Glaucoma Flashcards

1
Q

Pressure pushing lens against iris and closing Schlemm’s canal

A

intraoccqular pressure (IOP)

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2
Q

Only modifiable risk factor for glaucoma

A

IOP

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3
Q

90-95% of all primary glaucoma

A

primary open-angle (POAG)

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4
Q

___ is slowly progressive glaucoma.

A

primary open-angle (POAG)

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5
Q

10% of all primary glaucoma

A

primary angle closure

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6
Q

primary angle closure glaucoma is treated as an ____

A

emergency

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7
Q

MC agents that are used in glaucoma

A

beta adrenergic blocking agents

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8
Q

B blockers acts on beta 2 receptors in the ___ leading to reduction of ___

A

ciliary processes, aqueous humor production

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9
Q

systemic SE’s of beta blockers are decreased by using ___

A

punctual occlusion. (holding lacrimal duct for 3-5 mins)

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10
Q

first line agent for glaucoma unless contraindicated

A

beta blockers

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11
Q

beta blocker that does not lower IOP as much. as other products

A

betaxolol.

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12
Q

gold standard in treatment of glaucoma

A

timolol solution (timoptic)

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13
Q

timolol is ___

A

nono-selective

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14
Q

timolol is a ___ solution and is administered ___

A

gel-forming; once a day

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15
Q

adrenergic agents act on alpha receptors to:

A

decrease aqueous humor production

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16
Q

adrenergic agents act on beta receptors to::

A

increase in outflow

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17
Q

adrenergic agents

A

epinephrine

dipivefrin

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18
Q

side effects of adrenergic agents

A

systemic: palpitation, tachycardia, HA, anxiety, increased sweating

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19
Q

prodrug of epinephrine

A

dipivefrin

20
Q

dipivefrin is shown to be effective in combo with ___

A

nonselective betablocker. (more pronounced IOP decrease)

21
Q

purpose of selective alpha-2 agonists

A

decrease aqueous production

22
Q

alpha2 selectivity prevents release of norepinephrine into the synapse which decreases ___ and increases ___

A

aqueous humor production; uveoscleral outflow

23
Q

selective alpha2 agonists

A

apraclonidine

brimonidine

24
Q

selective alpha2 agonists are used ____

A

in addition to other agents if used at all.

25
S/E of apraclonidine
tachyphylaxis develops rapidly
26
brimonidine can be used alone in patients who are ___
intolerant to beta blockers
27
purpose of cholinergics
stimulation of sphincter pupillae causes miosis physically pulls open meshwork increases outflow
28
cholinergics
pilocarpine Carbachol Ocusert
29
Pilocarpine reduces IOP by
20-30%
30
Ocusert has a slow release ___
delivery system
31
cholinergic bind to enzyme which ___
breaks down endogenous acetylcholine. (cholinesterase inhibitor)
32
anticholinesterases are used only in patients _______
unresponsive or intolerant of other therapies.
33
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors inhibit carbonic anhydrase in ____ to decrease ___
ciliary body; aqueous formation by 40-60%
34
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
dorzolamide and brinzolamide | acetazolamide
35
dorzolamide and brinzolamide are ___ administerd
topically
36
dorzolamide and brinzolamide reduce IOP by ___
15-26%
37
acetazolamide is administered by ___
PO
38
acetazolamide reduces IOP by ___
25-40%
39
___ has a higher incidence of S/E out of the CAIs
acetazolamide
40
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are 1 of the 3 medications of choice for ___
glaucoma
41
medications of choice for glaucoma
beta blockers prostaglandin F2-alpha analogues CAIs
42
purpose of prostaglandin F2 alpha analogues
increased uveoscleral outflow of aqueous humor.
43
side effects of prostaglandin F2
iris pigmentation | eyelash thickening
44
prostaglandin f2 has fewer side effects than ___
timolol
45
prostaglandin f2 decreases IOP similar to ___
BB if not more
46
latanoprost solution dosage
0.005% solution Q24h
47
treatment of angle closure glaucoma
ER | iridectomy is definitive tx