GK Flashcards
(151 cards)
1
Q
Shaft Horsepower of PT6A-68
A
1100 SHP
2
Q
What are the two sections of the T-6’s engine?
A
Gas generation and power turbine
3
Q
What components make up the gas generator section of the engine? (Aft half)
A
4 Stage axial flow compressor
Single-Stage centrifugal flow compressor
Combustion Chamber
Single-Stage compressor turbine
4
Q
Components of Power Turbine Section
A
2 Stage Axial Flow Power turbine
Reduction Gearbox
5
Q
Airflow into and through the engine?
A
Enters beneath the prop, through an inertial separator, turns 180 degrees, passes through 4 stage axial compressor and single stage centrifugal compressor. Then enters the combustion chamber, mixed with fuel and is lit. Expanding gas passes through compressor turbine, then power turbines before exiting through the exhaust stacks
6
Q
Capacity of oil system
A
18.5 Quarts
7
Q
What components does the oil system supply filtered oil to?
A
Engine Bearings
Reduction Gears
Accessory Drives
Propeller
8
Q
What are the components of the oil system?
A
Pressure System
Scavange System
Cooling System
Breather System
9
Q
When must the oil be checked for an accurate reading?
A
Within 30 mins of shutdown, dipstick must be used
10
Q
Amber OIL PX Only conditions
A
PCL Idle- 15-40PSI; no time delay
PCL above idle- 40-90 PSI; 10 seconds
11
Q
Amber and Red OIL PX conditions
A
PCL Idle- 15-40PSI; 5 Seconds or more
PCL Idle- 15 PSI or below; no time delay
PCL Above Idle- 40 PSI or below; No time delay
12
Q
The engine oil pressure indicator may display oil pressures up to____ PSI with engine shutdown due to design of the oil pressure transmitter
A
4
13
Q
For most accurate results, check oil level how long after shutdown?
A
15-20 minutes
14
Q
What is the only acceptable method for getting a correct oil level indication?
A
Dipstick
15
Q
T/F A single, momentary illumination of the amber OIL PX annunciator while maneuvering is indicative of a system malfunction
A
FALSE
16
Q
What is the function of the reduction gearbox?
A
To reduce power turbine output from 30,000 RPM to a constant prop speed of 2,000 RPM
17
Q
What is the airspeed of an unladen swallow?
A
Eurpean: 20 KIAS
18
Q
What drives the RGB?
A
Hot gases impinging on the 2-stage power turbine
19
Q
What does a red CHIP annunciator indicate?
A
The presence of Ferrous materials in the oil
20
Q
The propeller system is designed to maintain a constant speed of ______ during most flight conditions?
A
2,000 RPM (100% Np)
21
Q
What is the unit on the PEDD that indicates prop speed?
A
Np
22
Q
At 100% indicated torque, the engine is producing approx _______ ft-lbs of torque at the prop shaft?
A
2,900
23
Q
What are the three basic conditions of the propeller pitch?
A
Feathered Low pitch (flat or fine) high pitch (Coarse)
24
Q
What is the blade angle of the propeller at low pitch?
A
Approx 15 degrees
25
Normally, propeller governing is automatically set by the _____ and _____
PMU and PIU
26
What happens if there is an engine failure with the PCL out of the Cut-OFF position?
The prop will slowly begin to feather due to the loss of oil pressure but MAY NOT fully feather
27
Power for the feather dump solenoid valve is provided through which circuit breaker?
PROP SYS
28
How is the prop pitch controlled?
PMU controls prop RPM by varying blade angle w/ oil pressure through the PIU. Pressurized oil forces the piston forward to decrease pitch toward fine. W/ a reduction in pressure the blades turn towards coarse pitch
29
W/ the PMU functioning, the ____________ will modulate oil pressure to the prop pitch change piston limit Np to 106%, while electronic governor will keep Np at 100%
Mechanical overspeed governor
30
If PMU is not functioning, the ___________ will modulate oil pressure to maintain Np at or below 100 +/- 2%
Flyweight overspeed governor (checked in hammerhead)
31
What will happen if the PROP SYS CB is pulled, the PMU is off, and the PCL is placed in CUTOFF?
The prop will not rapidly feather an may not fully feather until after landing
32
During an auto start or normal operations with the ignition set to NORM, the _______ will energize and de-energize the igniters as required.
PMU
33
Power for the START control is provided through a circuit breaker placarded START, located on the _____ bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit
Battery
34
Power for the IGNITION system is provided through a circuit breaker, placarded IGN, located on the ______ bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit
Battery
35
T/F If the IGN SEL CWS annunciator remains continuously illumiated, notify maintenance after the mission
TRUE
36
The ____ PCL is connected to the FMU both electrically and mechanically w/ a flexible cable
Front
37
T/F When the PCL is moved forward to idle during an engine start, two roller bearings lock in place on the front side of a rocker cam detent to secure a gate
TRUE (This is what makes the two audible clicks)
38
T/F During Ground Ops, and after the engine is started, if the PCL is inadvertently moved to cutoff and the engine is shutting down, attempt to relight the engine by moving the PCL to idle
FALSE- DON'T EVER DO THIS UNLESS YOU WANT TO FOD OUT AN ENGINE WITH ITS OWN GUTS
39
What is the primary source of power for the PMU?
The PMA
40
What type of power does the PMA Provide?
32 VAC, and PMU converts it to DC power
41
When does the PMU automatically switch to 28 VDC from the bat bus?
When prop RPM drops below 40-50% Np
The PMA Fails
42
The aircraft WOW switch om the MLG struts controls what for the PMU?
PMU in flight and ground mode
43
What is idle for ground and flight mode?
60-61% N1 Ground
| 67% Flight
44
Above _____ feet MSL, the PMU raises N1 to maintain Np above 80% to avoid stress on the propeller during spins
10,000 Ft
45
Relation of PCL position to power setting is _______ with the PMU operating.
Linear
46
What situations will the PMU automatically abort the start?
Lightoff has not occured within 10 seconds of selecting AUTO/RESET
ITT exceeds 940 Deg C for 2 seconds, 870 for 4 seconds, or 840 for 19 seconds
N1 acceleration rate to idle is 50% less than normal
47
Is the automatic shutdown feature provided by the PMU available in flight mode?
No
48
You can expect your IOAT and ITT data to be invalid as well as an EDM FAIL displayed on the EICAS if the PMU is activated when the IOAT is within what range?
96-121 degrees C
49
The PMU will go offline when the IOAT exceeds _______?
121 Degrees C
50
With the PCL set to ST READY, when you place the starter switch to AUTO/RESET, the PMU will automatically activate what?
Starter
Boost Pump
Igniters
51
At what N1 in the start sequence will the PMU deenergize the starter and igniters and turn off the boost pump, provided that fuel px is greater than 1- psi?
Approx. 50% N1
52
When may you advance the PCL to IDLE during Engine start
Any time N1 is at or above 60%
53
When is a manual abort necessary during engine starts?
PMU is INOP
| PCL has been moved out of the ST READY position
54
How can an AUTO engine start be manually aborted?
Retard PCL back to OFF
| Reselect AUTO/RESET on starter switch
55
What does illumination of both the PMU FAIL and PMU STATUS annunciators indicate?
PMU system is in manual mode (faults prevent the PMU from setting requested power or respecting engine limits, orpilot switches PMU OFF)
56
What does a PMU STATUS annunciation one minute after landing indicate?
Fault conditions that are not serious enoug hto revert the system to manual mode are encountered in flight
57
When the PMU is in manual mode, the PCL schedules fuel directly to the engine through the FMU, and the pilot must be careful to ensure what is not exceeded?
N1
Temperature
Torque
58
With the PMU in the manual mode, what mus the pilot be careful to avoid? (On Start)
Hot Start
59
What does a PMU Status annunciation in flight indicate? What does it mean?
A fault in either of, or a mismatch between the WOW switches
The PMU Will not revert to ground mode upon landing
Expect the ground roll to be longer due to higher idle N1
60
T/F: Flattening, twisting, kinking, or denting of the fire warning loop will not affect test or flight operation
True
61
Power for FIRE 1 is provided through a CB placarded FIRE 1 located on the ______ bus CB panel in the front cockpit
Battery
62
Power for FIRE 2 is provided through a CB placarded FIRE 2 located on the ______ bus CB in the front cockpit
Generator
63
What does pulling the firewall shutoff handle accomplish?
Cut off fuel flow and hydraulic fluid flow to the engine, and cut off bleed air flow from the engine
64
Can the valves closed by actuating the firewall shutoff handle be reset? How?
Yes, by pushing the handle down
65
What is the primary method of refueling the T-6
Single-point pressure refueling
66
How much fuel is provided through the single point refueling?
1100 lbs
67
How much more fuel is available through the over the wing method of refueling?
100 lbs
68
Withing how many lbs does the auto balance system keep the wing tanks?
20 lbs
69
When does the red FUEL PX annunciator illuminate?
When the low pressure switch indicates less than 10 PSI
70
How many lbs of fuel remain in a wing when the associated FUEL LO annunciator illuminates?
110 lbs
71
What does illumination of the FUEL BAL annunciator indicate?
That the auto balance system has shut off
72
When will the FUEL BAL annunciator illuminate?
If indicated fuel balance exceeds 30 lbs for 2 minutes
Fuel probe Failure
73
What does FP FAIL indicate?
Failure of the fuel probe
| Duh
74
Should you attempt to manually balance your fuel load if your EICAS is indicating an FP FAIL?
No
75
Will automatic fual balancing be available with fuel probe failure?
No
76
What should you do if the FUEL PX annunciator illuminates and the boost pump activates during inverted flight?
Cease inverted maneuvers and notify maintenance after the flight
77
When does FUEL PX illuminate?
<10 PSI in the motive flow supply line
78
When does the L/R Fuel LO light illuminate
110# left in tank
79
Three times the boost pump will illuminate?
When switch is turned on
Automatically by the low px switch as long as PCL is above idle
Whenever starter is activated (automatically or manually)
80
What is the purpose of the electric boost pump?
Provides fuel for engine start
| Serves as backup-to the engine driven low pressure pump
81
What happens if the engine driven high pressure pump fails?
You're fucked, dude
| Engine quits and won't restart
82
How many volts does the Starter Generator produce? Amperage?
28 VDC
| 300 amps
83
How much voltage does the generator need to supply to charge the battery?
25 Volts
84
What items are powered by the AUX BAT?
Standby instruments, Standby instrument lights, Backup UHF, Fire 1
85
Do not connect external power if the battery voltage is below what?
22.0 Volts
86
How is the aircraft protected from overvoltage/undervoltage from an external power source?
A voltage sensor detects voltage level and if it changes to a certain extent, the external power will be disconnnected from the aircraft electrical system
87
In the event of generator failure, the battery should provide power for approximately how long? Under what conditions?
30 minutes
| BUS TIE open and minimal radio comms
88
If needed, the aux bat should provide power for approx how long?
30 min
89
If the generator or generator bus fails, items on the generator bus will not be powered if the BUS TIE switch is in what position?
OPEN
90
How many wheel brake applications remain after loss of normal hydraulic pressure?
Unlimited- Wheel brakes are independent
91
What is the corrective action if brake pressure appears to fade during application or brakes are not responding as expected?
Fully release brakes then re-apply (both crewmembers must release)
92
If landing with a complete brake failure, what should you consider/do when thinking of a field to land?
Crash Crew Available
Familiar Field
Longest and perhaps widest runway available
Use LDG Flaps to land a slowest possible speed
Plan a FIRM landing to dissipate airspeed
Burn as much gas w/o causing an emergency to be as light as possible
93
What is the capacity of the hydraulic system?
Approx. 5 quarts
94
What is the range of the hydraulic pressure relief valve?
3250-3500 PSI
95
What is normal hydraulic pressure?
3000+-120 PSI
96
Once the hydraulic pressure exceeds _____ the system can power its components
1800 PSI
97
What does an amber HYDR FL LO annunciator indicate?
reservoir level is below approx 1 qt
98
With the HYDR FL LO light illuminated, cna the gear and flaps still be lowered using the main system?
Yes
99
When does the amber EHYD PX LO annunciator illuminate?
When emergency accumulator pressure drops below 2400 +/- 150 PSI
100
What prevents hydraulic fluid from the emergency system from flowing back into the main system?
Check Valve
101
What prevents a leak in the emergency system from depleting the main hydraulic system?
Hydraulic fuse
102
What is the flow limit for the hydraulic fuse between the emergency and main hydraulic system?
0.25 GPM
103
What cockpit indication will you have if hydraulic pressure is low?
The gauge will turn from white to amber below 1800 PSI (This is the only indictation)
104
What provides power for the HYD SYS?
Through a CB placarded HYD SYS located on the battery bus CB in the front cockpit
105
The landing gear is a retractable _____-type which is electrically controlled and hydraulically operated
Tricycle
106
The landing gear system is _____ and ______ sequenced to extend and retract the landing gear and main gear doors
Hydraulically and electrically
107
If the gear handle is difficult to raise to the UP position what do you do?
Return the gear handle to the DOWN position. Do not use the downlock override handle
108
If you have failure of the WOW micro-siwtch, use of the downlock override button will allow the gear handle to be raised, but will that retract the landing gear?
No
109
How long does normal gear extension and retraction take?
6 Seconds
110
T/F The gear handle is a mechanical switch requiring no electrical power to operate
FALSE (electrical switch--emergency landing gear handle must be used if electrical power is not available).
111
T/F To emergency extend the gear, electrical power must be available
False (Mechanical)
112
Can the gear be retracted if the emergency extension handle is used to extend the gear?
No
113
What does a normal extension look like on the landing gear extension unit?
2 red lights as the main gear doors open and a red light in the handle
3 red lights as nose gear starts moving down
3 green lights with nose gear red light extinguishing as the gear reaches down and locked
2 red lights extinguish as the main gear doors close and the gear handle light extinguishes
114
If the emergency gear extension is used, what indication will you see on the landing gear control unit?
3 green, 2 red (gear door lights), and read landing gear handle light
115
When does the red light in the gear handle illuminate?
Any other red light illuminated on the control unit
PCL approaching IDLE with the gear handle UP
116
In What situations will you hear the aural gear tone?
Gear handle is not down with WOW
Gear is not indicating down and locked with the flaps set to LDG (Regardless of gear door position, power setting, or airspeed)
Gear handle not DOWN (Regardless of actual gear position) w/ the PCL below midrange (approx 87% N1) position, airspeed below 120 KIAS, and flaps set to UP or T/O
117
In what situations can you silence the gear horn?
Gear handle not DOWN (Regardless of actual gear position) w/ the PCL below midrange (approx 87% N1) position, airspeed below 120 KIAS, and flaps set to UP or T/O
(For SPINS)
118
Is a tighter turn radius made with the NWS off or on?
NWS off--using just power, full rudder, and differential braking
119
NWS should only be used at what airspeeds? Why?
At safe taxi speeds
| May Cause directional control problems
120
What does the NWS actuator do to the nose gear while in the air and the nose gear is not up and locked?
Automatically centers the nosewheel
121
The aircraft has hydraulically operated, electrically controlled, four segment _______ flaps
Split
122
When would the normal flap operation and position indicators be unavailable?
Battery Bus Failure
| Aux batt is the only source of electrical power
123
When would the emergency flap operation be unavailable?
WHen the Aux Batt is the only source of electrical power
124
What will happen to the flaps if power to the flap control circuit is lost? ( Loss of power to the batt bus or FLAP CONT circuit breaker has popped)
The Flaps will retract to the UP Position
| Flap indication will be unreliable
125
How would you know inside the cockpit that the flap indicator is not receiving power and is therefore giving an unreliable indication?
The position pointer will move to a position counterclockwise of the UP position
126
Can the flaps be extended using emergency extension if the AUX batt is the only source of electrical power?
No
127
Can the flaps be retracted if they have been extended using the emergency extension?
No (Until serviced my maintenance)
128
When will the speed brake automatically retract?
PCL moved to MAX
| Flaps are extended
129
Will the speedbrake exted if the flaps are extended?
No
130
Power for the speedbrake is through a CB on the ______ bus CB panel in the front cockpit
Generator
131
Will power to trim actuators continute to be interrupted after you release the trim interrupt button?
No (Only works while button is depressed)
132
Besides interrupting power to the trim actuators, pressing the trim interrupt button also disengages what?
TAD
133
What is the purpose of the bobweight installed on the front control stick?
Increases stick forces as G-load increases (Improves control feel and helps prevent overstressing the airframe
134
After setting T/O trim, the TAD will make no further inputs until what point?
80KIAS with no weight on wheels
135
T/F If operating correctly, the TAD will keep the aricraft yaw trimmed up properly, requiring no input from the pilot?
False
136
What does the gust lock do?
Locks the rudder and ailerons in a neutral position
| Locks the elevator in a nose down position
137
For protection from a birdstrike, the windscreen and front cockpit transparency are designed to withstand the impact of a 4lb bird up to ________ knots
270
138
What uses Engine Bleed Air?
```
Canopy pressurization seal
Anti-G System
Cockpit heating and defogging
Pressurization
OBOGS
```
139
Bleed air from the left side P3 port is for what?
OBOGS
140
Bleed air from the right side P3 port is for what?
Canopy seal
Anti-G
Heating/Defogging
Pressurization
141
To prevent bleed air from entering the cockpit, what two switches must be in the OFF position?
Bleed Air Inflow
| Defog
142
When will the DUCT TEMP annunciator illuminate?
300 deg F
143
Placing the DEFOG switch to ON does what 3 things?
Opens up the defog valve
Sets the inflow valve to high
Activates the air conditioning compressor
144
How do you defog the canopy?
Set vent control lever to canopy and air will be routed to the windshield DEFOG outlets in both cockpits
145
Will the Canopy/Defogging system work to clear the windshield during icing conditions?
No, it may not
146
How does the operation of canopy defog affect ITT?
It increases ITT for a given PCL setting due to higher bleed air load on the engine
147
If operating correctly, the pressurization system will maintain a differential pressure of what?
3.6+/-0.2 PSI
148
When would you get an amber CKPT ALT annunciator?
Cockpit pressure altitude above 19,000 feet
149
When would you get the red CKPT PX annunciator?
Cockpit differential exceeds 3.9 to 4.0
150
The pressurization system will begin pressurizing at approximately what altitude?
8,000 feet MSL
151
With teh air conditioning on, does it have an impact on engine/aircraft performance?
A negligible amount, A/C can be on during all phases of flight
