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Global Limitations Flashcards

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1
Q

MAXIMUM WEIGHTS
Taxi and Ramp Weight………………………………………………. ?
Takeoff Weight………………………………………………………….. ?
Landing Weight………………………………………………………… ?
Zero Fuel Weight………………………………………………………. ?

A

Taxi and Ramp Weight………………………………….. 96,250 lb.
Takeoff Weight……………………………………………… 96,000 lb.
Landing Weight……………………………………………. 78,600 lb.
Zero Fuel Weight………………………………………….. 56,000 lb.

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2
Q

TAKEOFF ON RUNWAYS

NEAR BODIES OF WATER

A

For takeoff at weights above the maximum landing weight,
OUTFLOW VLV 2 must be closed and one air-conditioning
pack must be shutdown for takeoff.

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3
Q

LANDING ON RUNWAYS

NEAR BODIES OF WATER

A

LANDING ON RUNWAYS
NEAR BODIES OF WATER
For forced/emergency landing at weights above the maximum
landing weight, OUTFLOW VLV 2 must be closed and
one air-conditioning pack must be shutdown for landing.
MENU

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4
Q 
MAXIMUM AIRPORT
PRESSURE ALTITUDE
Maximum Airport Pressure
Altitude for Takeoff and Landing......................................... ?
MENU
A

Maximum Airport Pressure

Altitude for Takeoff and Landing……………………… 10,000 ft.

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5
Q

MAXIMUM AIRPORT
PRESSURE ALTITUDE
Maximum airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing
with Supplement 20 ____________________________ .
MENU

A

Maximum airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing

with Supplement 20 13,700 feet Pressure Altitude.

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6
Q

MAXIMUM OPERATING ALTITUDE

A

51,000 ft.

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7
Q

MAXIMUM AMBIENT
AIR TEMPERATURE
Maximum Ambient Air Temperature
Approved for Takeoff and Landing……………………………….. ?

A

+50°C (122°F)

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8
Q

MINIMUM AMBIENT
AIR TEMPERATURE
Minimum Ambient Air Temperature
Approved for Takeoff………………………………………………….. ?

A

–40°C (–40°F)

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9
Q

COWL ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Takeoff:
During takeoff, use of cowl anti-ice in ______ mode is
prohibited.

A

Takeoff:
During takeoff, use of cowl anti-ice in AUTO mode is
prohibited.

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10
Q

COWL ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Ground Operations:
The cowl anti-ice system must be ON when the OAT is
________ or below and visible moisture in any form is present
(such as fog with a visibility of 1,500 meters (one mile) or
less, rain, snow, and ice crystals).

A

Ground Operations:
The cowl anti-ice system must be ON when the OAT is
10°C (50°F) or below and visible moisture in any form is
present (such as fog with a visibility of 1,500 meters (one
mile) or less, rain, snow, and ice crystals).

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11
Q

COWL ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Ground Operations:
The cowl anti-ice must also be ON when the OAT is
________ or below when operating on runways, ramps,
or taxiways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush
is present.

A

Ground Operations:
The cowl anti-ice must also be ON when the OAT is
10°C (50°F) or below when operating on runways, ramps,
or taxiways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or
slush is present.

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12
Q

COWL ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Flight Operations:
The engine cowl anti-ice system must be ON, when in ____
________ , or when ____ is annunciated by the ice detection
system.

A

Flight Operations:
The engine cowl anti-ice system must be ON, when in icing
conditions, or when ICE is annunciated by the ice detection
system.
NOTE
Icing conditions exist in flight at a TAT of 10°C (50°F)
or below, and visible moisture in any form is encountered
(such as clouds, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals),
except when the SAT is –40°C (–40°F) or below.

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13
Q

WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Takeoff:
During takeoff, use of the wing anti-ice system in ______
is prohibited.

A

Takeoff:
During takeoff, use of the wing anti-ice system in AUTO
is prohibited.

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14
Q

WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Takeoff:
The wing anti-ice system must also be ON for takeoff when
the OAT is ________ or below and the runway is contaminated
with surface snow, slush, or standing water.

A

Takeoff:
The wing anti-ice system must also be ON for takeoff when
the OAT is 5°C (41°F) or below and the runway is contaminated
with surface snow, slush, or standing water.

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15
Q

WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Ground Operations:
The wing anti-ice system must be ON for takeoff when the
OAT is ________ or below and visible moisture in any form
is present (such as fog with visibility of 1,500 meters (one
mile) or less, rain, snow, sleet, and ice crystals).

A

Ground Operations:
The wing anti-ice system must be ON for takeoff when the
OAT is 5°C (41°F) or below and visible moisture in any form
is present (such as fog with visibility of 1,500 meters (one
mile) or less, rain, snow, sleet, and ice crystals).

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16
Q

WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Flight Operations:
The wing anti-ice system must be ON, when in _____
_________ , or when ____ is annunciated by the ice
detection system.

A

Flight Operations:
The wing anti-ice system must be ON, when in icing
conditions, or when ICE is annunciated by the ice
detection system.

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17
Q

WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Flight Operations:
Do not hold in icing conditions with the _____________.

A

Flight Operations:

Do not hold in icing conditions with the slats extended.

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18
Q

WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Flight Operations:
When in icing conditions, maintain a minimum engine
speed of _________.

A

Flight Operations:
When in icing conditions, maintain a minimum engine
speed of 76% N2.
NOTE
Icing conditions exist in flight at a TAT of 10°C (50°F)
or below, and visible moisture in any form is encountered
(such as clouds, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals),
except when the SAT is –40°C (–40°F) or below.

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19
Q

TAKEOFF LIMITATIONS
Maximum Runway Slopes
Approved for Takeoff and Landing…………………………………. ?
Maximum Tailwind Component
Approved for Takeoff and Landing…………………………………. ?

A

Maximum Runway Slopes
Approved for Takeoff and Landing…………………. +2% (uphill)
–2% (downhill)
Maximum Tailwind Component
Approved for Takeoff and Landing………………………10 knots

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20
Q

COLD WEATHER OPERATIONS
Minimum Ambient Temperature
Approved for Takeoff………………………………………………….. ?

A

−40°C (−40°F)

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21
Q

COLD WEATHER OPERATIONS
For Takeoff and landing operations below ____________
refer to FCOM Volume 1, Chapter 7 SUPPLEMENTARY
PROCEDURES—Cold Weather Operations, Cold Soak
Limitations.

A

0°C (32°F)

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22
Q

WARM WEATHER OPERATIONS
Ground operation of the Display Units with flight compartment
temperatures in excess of _______________, for greater
than ___ minutes, is prohibited.

A

Ground operation of the Display Units with flight compartment
temperatures in excess of 40°C (104°F), for greater
than 30 minutes, is prohibited.

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23
Q

APPROACH
Flying an approach with a published glidepath angle of
___________________ is prohibited.

A

Flying an approach with a published glidepath angle of

4.5 degrees or greater is prohibited.

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24
Q

APPROACH
Approaches with published glidepath angles greater than
_________ must be flown in accordance with Supplement 29,
Approaches With Published Glidepath Angles Greater Than
3.5 Degrees.

A

3.5 degrees

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25
ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS | TAKEOFF THRUST LIMITATIONS
5 minutes with all engines operating. | 10 minutes in the event of an engine failure.
26
ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS Static ground operation in the range of ____% to ____% N1 is prohibited.
66% to 80% N1
27
ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS Maximum Wind Speed and Direction: Engine starts are not permitted when tailwinds component exceeds ___ knots.
20 knots
28
ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS Maximum Wind Speed and Direction: Anytime there is an external or EICAS indication of N1 rotation due to tailwinds, the engine must be cranked for ___ seconds and must be followed immediately by an AUTO start.
30 seconds
29
ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS Maximum Wind Speed and Direction: When the takeoff crosswind component exceeds ___ knots, do not exceed _______ below ___ KIAS.
Maximum Wind Speed and Direction: When the takeoff crosswind component exceeds 20 knots, do not exceed 66% N1 below 30 KIAS.
30
STARTER CRANKING LIMITS (GROUND AND AIR) The starter must not be used if indicated rpm exceeds ________.
The starter must not be used if indicated rpm exceeds | 42% N2.
31
ENGINE START START CYCLE Normal Engine Start: __ consecutive engine start cycles of __ minutes each with __ seconds cooling between cycles. After __ attempts, a __ minute cooling period is required.
Normal Engine Start: 3 consecutive engine start cycles of 3 minutes each with 15 seconds cooling between cycles. After 3 attempts, a 15 minute cooling period is required.
32
FUEL | Maximum Usable Fuel Load—Pressure Refuel.................. ?
Maximum Usable Fuel Load—Pressure Refuel.... 43,550 lb.
33
FUEL The minimum fuel quantity for go-around is ______ per wing.
The minimum fuel quantity for go-around is 600 lb. | per wing.
34
ENGINE FUEL TEMPERATURE Takeoff with engine fuel temperature indications below ____________ is prohibited.
5°C (41°F)
35
FUEL CROSSFEED | Fuel crossfeed must be ___ for takeoff and landing.
Fuel crossfeed must be off for takeoff and landing.
36
OIL TEMPERATURE Minimum for Starting........................................................... ? Minimum Before Accelerating Above Idle........................... ? Maximum Permissible......................................................... ?
OIL TEMPERATURE Minimum for Starting........................................ –40°C (–40°F) Minimum Before Accelerating Above Idle..........+20°C (68°F) Maximum Permissible....................................+160°C (320°F)
37
OIL CONSUMPTION Maximum oil consumption on each engine is ________ _______________.
OIL CONSUMPTION Maximum oil consumption on each engine is 0.21 U.S. quarts per hour.
38
OIL REPLENISHMENT Operation of the oil replenishment system is prohibited when the OAT is at or below ____________.
OIL REPLENISHMENT Operation of the oil replenishment system is prohibited when the OAT is at or below –12°C (10.40°F).
39
AUTOTHROTTLE Takeoff The autothrottle must be engaged and takeoff thrust verified prior to ____ for autothrottle engaged takeoff.
AUTOTHROTTLE Takeoff The autothrottle must be engaged and takeoff thrust verified prior to 60 KIAS for autothrottle engaged takeoff.
40
AUTOTHROTTLE Landing Use of the autothrottle when landing with flaps at any position other than ________ is prohibited.
AUTOTHROTTLE Landing Use of the autothrottle when landing with flaps at any position other than flaps 30° is prohibited.
41
AUXILIARY POWER UNIT Maximum Operating Altitude.............................................. ? MENU
AUXILIARY POWER UNIT | Maximum Operating Altitude................................. 45,000 ft.
42
AUXILIARY POWER UNIT Starting: Minimum Ambient Temperature for Starting a Cold Soaked APU On the Ground...................................... ? Maximum Number of Start Attempts Per Hour.................. ? Maximum Starting Altitude.................................................. ?
AUXILIARY POWER UNIT Starting: Minimum Ambient Temperature for Starting a Cold Soaked APU On the Ground.................. –40°C (–40°F) Maximum Number of Start Attempts Per Hour.................. 3 Maximum Starting Altitude..................................... 37,000 ft.
43
AUXILIARY POWER UNIT | Maximum Altitude for Bleed Air Extraction......................... ?
AUXILIARY POWER UNIT | Maximum Altitude for Bleed Air Extraction............ 30,000 ft.
44
AUXILIARY POWER UNIT APU bleed extraction above ________ for air-conditioning operation is prohibited.
AUXILIARY POWER UNIT APU bleed extraction above 45°C OAT for air-conditioning operation is prohibited.
45
APU GENERATOR | Load Limit On APU Generator............................................ ?
APU GENERATOR | Load Limit On APU Generator................................... 40 kVA
46
APU GENERATOR For operations above ______, if the APU generator is powering a bus, the associated hydraulic pump must be selected ____.
APU GENERATOR For operations above 37,000 ft., if the APU generator is powering a bus, the associated hydraulic pump must be selected OFF.
47
SLAT/FLAP EXTENDED SPEED Slats Extended.................................................................... ? Flaps to 6°........................................................................... ? Flaps to 16°......................................................................... ? Flaps to 30°......................................................................... ?
SLAT/FLAP EXTENDED SPEED Slats Extended....................................................... 225 KIAS Flaps to 6°.............................................................. 210 KIAS Flaps to 16°............................................................ 210 KIAS Flaps to 30°............................................................ 185 KIAS
48
LANDING GEAR Maximum Airspeed at Which it is Safe to Extend or Retract Landing Gear............................ ?
LANDING GEAR Maximum Airspeed at Which it is Safe to Extend or Retract Landing Gear............... 200 KIAS
49
LANDING GEAR The Maximum Airspeed at Which the Airplane May Be Flown with the Landing Gear Extended...................................................... ?
LANDING GEAR The Maximum Airspeed at Which the Airplane May Be Flown with the Landing Gear Extended.............................. 250 KIAS/0.7 M
50
LANDING GEAR Flight at altitudes above ___________ with the landing gear extended is prohibited.
LANDING GEAR Flight at altitudes above 20,000 ft. with the landing gear extended is prohibited.
51
TIRE LIMIT SPEED | The tire limit speed is ________ ground speed.
TIRE LIMIT SPEED | The tire limit speed is 183 knots ground speed.
52
TURBULENCE PENETRATION SPEED Maximum air speed for turbulence penetration is ______ or ______, whichever is lower.
TURBULENCE PENETRATION SPEED Maximum air speed for turbulence penetration is 300 KIAS or 0.80 mach, whichever is lower.
53
VMCG/VMCA VMCG.................................................................................... ? VMCA in the Takeoff Configuration....................................... ?
VMCG/VMCA VMCG......................................................................... 80 KIAS VMCA in the Takeoff Configuration............................ 86 KIAS
54
AIR CONDITIONING One pack must be selected off if pack control is in _____________.
AIR CONDITIONING One pack must be selected off if pack control is in manual mode.
55
PRESSURIZATION Use of EMER DEPRESS switch above _________ is prohibited.
PRESSURIZATION Use of EMER DEPRESS switch above 15,000 ft. is prohibited.
56
PRESSURIZATION During QFE operations, the LDG ELEV switch must be selected to the ________ and the LDG ELEV must be set to ____.
PRESSURIZATION During QFE operations, the LDG ELEV switch must be selected to the MAN position and the LDG ELEV must be set to 0 ft.
57
AUTOMATIC FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM Maximum Altitude for Flight with Yaw Damper Disengaged.................................................... ?
AUTOMATIC FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM Maximum Altitude for Flight with Yaw Damper Disengaged....................................... 41,000 ft.
58
AUTOMATIC FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM Minimum Autopilot Engage Height..................................... ?
AUTOMATIC FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM Minimum Autopilot Engage Height.................... 400 ft. AGL
59
AUTOMATIC FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM Precision Approach (Category I or II ILS)............................................................ ? Nonprecision Approach...................................................... ? Nonprecision Approach with Vertical Path Reference....................................................... ?
AUTOMATIC FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM Precision Approach (Category I or II ILS)....................... 50 ft. AGL (JAA - 80 ft.) Nonprecision Approach..................................... 400 ft. AGL Nonprecision Approach with Vertical Path Reference...................................... 160 ft. AGL
60
AUTOMATIC FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM Use of the NAV guidance panel switch for approaches with ____ as a NAV source is prohibited.
AUTOMATIC FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM Use of the NAV guidance panel switch for approaches with VOR as a NAV source is prohibited.
61
FLIGHT SPOILERS | Flight spoilers must be retracted below ________.
FLIGHT SPOILERS | Flight spoilers must be retracted below 300 ft. AGL.
62
THRUST REVERSERS Positioning of thrust levers in the reverser range ________ ______ is prohibited.
THRUST REVERSERS Positioning of thrust levers in the reverser range while in flight is prohibited.
63
THRUST REVERSERS Backing the airplane with the use of reverse thrust ____________.
THRUST REVERSERS Backing the airplane with the use of reverse thrust is prohibited.
64
FLIGHT CONTROLS—FLAPS Flight with slats/flaps extended at altitudes above ____________ is prohibited.
FLIGHT CONTROLS—FLAPS Flight with slats/flaps extended at altitudes above 18,000 ft. is prohibited.
65
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM The FMS must not be used as a navigation source unless it is receiving suitable navigation information from the following: ? ? ?
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM The FMS must not be used as a navigation source unless it is receiving suitable navigation information from the following: One VOR/DME, or Two DMEs, or One inertial reference system
66
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM Use of FMS as a sole NAV source for instrument approaches past the final Approach fix is prohibited unless ____ is annunciated on the ____.
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM Use of FMS as a sole NAV source for instrument approaches past the final Approach fix is prohibited unless App is annunciated on the PFD.
67
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM Use of ____ as the PFD NAV SRC ILS, LOC, LOC–BC, LDA, SDF, and MLS approaches beyond the __________________ is prohibited.
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM Use of FMS as the PFD NAV SRC ILS, LOC, LOC–BC, LDA, SDF, and MLS approaches beyond the final Approach fix is prohibited.
68
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM The GPS sensor(s) must be deselected when on approach in airspace not referenced to ______ or ______.
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM The GPS sensor(s) must be deselected when on approach in airspace not referenced to WGS−84 or NAD−83.
69
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM | ____ is required for takeoff in precision RNAV airspace.
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM | GPS is required for takeoff in precision RNAV airspace.
70
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM The use of VNAV temperature compensation in the “___________” mode is prohibited.
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM The use of VNAV temperature compensation in the “HOT & COLD” mode is prohibited.
71
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM Use of _____ vertical guidance is prohibited when the barometric altitude is corrected to the _____________ ______________________.
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM Use of VNAV vertical guidance is prohibited when the barometric altitude is corrected to the landing field elevation (QFE operation).
72
FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS Use of the FMS TOLD function is _________ when the barometric altitude is corrected to the ____________ ______________________.
FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS Use of the FMS TOLD function is prohibited when the barometric altitude is corrected to the landing field elevation (QFE operation).
73
FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS | The FMS TOLD information is _____________.
FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS | The FMS TOLD information is advisory only.
74
FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS The FMS TOLD mode is approved for use with TOLD software version ________ or latest approved version as displayed on the FMS CDU “TAKEOFF INIT” page 1/6.
FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS The FMS TOLD mode is approved for use with TOLD software version SW ID V1.7 or latest approved version as displayed on the FMS CDU “TAKEOFF INIT” page 1/6.
75
FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS The FMS TOLD computed V speeds, EPR values and distances must be verified with ___________________ _________________________________________.
FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS The FMS TOLD computed V speeds, EPR values and distances must be verified with the AFM or other approved documents prior to acceptance.
76
FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS Use of the FMS TOLD function is _________ when operating on ____________ runways.
FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS Use of the FMS TOLD function is prohibited when operating on contaminated runways.
77
FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS For CAT 2 Operations, the CAT 2 supplement must be used to derive the _______________________.
FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS For CAT 2 Operations, the CAT 2 supplement must be used to derive the maximum landing weight.
78
FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS If a difference exists between the AFM and the Honeywell FMS Pilot’s Operating Manual, the ___ shall take precedence.
FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS If a difference exists between the AFM and the Honeywell FMS Pilot’s Operating Manual, the AFM shall take precedence.
79
RVSM OPERATIONS SUPPLEMENT 8 The _________ must be coupled to the same _____________ as the active ___________.
RVSM OPERATIONS SUPPLEMENT 8 The autopilot must be coupled to the same air data source as the active transponder

Global Express (2 decks)

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