Glycaemic control in long-established diabetes Flashcards

(33 cards)

1
Q

What are the major modifiable risk factors for macrovascular disease?

A
Diabetes
Hypertension
Smoking
Dyslipidaemia
Lack of exercise
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2
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the Sulfonylureas?

A

Increase pancreatic insulin secretion.

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3
Q

In which patients would the Sulfonylureas be used as a first-line treatment?

A

Patients with type 2 diabetes in whom hypoinsulinaemia (rather than insulin resistance) is the predominant cause of hyperglycaemia

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4
Q

What are four examples of sulfonylureas?

A

Glibenclamide
Gliclazide
Glipizide
Glimepiride

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5
Q

How are sulfonylureas used in most T2DM patients?

A

as second-line treatment, after metformin

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6
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Thiazolidinediones?

A

Increase peripheral insulin sensitivity

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7
Q

How are Thiazolidinediones used in glycaemic control?

A

As third-line treatment, after Metformin and sulfonylureas.

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8
Q

What are the names of two Thiazolidinediones?

A

Rosiglitazone

Pioglitazone

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9
Q

What is the mechanism of action of acarbose?

A

Reduces carbohydrate absorption in gut. Prevents the breakdown of polysaccharides to monosaccharides. (e.g. sucrose to glucose)

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10
Q

To which group of drugs does metformin belong?

A

Biguanides

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11
Q

What is the mechanism of action of metformin?

A

Decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis.

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12
Q

What tests are performed to monitor the microvascular complications of diabetes?

A

neuropathy: clinical examination
nephropathy: urine albumin creatinine ratio
retinopathy: ophthalmological retinal screening

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13
Q

What are the microvascular complications of diabetes?

A

Neuropathy
Nephropathy
Retinopathy

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14
Q

What is a possible complication of using sulfonylureas?

A

Hypoglycaemia

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15
Q

What is the first line treatment for T2DM?

A

Metformin

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16
Q

What is the major side effect of Metformin?

A

Gastrointestinal upset (1/3 of patients)

17
Q

What is the daily dose of Metformin?

A

250-1000mg daily

18
Q

How is metformin cleared from the body?

A

Renally (100%)

19
Q

What is the mechanism of action of GLP-1 Analogues?

A

Stimulate insulin secretion and suppress glucagon release. Slow gastric emptying and reduce appetite.

20
Q

What is an example of a GLP-1 Analogue?

21
Q

What is the mode of administration of exenatide?

22
Q

What is the dosing regimen for exenatide?

A

Initially 5mg twice daily.

If tolerated, 10mg twice daily.

23
Q

What is the mechanism of action of DPP-IV inhibitors?

A

Stimulate insulin secretion and suppress glucagon release by increasing concentrations of GLP-I and related peptides by blocking their metabolism.

24
Q

How are DPP-IV inhibitors used to treat T2DM?

A

In combination with metformin or a sulfonylurea

25
What is the name of a DPP-IV inhibitor?
Sitagliptin
26
How is sitagliptin cleared from the body?
Renally (100%)
27
In which patients are Thiazolidinediones contraindicated?
In patients with heart failure.
28
How often should one monitor HBA1c levels?
HbA1c most accurately reflects the patient's glycaemic control for the previous eight to 12 weeks. Testing every 3 months is sufficient.
29
How can patients mitigate the gastrointestinal side-effects of metformin?
Taking with meals, gradual dose titration or using the extended release preparation.
30
What is one rare but significant risk of metformin usage? And what feature of a patient would make this outcome more likely?
Lactic acidosis. Renal impairment.
31
What proportion of patients will not respond to thiazolidinediones?
up to 1/3
32
What are the common adverse effects of sulfonylureas?
Weight gain and hypoglycaemia
33
What are the benefits of initiating insulin therapy early?
Potentially improves or preserves beta-cell function Prevents loss of glycaemic control Reduces the risk of microvascular complications.