Global 6500 - AFCS

Question 2

When does the AFCS initially engage the yaw damper?

Answer 2

Automatically when a Remove Electronics Unit (REU) and two sources of roll and yaw are available (IRS)

Question 3

What is the maximum altitude for flight with the yaw damper disengaged?

Answer 3

41,000 ft

Question 4

What will happen if the YD is disengaged with the AP engaged?

Answer 4

AP will disengage

Question 5

What is the minimum height at which the autopilot can be engaged?

Answer 5

400 ft AGL

Question 6

What is the minimum height that the autopilot can be used during a CAT I or CAT II precision approach (ILS)?

Answer 6

Category I or II ILS: 80 ft AGL

Question 7

What is the minimum height that the autopilot can be used during a non-precision approach with no vertical guidance?

Answer 7

400 ft AGL

Question 8

What is the minimum height that the autopilot can be used for a non-precision approach with vertical path reference?

Answer 8

160 ft AGL

Question 9

What is the speed limitation for FLC mode use?

Answer 9

Above .85 M is prohibited

Question 10

When must both STALL PUSHER switches be on?

Answer 10

For duration of the flight

Question 11

What are the four purposes of the MSTR DISC pushbutton on the control wheel?

Answer 11

1. Disconnects the autopilot,
2. Silences a disconnect aural,
3. Interrupts pitch trim while held,
4. Inhibits the stick pusher while held (non-EASA a/c)

Question 12

What will cause manual disengagement of the autopilot?

Answer 12

Pressing the AP pushbutton,
Pressing either MSTR DISC pushbutton,
Manual trim activation,
Pressing the YD switch on the FCP,
Physical override of the AP servos (not recommended)

Question 13

What will cause automatic disengagement of the autopilot?

Answer 13

Unusual attitude,
Stall warning activation,
Activation of windshear avoidance (2-sec delay)

Question 14

What is the purpose of the touch control steering (TCS) button?

Answer 14

Momentarily overrides the autopilot and sync FPA, speed or VS value

Question 15

What will happen in the event the master AFCS/AT fails?

Answer 15

Standby AFCS/AT automatically takes over and the FD modes will revert to basic ROLL and FPA

Question 16

How is the master AFCS identified?

Answer 16

FCP indicator lights adjacent
to the YD and AP buttons

Question 17

How is the AFCS 1 manually selected to AFCS 2?

Answer 17

Selecting the AFCS 1/2 switch
on the reversion switch panel (RSP)

Question 18

Does the indicator light on the flight control panel (FCP) indicate that the associated mode is currently active?

Answer 18

No. The pilot must confirm the mode status or operation from the flight mode annunciator (FMA) on the PFD.

Question 19

How are active/armed flight director and autothrottle modes indicated on the FMA?

Answer 19

Active shows in green, armed shows in white

Question 20

How does the autopilot engage if no vertical or lateral flight director modes are armed?

Answer 20

Basic ROLL and FPA modes

Question 21

What is the steepest angle for approaches?

Answer 21

3.5 without AFM supplements

Question 22

What does the autopilot do in ROLL mode?

Answer 22

Heading hold when the bank is <5’b0, holds the current bank angle if the bank is >5’b0 to a maximum of 30’b0

Question 23

When is the FMS prohibited as a sole NAV source for instrument approaches?

Answer 23

Localizer-based approaches, VOR approaches, NDB approaches

Note: VOR and NDB approaches require a bearing pointer shown in addition to FMS guidance

Question 24

What is required for an automatic Nav-to-Nav transfer to occur?

Answer 24

LNAV is the active lateral mode,
the LOC beam is captured,
and APR selected on the guidance panel

Question 25

When is the ILS automatically tuned by the FMS?

Answer 25

30 nm direct distance to the airfield

Question 26

When is the LOC preview mode enabled?

Answer 26

Automatically at 30 nm

Question 27

During an ILS approach, when does the independent approach mode of the AFCS occur?

Answer 27

GS Capture

Question 28

What is the FD "pitch target box" command for a normal takeoff?

Answer 28

Initially set to 17.5 and can move between 11.5 to 20 to hold the selected speed

Question 29

What is the FD "pitch target box" command during takeoff, after an engine failure?

Answer 29

Initially set to 13 and moves between 8 to 13 to maintain selected speed

Question 30

When is the "pitch target box" removed?

Answer 30

Removed upon selection of any vertical mode

Question 31

How does the FD respond during climb-out when TOGA is selected during basic and FMS-assisted go-arounds?

Answer 31

Basic: in green navigatin, it holds the current heading in a wings-level mode and maintains a pitch from 10 minimum to 20 maximum changing to ALTS at the MAP altitude FMS-assissted: during an ILS/GPS approach, GA changes to FMS NAB and VNAV at 400 ft AGL Note: Half bank is not available for use during a missed approach

Question 32

How is the takeoff mode cleared?

Answer 32

Engaging the AP, selecting another vertical mode, pressing the TCS button

Question 33

What is the bank angle for 1/2 BANK?

Answer 33

17

Question 34

What happens to the AP/FD modes during a windshear warning?

Answer 34

Escape guidance is provided via the guidance cue, autothrottle and vertical modes indicate WSHR, thrust setting is TO EPR, autopilot disconnects after 2-sec delay

Question 35

How is the autothrottle GA mode cleared?

Answer 35

Select another vertical mode

Question 36

On the ground, which two parameters are required for either autothrottle engage switches to function?

Answer 36

Aircraft speed less than 60 kt, throttle levers are above 23 TLA

Question 37

When does the autothrottle transition to the retard mode?

Answer 37

Aircraft in landing configuration, radio altitude of 50 ft AGL

Question 38

What does an amber LIM in the A/T mode annunciation indicate?

Answer 38

Flashing LIM: an airspeed target deviation is sensed Steady LIM: structure limit, maximum speed limit, or a maximum power limit

Question 39

When is the autothrottle takeoff HOLD control mode activated?

Answer 39

On ground above 60 kt or in flight below 400 ft AGL

Question 40

How is the EDM mode cancelled?

Answer 40

Disengage the AP

Question 41

What occurs when EDM is manually selected above FL250?

Answer 41

FD commands a descent to 15,000ft, FD commands a left turn 90, A/T targets airspeed of VMO-10 or MMO-0.02 until 15,000ft, then 250 KT

Question 42

Prior to what speed must the autothrottle be verified engaged and takeoff thrust verified set?

Answer 42

60 KIAS

Question 43

What does the horizontal yellow line on the airspeed tape indicate?

Answer 43

Minimum maneuvering speed (Vate)

Question 44

Which parameters are used to calculate the minimum maneuvering speed (Vate) value?

Answer 44

IAS, flap position, and stall data

Question 45

What does Vate indicate \ on the airspeed tape?

Answer 45

Lowest speed the AT or flight guidance will allow

Question 46

What is the function of the FPV cage switch on the control wheel?

Answer 46

Allows the pilot to laterally center the FPV and guidance cue should the FPV and cue be shown at their limiting region of the PFD

Question 47

What are the three conditions required to automatically activate the automatic emergency descent mode (EDM)?

Answer 47

AP engaged, altitude above 25,000 ft, cabin altitude exceeded 14,500 ft

Question 48

How will the aircraft react when the emergency descent mode (EDM) is active?

Answer 48

FD will command a descent to 15,000 ft, FD will command a turn of 90 left, autothrottles will target airspeed of VMO-10 until 15,000 ft, then 250 kt

Question 49

How is the emergency descent mode (EDM) cancelled?

Answer 49

Disengage the AP