89
Q

Gastric carcinoma is responsible for ____% of all cancer deaths

A

3

90
Q

What types of cells are seen in Linitis Plastica?

A

Diffuse signet ring cells

91
Q

what are the risk factors for Colorectal cancer?

A

1) High-fat, low-fiber diet
2) Age (>50 years)
3) Personal history of adenoma or Colorectal Carcinoma
4) hereditary colon cancer

92
Q

Colon Adenocarcinoma is responsible for ____% all cancer deaths in USA

A

15%

93
Q

what are the most important prognosis factors for colon adenocarcinoma?

A

1) depth of invasion

2) lymph node metastases

94
Q

where in the ORAL CAVITY do malignant neoplasms of the liver or GI tract usually metastasize to?

A

POSTERIOR mandible

95
Q

what are the symptoms associated with a metastasis to the mandible?

A

Asymptomatic or jaw or tooth pain

paresthesias or teeth loosening (unexplained)

96
Q

what is the #1 oral SOFT tissue site for neoplasms?

A

attached gingiva #1 site, then tongue

97
Q

T/F: oral metastasis of cancers is usually a grave sign

A

TRUE- usually signals widespread metastasis

98
Q

T/F: oral metastasis of cancers is usually a grave sign

A

TRUE- usually signals widespread metastasis

99
Q

what are the different categories for DEPTH (“T”) of colon cancer?

A

1 Submucosa
2 Muscularis propria
3 Subserosa or non peritonealized pericolic fat
4 Contiguous structures

100
Q

Intussusception (intestine obstruction due to folding) is characteristic of what condition?

A

Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

  • caused by the Gastrointestinal hamartomatous polyps

gen path final (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions