Go Off, King Flashcards
(712 cards)
1
Q
What information would you find in the Drug Abuse and Dependence section of the package insert?
A
-med’s schedule classification, abuse and tolerance potential, if it’s a controlled substance
2
Q
What information would you find in the Overdosage section of the package insert?
A
-signs, symptoms, and treatment options for an overdose
3
Q
What information would you find in the product description section of the package insert?
A
-chemical name, structure, inactive ingredients
4
Q
What information would you find in the clinical pharmacology section of the package insert?
A
-how it works, absorbed, and metabolized (explanations of various studies)
5
Q
What information would you find in the nonclinical toxicology section of the package insert?
A
-cancer risks and effects on fertility
6
Q
What information would you find in the clinical studies section of the package insert?
A
-information about how the drug works
7
Q
What information would you find in the How Supplied section of the package insert?
A
-all the dosage forms, colors, shapes, markings, special storage rules
8
Q
What information would you find in the Patient Counseling section of the package insert?
A
-the most important patient counseling points
9
Q
What information would you find in the Contraindications section of the package insert?
A
-when a drug shouldn’t be used
10
Q
What information would you find in the Drug Interactions section of the package insert?
A
-if a drug shouldn’t be used with another med
11
Q
What information would you find in the Adverse reactions section of the package insert?
A
-what side effects it causes (constipation)
12
Q
What information can you find in the Indications and Usage section of the package insert?
A
-what diseases/conditions the drug has been approved to treat
13
Q
What information can you find in the Dosage and Administration section of the package insert?
A
- what drug dose to use for certain patients
- provides special dosing schedules and administration requirements
14
Q
What information can you find in the Use in Specific Populations section of the package insert?
A
-safety concerns when using during pregnancy
15
Q
What does the OrangeBook list?
A
-which generics are equivalent to which drugs
16
Q
What do therapeutic equivalents have?
A
-identical active ingredients, strength, dosage forms, absorption, and release
17
Q
A rating code is made of how many letters?
A
2
18
Q
In a rating code, what are the options for the first letter and what do they mean?
A
- A= therapeutic equivalent
- B= not a therapeutic equivalent
19
Q
In a rating code, what does the second letter demonstrate?
A
dosage form
20
Q
What is the most common rating code?
A
AB
21
Q
What is a benefit of Facts and Comparisons eAnswers?
A
you can do side by side comparisons of drugs
22
Q
What is the downfall of Facts and Comparisons eAnswers?
A
it’s outdated
23
Q
True or False: Prescriber’s Digital Preference log is no longer published
A
true
24
Q
The USP-NF contains what information?
A
defines the standards of meds, dosage forms, drug substances, inactive ingredients
25
The handbook on injectable drugs is also called what?
Trissel's
26
Trissel's provides info on what?
If two parenteral drugs can be administered together
27
In rating codes, what do the letters A, N, P, and T mean when they are the second letter?
```
A= oral
N= aerolization
P= injectable
T= topical
```
28
The FDA is a subset of which government department?
Health and Human Services
29
What is the FDA responsible for?
approval of Rx and OTC meds, labeling, and drug manufacturing standards
30
What is the CDC responsible for?
providing regulation for infection control, publishing the requirements for vaccines and national health issues
31
What is the DEA responsible for?
enforcing laws and regulations for controlled substances and illegal drugs, and requirements for dispensing and refilling controlled substances
32
What was the result of the Food and Drug Cosmetic Act of 1938?
before selling, manufacturers have to prove a drug's purity, strength, and safety
33
What was the result of the Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906?
prohibited manufacturers from misbranding (false labeling) and adultering meds (contaminated)
34
What act created 2 classes of medications?
Duraham-Humphrey Act of 1951
35
What act led to us using child-resistant packaging on most meds?
Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970
36
True or False: sublingual nitroglycerin requires childproof packaging
false
37
True or False: oral contraceptives and hormonal treatments don't require childproof packaging because of their memory aid packaging
True
38
Do inhalers require childproof packaging?
No
39
PPPA Act of 1970 says what about childproof packaging?
it can be opened by 90% of adults but not by 80% of kids younger than 5
40
When did the FDA start requiring package inserts?
1970
41
In an outpatient pharmacy, info has to be dispensed how frequently?
before every refill
42
In an inpatient pharmacy, info has to be dispensed how frequently?
before the first dose and once every 30 days
43
What does NDC stand for?
National Drug Code
44
NDCs are how many digits?
10
45
The first three digits of the NDC are what?
The Labeler Code: Manufacturer or Distributor
46
The middle three digits of the NDC are what?
The Product code: name, strength, and dosage form
47
The last three digits of the NDC are what?
Package code: size and type of packaging
48
How do the amount of digits in an NDC section vary?
```
Labeler= 4/5
product= 3/4
package= 1/2
```
49
The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Act of 1984 is also called what?
the Hatch-Waxman Act
50
What was the result of the Hatch-Waxman Act?
- abbreviated new drug applications (ANDA) for generic meds
| - still must prove generic is safe, effective, and performs like name brand
51
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA 90) resulted in what?
-requires pharmacists to discuss info about meds with patients
52
Most dietary supplements are not considered drugs, but are considered what?
vitamins, minerals, and herbs
53
When did the FDA begin requiring solid oral dosage forms to have marking/imprints on the product?
1995
54
What governs the sharing of private information?
HIPPA
55
What are the three main rules of HIPPA?
- protect patient info
- use and disclose only the necessary amount of protected info
- patients have rights to approve who can access or use their medical info
56
Name, DOB, address, phone number, medical record, insurance info, etc. are all part of what?
Protected Health Info (PHI)
57
A handout with information on a medication's significant risks is called what?
Medguide
58
Medguides are for what kinds of drugs?
Ones that pose the most serious public health risks
59
Who protects health, safety, and welfare of patients by setting laws specific to practice of pharmacy?
Board of Pharmacy
60
Who's pharmacy laws are normally stricter: federal or state?
state
61
How many steps are in the drug approval process?
4
62
What is the first step in the drug approval process?
creation and study: drugs are identified as drugs or biologics
63
What is the second step in the drug approval process?
preclinical testing: animal trials to determine if safe and effective
64
What is the third step in the drug approval process?
clinical testing: investigational new drug (IND) application filed with the FDA
-once approved, INDs go through 3 phases
65
What is the fourth step in the drug approval process?
FDA approval: if a drug proves safe and effective in all three phases the drug manufacturer can apply for a new drug application (NDA)
-can take months or even years
66
What does the Institutional Review Board (IRB) do?
reviews and approves research within human subjects
67
What is the role of the drug sponsor in research?
providing funding to support the research
68
What is the role of the principal investigator in research?
who wants to conduct the study and who is responsible and accountable for the study implementation
69
Why would a drug be recalled?
it causes or could potentially cause adverse events
70
What is a class 1 recall?
likely to cause serious adverse events or death
71
What is a class 2 recall?
likely to cause temporary, but reversible side effects
72
What is a class 3 recall?
unlikely to cause adverse effects
| ex: mislabeled count on bottles
73
Recalls are not equal to what?
Market Withdrawals
74
Market Withdrawals can't return without what?
FDA approval
75
When a new drug is created, is has a patented brand name with exclusive rights for how long?
20 years
76
When a generic comes out after a 20 year patent, it has to be what?
pharmaceutically equivalent
77
What does it mean to be pharmaceutically equivalent?
same active ingredients, strength, dosage form, rout of administration
78
Therapeutic equivalents are what two things?
Pharmaceutically equivalent and bioequivalent
79
What does it mean to be bioequivalent?
it is absorbed and released in the body the same way
80
An authorized generic is identical to what?
the brand name
81
What does it mean when there is a number after the TE rating code?
meds with the same active ingredient are therapeutically equivalent to different brand name drugs
82
A pharmacological alternative has what?
The same active ingredients, but different strength and dosage forms
83
A therapeutic alternative has what?
similar product, but different active ingredients
84
Is a therapeutic equivalent the same as a therapeutic alternative?
Nah
85
What would be a therapeutic alternative of Motrin 800 mg tablets?
naproxen 500 mg tablets
86
What would be a pharmacologic alternative of Motrin 800 mg tablets?
Motrin 400 mg tablets
87
What is another name for automatic substitution in hospitals?
Formulary
88
Outpatient pharmacies have to call the prescriber for what?
Substitution authorization
89
What does DAW stand for?
Dispense As Written
90
Define DAW 0
No product selection preferred
| -okay to substitute
91
Define DAW 1
Substitution is NOT allowed
92
Define DAW 2
Substitution is allowed
| -patient requests brand
93
Define DAW 7
Substitution is NOT allowed
| -mandated by state law
94
Define DAW 3
pharmacist decides that brand name product is to be dispensed
95
Define DAW 4
substitution is allowed, but generic is not in stock
96
Define DAW 5
Substitution is allowed, but the brand is dispensed as the generic
97
Define DAW 6
override is required (rare)
98
Define DAW 8
substitution is allowed, but the generic is not available in the marketplace
99
Define DAW 9
OTHER
100
DAW codes tell the insurance provider what?
if a special circumstance exists that affects product selection for the prescription
101
The Controlled Substances Act was created to do what?
define and regulate controlled substances
102
Who governs the Controlled Substances Act?
DEA
103
How many schedules are there?
5
104
Cardio means what?
Heart
105
Vas, Vado means what?
Blood vessel
106
What schedule is the most dangerous? Least dangerous?
1 = most, 5 = least
107
Schedule 2 substances are mostly what?
opioids and stimulants
108
True or False: Physician Assistants, Nurse Practitioners, and optometrists can write controlled substance prescriptions
false (SOME states)
109
What is required for a prescriber to write a controlled substance prescription?
DEA number
110
A DEA number has how many characters?
9
111
What does UIN stand for?
Unique Identification Number
112
What is the first letter of a pharmacy's DEA number?
B
113
What are the things prescriptions must include?
- date of issue
- patient's full name
- patient's address
- prescriber's name
- prescriber's address
- prescriber DEA number
- drug name
- dosage form
- quantity
- directions
- number of refills
114
True or False: schedule 2 substances cannot be called or faxed in
true
115
the feds require pharmacies to complete a controlled substance inventory how often?
every 2 years from date of first inventory
116
How long does federal law require pharmacies to keep inventory records?
2 years
117
Partial fills for c2 substances is allowed, but the rest must be filled within how much time?
72 hours
118
How many forms come with DEA form 222?
3
119
What are the three forms of the 222?
1st- supplier's copy
2nd- DEA's copy
3rd- pharmacy copy
120
How long does a 222 form need to be saved?
2 years
121
When drugs expire, where are they sent?
DEA registered collector
122
Wasting requires how many signatures?
2
123
Who are the 2 signees of wasting?
- one destroying the med
| - the witness
124
The pharmacy must submit what form to document destruction?
DEA form 41
125
What from is sent in when reporting theft?
DEA Form 106
126
How much pseudoephedrine can be sold?
3.6 grams a day, 9 grams over 30 days
127
Isotretinoin treats what?
Severe acne
128
Isotretinoin is what?
teratogenic
129
Isotretinoin is very dangerous to who?
pregnant women
130
What program gives a "do not dispense to patient after" date regarding isotretinoin?
IPLEDGE
131
Lotronex (alosetron) is used for what?
IBS
132
What are some side effects of Lotronex?
Ischemic colitis, complications from constipation
133
Clozapine is used to treat what?
mental disorders
134
Clozapine can cause what?
agranulocytosis (don't make enough white blood cells)
135
REMS program is required for what?
transmucosal fentanyl
136
Cardio means what?
Heart
137
Vas/Vado means what?
Blood vessel
138
Vasodilators are what?
Drugs that cause the blood vessels to dilate or open to increase blood flow
139
The suffix -emia means what?
Substances in the blood
140
What does hem, hema mean?
Blood
141
What does thromb mean?
Blood clot
142
What does nephr mean?
Kidney
143
What does hepat mean?
Liver
144
What does gastro mean?
Stomach
145
What does thry mean?
Thyroid
146
What does derm?
Skin
147
What does osteo mean?
Bone
148
What does psych mean?
Mind
149
What does pulmo mean?
Lungs
150
What does bronch mean?
Bronchus
151
Oculo
Eye
152
Opthalm
Eyes
153
Oti
Ear
154
Gyne
Woman
155
Andro
Male
156
Chemo
Chemical
157
Ferro
Iron
158
Pyro
Heat
159
Hypno
Sleep
160
-mimetic
Mimicking
161
A (an)
Without
162
Hyper
Excessive
163
Hypo
Beneath
164
Auto
Self
165
Carcin
Cancer
166
Photo
Light
167
-itis
Inflammation
168
-rrhagia, rrhage, rrhea
Discharge, flowing
169
The sig is what?
The directions
170
The “disp” is what?
Quantity dispensed
171
What does “p” mean on a prescription?
After
172
What dues “c” mean in a prescription?
With
173
CM
With meals
174
AC
Before meals
175
PC
After meals
176
AM
Morning
177
PM
Afternoon
178
HS
At bedtime
179
Stat
At once
180
What does “d” mean on a prescription?
Day
181
What does “h” mean on a prescription?
Hour
182
aa
Affected area
183
PO
By mouth
184
en
Each nostril
185
SL
Sublingual
186
pr
Per rectum
187
IV
Intravenous
188
IVPB
Iv piggyback
189
IM
Intramuscular
190
SC, SubQ
Subcutaneous
191
AU
Both ears
192
ad
Right ear
193
as
Left ear
194
OU
Both eyes
195
OD
Right eye
196
OS
Left eye
197
IN
Intranasal
198
What does “Q” mean on a prescription?
Every
199
QD
Every day
200
QAM
Every morning
201
QPM
Every evening
202
QHS
Every bedtime
203
Q4h
Every 4 hours
204
QOD
Every other day
205
bid
2 times daily
206
tid
3 times daily
207
qid
Four times daily
208
nr
No refills
209
prn
As needed
210
uad, ud, ut dict
As directed
211
w,wk
Weekly
212
dtd
Dispense such doses
213
qs
Quantity sufficient
214
ss
One half
215
U
Unit
216
IU
International unit
217
APAP
Acetaminophen
218
ASA
Aspirin
219
FE
Iron
220
K
Potassium
221
Na
Sodium
222
HCL
Hydrochloride
223
MSO4
Morphine sulfate
224
MgSO4
Magnesium sulfate
225
ZnSO4
Zinc sulfate
226
PEN/PCN
Penicillin
227
TCN
Tetracycline
228
TMP/SMX
Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole
229
IV vanc
Vancomycin
230
HCTZ
Hydrochlorithiazide
231
NTG
Nitroglycerin
232
D5W
Dextrose 5% in water
233
LR
Lactated ringers
234
NS
Normal saline
235
What is a near miss?
An error that happened but didn’t reach the patient
236
What are the five rights?
right: drug, dose, patient, time, instructions
237
A safety data sheet communicates what?
storing and manipulating hazardous materials
238
What gives employees the right to know and understand safety data sheets?
OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard
239
Exposure documentation must be kept on file for how long?
30 years
240
Solid drugs are measured by what?
Weight
241
Liquid drugs are measured by what?
volume
242
How many grains are in a dram?
60
243
About how many mg in a grain?
60/65
244
Infants are dosed how frequently?
12-24 hours
245
Dosing for children is always done in what?
mg/kg
246
Subcutaneous injections are done where?
fat tissue
247
Milliequivalents (mEq) express what?
the concentration of electrolytes in a solution
248
"Units" are used for what?
Insulin, heparin, some vitamins
249
True or false: capsules contain preservatives
true
250
What does MCT stand for?
Multiple compressed tablets
251
What part of the package insert will say if the tablet can be divided?
Dosage and Administration
252
What does ODT stand for?
orally disintegrating tablets
253
What is a benefit of sublingual tablets and strips?
it avoids the stomach acids
254
A solute is what?
something completely dissolved in a solvent
255
adding water or another diluent to a powder at the time of dispensing is known as what?
Reconstituting
256
After reconstituting, antibiotic solutions are good for how long?
14 days
257
Do solutions or suspensions require a shake well label?
suspensions
258
A clear, sweetened, flavor combination of water and alcohol are known as what?
elixirs
259
Concentrated solutions of sugar in water are known as what?
syrup
260
Alcoholic or hydro alcoholic solutions or volatile substances are known as what?
spirits
261
Spirits are stored in what?
tight, light-resistant containers
262
What are tinctures?
alcoholic/hydroalcholic solutions prepared from vegetable extracts
263
Substances in which medication particles are not completely dissolved in a liquid are called what?
suspension
264
What is a solution?
preparations in which the solid ingredients of medications are dissolved in a liquid
265
Oil-based, greasy preparations that are good for dry and scaly areas are what?
ointments
266
Semi-solid emulsions that contain a combo of water, oil, active drug ingredients, as well as other substances are called what?
creams
267
Creams are better for what?
Weeping or oozing
268
Lotions are similar to creams, but they contain more what?
water
269
lotions are better for what?
hairy parts
270
semisolid preparations that contain small, solid particles suspended in a liquid are what?
gels
271
What is a highly flammable mixture where the active ingredient is dissolved in alcohol and ether?
collodion
272
What is a liquid mixture of various substances in an oil, emulsion, or alcoholic solution of soap?
liniments
273
What provides a protective layer over the area of the skin?
paste
274
What is the fingertip unit?
0. 5g (enough to cover bother sides of an adult hand)
- 3= 1 adult arm
- 2= 1 adult foot
- 6= one adult leg
275
With a transdermal patch, the drug is delivered where?
through the skin
276
True or false: ophthalmics need to be sterile, but otics don't
true
277
How many types of inhalers are there?
3
278
What is an MDI?
meter-dosed inhaler
279
What is an SMI?
soft-mist inhaler
280
What is a DPI?
dry powdered inhalers
281
An HFA is what?
A propellant used in most MDIs
282
What does an SMI use to aerosolize the drug?
a spring
283
What does a DPI use to aerosolize the drug?
the patient's breath
284
Which inhalers need to be primed before use?
MDI and SMI
285
Rectal suppositories create what kind of effect?
local
286
Intrauterine Devices (IUDs) are inserted by who?
the doctor
287
parenteral dosages avoids what?
the stomach
288
Large Volume Preparations (LVP) are larger than what?
250 mL
289
What is an IV push?
the use of a syringe to inject into the IV line
290
Most IV meds are what?
solutions
291
IV emulsions are what?
mixtures of water and oil
292
What does it mean to have similar toxicity?
Same number of dissolved particles as blood
293
What is it called when there is similar toxicity?
Isotonic solutions
294
What kind of solution has a greater number of dissolved particles than blood cells?
Hypertonic solution
295
Where is a hypertonic solution used?
Large vein
296
True or false: IM injections can be solutions or suspensions
True
297
Intradermal injections are injected where?
Upper layers of skin
298
IM injections use how long of needles?
5/8” to 1.5”
299
SubQ injections use how long of needles?
5/16” to 5/8”
300
What does it mean when the needle gauge is larger?
The skinnier it is
301
USP Chapter 800 talks about what?
Handling hazardous drugs
302
OBRA ‘90 requires what?
Patients are offered counseling by the pharmacist
303
Automated Dispensing Devices (ADDS) are what?
Computerized drug storage devices
304
HMO, Medicare, Medicaid and PPO are what?
Managed care organizations (MCO)
305
What are Managed Care Organizations?
Insurances that keep costs low while providing quality, comprehensive healthcare
306
Insurance that pays for an employee’s healthcare after they’ve been hurt on the job is called what?
Worker’s compensation
307
And medical insurance card is used when?
Visiting doctor’s office
308
A pharmacy benefits card is what?
Pharmacy coverage only; used for prescriptions
309
An ongoing amount paid by an individual to maintain coverage is called what?
A premium
310
Plan-specific limits outlining amounts the patient and the plan will pay during the plan year is called what?
Coverage stages
311
Plan specific lists of drugs covered by insurance, organized in tiers based on cost are called what?
Plan formulary
312
Who is eligible for Medicaid?
Low income people
313
Who is eligible for Medicare?
People above 65
314
What does Medicare part A cover?
Hospital visits and meds during stay, skilled nursing facility, hospice care, or home healthcare
315
Medicare part B covers what?
Outpatient care and some related prescriptions, doctor visits, vaccines, PT, medical equipment, home healthcare, some lab tests, specific post-surgery DME, diabetic testing supplies, limited meds
316
What does Medicare part D cover?
Outpatient prescriptions (many different part D plans are administered by private insurance companies
317
What does Medicare part C cover?
Combo of other 3
318
When do you enroll for Medicare part D?
Age 65
319
True or false: you can enroll in Medicare part D 3 months before or after your 65th birthday?
True
320
People over 65 who don’t enroll during their initial period are penalized with what?
Permanently higher premiums
321
When is open enrollment for Medicare part D?
October 15- December 7
322
When are the effective dates for Medicare part D?
January 1- December 31
323
You can enroll in Medicare part D if you’re under 65 if you have what?
A disability
324
The total drug cost for Medicare part D is what?
$435
325
Tricare covers who?
All active and retired service members and their families
326
Employers usually offer employees insurance through the rough private insurers known as what?
MCOs
| 2 options- HMO, PPO
327
A network of providers and facilities offering comprehensive care are called what?
HMO
328
When a patient manages their own care and chooses preferred or out of network providers and facility they have a what?
PPO
329
The ID number issues to prescribers and pharmacies by the centers for Medicare and Medicaid services is what?
National Provider Identifier (NPI)
330
What is the number for the policyholder?
01
331
What is the number for the spouse/partner?
02
332
What is the number for children?
03,04 on birth order
333
What is the issuer ID number?
8 digit number that identifies the correct insurance company to bill
334
What is considered frozen temperature?
-25- -10 degrees Celsius, to -13 to 14 degrees Fahrenheit
335
What temperatures are considered refrigerated?
2-8 degrees Celsius, 36 to 46 degrees Fahrenheit
336
What is considered room temp?
15-30 degrees Celsius, 59-86 degrees Fahrenheit
337
What is the formula for Celsius to Fahrenheit?
(9)(degrees Celsius)/ 5, then add 32
338
What is the formula for Fahrenheit to Celsius?
(Degrees Fahrenheit minus 32) x 5/9
339
What does USP stand for?
United States Pharmacopeia
340
What does BUD stand for?
Beyond Use Date
341
A single source that sells drugs and suppliers is called what?
Wholesaler
342
What does PAR stand for?
Periodic automatic replenishment
343
The study of drugs and its interactions with the body?
Pharmacology
344
What is an indication?
What a med is used for?
345
What is the Class of a drug?
Group of med it belongs to
346
What is the dosage form?
Physical form and route of administration of a drug
347
The study of how a drug interacts with the body is known as what?
Pharmacodynamics
348
The study of how the body interacts with a drug is known as what?
Pharmacokinetics
349
What does LADME mean in pharmacology?
Liberation, absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination
350
What is Liberation?
Drug breaks down, active ingredient escapes
351
What is Absorption?
Med is absorbed into the bloodstream
352
What is distribution?
Med moves to where it needs to go
353
What is metabolism?
Destruction of a the drug into inactive ingredients
354
What is Elimination?
The removal of the drug through urine or feces
355
Where the drugs fits or binds is called what?
The receptor
356
What does an agonist for?
Stimulates the body to do an action
357
What does an antagonist do?
Blocks the body from doing an action
358
Undesirable effects of a drug or medical treatment are called what?
Side effects
359
True or false: geriatric patients have a faster elimination of drugs
False
360
What organs are responsible for eliminating the drug?
Kidneys and liver
361
Narrow-spectrum antibiotics combats what?
A specific bacteria
362
How many antibiotic classes are there?
6
363
Penicillin, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams are what kind of antibiotics?
Beta Lactam
364
Ampicillin should not be administered with what?
gentamicin or other aminoglycosides
365
Keflex, Ceftin, and Omnicef are what kind of Beta Lactam antibiotics?
Cephalosporins
366
All cephalopsporins carry what?
A beta-lactam ring
367
Meropenem, Ertopenem, and Imipenem (cilastatin) are what kind of beta-lactam antibiotic?
Carbapenems
368
Aztreonam is what kind of beta-lactam antibiotic?
monobactam
369
Macrolide antibiotics are commonly used for what?
Respiratory or STDs
370
What are the two common Macrolide antibiotics?
Zithromax and Biaxin
371
True or false: Erythromycin is common today
False
372
Zithromax is available in what kind of dosing packs?
3 or 5 days
373
Sulfonamide antibiotics are often used to treat what?
upper respiratory infections/UTIs
374
Bactrim/Septra is a combo product of what?
trimethoprim (antibiotic) and sulfamethoxazole (sulfonamide)
| -abbreviated TMP/SMX
375
Sulfa group is responsible for what?
Hypersensitivity reactions
376
Tetracycline is often used to treat what?
acne, STDs, some respiratory infections
377
Doxycycline and minocycline are the most common what?
tetracycline
378
What are the brand names for tetrracycline?
Sumycin, Panmycin
379
What are the brand names for minocycline?
Dynacin, solodyn
380
What are the brand names for doxycycline?
Doryx, vibramycin
381
Aminoglycosides are used to treat what?
severe bacterial infections
382
Most aminoglycosides are available as what?
IV or IM
383
Tobramycin and gentamicin are what kind of antibitoics?
aminoglycosides
384
What is the brand name for Tobramycin/dexamethasone?
Tobradex
385
What is the brand name for gentamicin?
Gentak
386
What lab tests would a pharmacist care about if someone was taking an aminoglycoside?
- BUN (blood urea nitrogen
- SCr (serum creatinine)
(both are kidney funcation lab values)
387
What is the brand name for tobramycin?
Nebcin, Tobrex
388
What is the brand name for Neomycin Sulfate?
Neosporin
389
Fluoroquinolones are antibiotics that treat what?
respiratory, urinary tract, and intestinal infections
390
What are some adverse reactions of fluoroquinolones?
tendon rupture, mental changes, heart rhythm problems
391
Tetracyclines and fluoroquinolones need to be separate from what?
antacids and multivitamins
392
levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, and ciprofloxacin are all what?
fluoroquinolones
393
what is the brand name for levofloxacin?
Levaquin
394
What is the brand name for moxifloxacin?
Avelox, vigamox
395
What is the brand name for ciprofloxacin?
Cipro, Ciloxan
396
What is the brand name for ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone?
Ciprodex
397
Vancomycin is used to treat what?
MRSA infections
398
Clindamycin is used to treat what?
skin, vaginal, respiratory, and intestinal infections
399
Clindamycin is an effective what?
acne treatment
400
Metronidazole is used to treat what?
protozoal infections
401
What do you need to avoid when you're on metronidazole?
alcohol
402
Nitrofurantoin is used to treat what?
UTIs
403
Mupirocin is used to treat what?
skin infections
404
What is the brand name for linezolid?
zyvox
405
What is the brand name for vancomycin?
Vancocin
406
What is the brand name for clindamycin?
cleocin
407
What is the brand name for metronidazole?
Flagyl
408
What is the brand name for nitrofurantoin?
Macrodantin, Furadantin, Macrobid
409
What is the brand name for Mupirocin?
Bactroban
410
Ringworm, vaginal yeast infections, and athlete's foot are what kind of infections?
fungal
411
Many vaginal yeast infections and oral thrush cases are due to what?
candida
412
Clotrimazole troches are for what?
oral thrush
413
Monistat is used to treat what?
vaginal yeast infections
414
What is the combo of clotrimazole and betamethasone called?
lotrisone
415
The combo nystatin and betamethasone is called what?
Mycologell
416
What is the generic name for nizoral?
ketoconazole
417
What is the generic name for lamisil?
terbinafine
418
if on an antiviral, a prescriber may check what lab tests?
LFT (liver function tests)
419
What is the brand name for fluconazole?
diflucan
420
What is the brand name for clotrimazole?
Lotrimin
421
What is the brand name for Nystatin?
mycostatin
422
How do antivirals work?
influencing the replication of the virus
423
What are the most common viral skin infections?
Herpes and warts
424
Aldara is used to treat what?
warts
425
HSV-1 is what?
Cold sores
426
HSV-2 is what?
genital herpes
427
Abreva helps heal what?
cold sores
428
Acyclovir can be hard on what?
the kidneys
429
If on anti virals, the prescriber may monitor what?
BUN, SCr (renal labs)
430
What is the brand name for Valacyclovir?
Valtrex
431
What is the brand name for acyclovir?
zovirax
432
What is the brand name for valganciclovir?
valcyte
433
What is the brand name for famiciclovir?
Famvir
434
What is the brand name for Imiquimod?
Aldara
435
What is the brand name for Docosonal?
Abreva
436
Most respiratory infections are due to what?
viruses
437
What is the brand name for oseltamivir?
Tamiflu
438
Antiretroviral agents are divided into 6 classes based on what?
the effect on HIV
439
What is the brand name for the lamivudine/zidovudine combo?
combivir
440
Live vaccines contain what?
a weakened version of the living virus or bacteria
441
What vaccines are safe for pregnant and immunocompromised patients?
inactivated vaccines
442
What kind of vaccines contain only a portion of the bacteria or virus, instead of the organism?
Subunit vaccines
443
What temperatures do vaccines need to be kept at in the fridge?
2-8 degrees Celsius
| 36-46 degrees Fahrenheit
444
What temperatures do vaccines need to be kept at in the freezer?
- 50 to -15 degrees celcius
| - 58 to 5 degrees Fahrenheit
445
Egg free flu vaccines are grown in what?
Insect cells
446
When everything on a person starts to swell and they cant breath, they might be suffering from what?
anaphylactic shock
447
Vaccines for Hepatitis B are grown in what?
yeast
448
True or False: 2 live vaccines can be administered at the same time
true
449
If 2 live vaccines aren't administered at the same time, how long does someone have to wait to get the second?
4 weeks
450
Are Zostavax and MMR live or unactivated vaccines?
live
451
Is Pneumoxav live or unactivated?
unactivated
452
After receiving a vaccine, children should avoid what?
salicylate drugs (aspirin)
453
Patients who are taking antiviral agents against herpes need to wait how long before receiving a vaccine?
24 hrs
454
Which kind of vaccines are more likely to cause systemic reactions?
Live
455
Adace/TDAP is the vaccine for what?
pertussis, diphtheria, tetanus
456
Medicare part B covers what vaccines?
influenza, pneumococcal, Hepatitis B
457
Medicare Part D covers what regarding vaccines?
cost, dispensing fee, administration, other vaccines not covered by B
458
IM injections need to be administered at what angle?
90 degrees
459
SubQ injections need to be administered at what angle?
45 degrees
460
What do bronchodilators do?
open up bronchioles inside the lungs
461
Bronchodilators are divided into how many groups?
3
462
What are the three groups of bronchodilators?
Beta-2 agonists, Xanthine's, anticholinergics
463
Beta-2 agonists do what?
relax the muscles surrounding the airways
464
Short acting Beta-2 agonists are also known as what?
rescue inhalers
465
Salmeterol, Formoterol, Olodaterol, and Indacterol are all what?
Beta-2 Agonists
466
Xanthines have what?
an anti-inflammatory effect on airways
467
Theophyline and Aminophyline are what?
Xanthines
468
Ipratropium, Acldinium, Umeclidinium, SMI and Tiotropium are what?
Inhaled Anticholinergics
469
What is the brand name for Levalbuterol?
Xopenex
470
What is the brand name for Salmeterol?
Serevent Diskus
471
What is the brand name for Theophylline?
Uniphyl, Theo-24
472
What is the brand name for Aminophyline?
Norphyl
473
What is the brand name for Tiotropium?
Spiriva
474
What is the brand name of Indacaterol/glyco?
Utibron
475
What is the brand name for Oladaterol/tiot?
Stiolto
476
What is the brand name for Vilanterol/Umec?
Anoro
477
What is the brand name for Albuterol/iprat.?
Combivent
478
What is the brand name for Ipratropium?
Atrovent
479
Corticosteroids do what?
decrease inflammation in airway
480
Corticosteroids are used for what?
allergy symptoms and to prevent asthma attacks
481
True or False: Using corticosteroids orally is bad
true
482
Inhaled corticosteroids can lead to what?
thrush
483
What are the most common corticosteroid and long acting bronchodilators combos?
Fluticasone/Salmeterol, Budesonide/Formoterol
484
Leukotriene modifiers do what?
help relax muscles and reduce inflammation in the airways
| -used to PREVENT
485
Mast cell stabilizers are reserved for who?
patients with allergic asthma or exercise induced asthma
486
Antihistamines do what?
dry up nasal and respiratory secretions
487
What are the 2 groups of antihistamines?
1st and 2nd gen
488
Diphenhydramine and chlorpheniramine are which generation of antihistamine?
first
489
What is the brand name for diphenhydramine?
Benadryl
490
What is the brand name for Chlorpheniramine?
Chlor-Trimeton
491
What is the biggest side effect of antihistamines?
drowsiness
492
Tylenol PM, Sominex, and Nytol are examples of what?
1st gen antihistamine sleep agents
493
Less sedating antihistamine products are which generation?
2nd
494
Loratadine, cetirizine, and fexofenadine are what?
2nd gen antihistamines
495
What is the brand name for loratadine?
claritin
496
What is the brand name for cetirizine?
Zyrtec
497
What is the brand name for fexofenadine?
allegra
498
Gen 2 antihistamines are good for allergies, but now what?
cold symptoms
499
What is the brand name for levocetirizine?
Xyzal
500
What relives nasal stuffiness by constricting blood vessels in the nose?
decongestants
501
What are the three main types of decongestants without a prescription?
- pseudoephedrine
- phenylephrine
- nasal spray
502
Nasal spray decongestants can only be used for how long?
3 days
503
What is the brand name for oxymetazaline?
Afrin
504
When a generic allergy med is mixed with pseudoephedrine, what letter will be added to the brand name?
D
505
What thins mucus excretions in the lungs?
expectorants
506
What is the brand name for guaifenesin?
Mucinex
507
What is often used in combo with guaifenesin?
dextromethorphan (Delsym)
508
Antitussives suppress what?
cough
509
topical corticosteroids reduce what?
itching and inflammation
510
low potency topical corticosteroids are used on who?
children
511
Topical treatment shouldn't exceed how long?
2 weeks
512
What is the brand name for Triamcinolone acetonide?
Kenalog
513
What is the brand name for Clobetasol propionate?
tenovate
514
What is the brand name for hydrocortisone?
cortisone
515
What is the brand name for fluocinonide?
Lidex
516
What is the brand name for mometasone furoate?
Elocon
517
What is the brand name for betamethasone?
Diprolene
518
What condition is characterized by white scales over red patches of skin?
psoriasis
519
Protopic is used to treat what?
psoriasis
520
what is the brand name for Calcipotriene/betamethasone ?
taclomex
521
What is the brand name for calcipotriene?
dovonex
522
What is the brand name for tacrolimus?
protopic
523
What is the brand name for pimecrolimus?
Elidel
524
OTC topical acne meds often contain what?
Benzoyl Peroxide (salicyclic acid)
525
0.1% and 0.3% topical treatments are what?
prescription
526
Tetracycline and macrolide are common what?
oral antibiotics
527
What is low dose doxycycline called?
Periostat
528
What is extended release minocycline called?
Solodyn
529
Isotretinoin should never be given to who?
pregnant women
530
What is the brand name for isotretinoin?
Accutane
531
What is the brand name for adapalene?
Differin
532
What is the brand name for tretinoin?
Retin-A
533
Alopecia is a condition where what is lost?
hair
534
What is the brand name for minoxidil?
Rogaine
535
What is the brand name for finasteride?
propecia
536
Vigamox and Tobradex are used for what?
eye infections
537
Xalatan (Latanoprost) is used for what?
Glaucoma
538
There are how many classes of drugs used for treating glaucoma?
5
539
Many drugs lower pressure in the eye by doing what?
reducing the amount of fluid in the eye
540
Xalatan and Lumigan can cause the eye to do what?
change color
541
What is the brand name of Xalatan?
Latanoprost
542
What is the brand name of travoprost?
Travatan
543
What is the brand name of Bimatoprost?
Lumigan
544
What is the brand name of Tafluprost?
Zioptan
545
What is the brand name of brimonidine?
Alphagan
546
What is the brand name of brimonidine and timolol?
Combigan
547
What is the brand name of dorzolamide/timolol?
cosopt
548
Dry eyes are most often treated with what?
artificial tears or ointments
549
Restasis and Xiidra are prescription meds for what?
dry eyes
550
Visine helps red eyes by doing what?
constricting blood vessels in the eyes
551
What is the brand name for olopatadine?
patanol
552
What is the brand name for cyclosporine?
restatsis
553
What is the brand name for tetrahydrazoline?
visine
554
What is the brand name for lifitegrast?
xiidra
555
What is cirpodex used for?
ear infections
556
What is debrox used for?
ear wax removal
557
corticosteroids are added to otic solutions to reduce what?
inflammation, redness, and swelling
558
Mild acid refulx is known as what?
heartburn
559
Persistent heartburn and damage to the esophagus are known as what?
gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
560
Antacids neutralize what?
gastric acid
561
magnesium containing products cause what when used alone?
diarrhea
562
You should not have antacids if you have bad what?
kidneys
563
Levothyroxine and antacids should be separated by how long?
4 hours
564
Calcium carbonate are known as what?
tums
565
calcium carbonate/ magnesium hydroxid?
rolaids
566
H-2 receptor antagonists do what?
suppress acid secretion by working against cells in the stomach that produce acid
567
What are popular H-2 blockers?
ranitidine, famotidine, cimetidine
568
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) do what?
act on acid pumps in the stomach to prevent acid production
569
What is the brand name of esomeprazole?
nexium
570
What is the brand name of omeprazole?
prilosec
571
What is the brand name for lansoprazole?
prevacid
572
what is the brand name for rabeprazole?
Aciptlex
573
What is the brand name for pantoprazole?
protonix
574
What is the brand name for dexlansoprazole?
Dexilant
575
Antidiarrheals work by doing what?
slowing the movement of the intestines (absorbs excess water and fluids)
576
The most common antidiarrheals are what?
Imodium and Lomotil
577
Lomotil is what schedule?
5
578
Pepto-Bismol should be avoided by people who are what?
allergic to aspirin
579
what is the brand name of loperamide?
Imodium
580
What is the brand name of diphenoxylate/atropine?
Lomotil
581
What is the brand name of bismuth-subsalicylate?
pepto-bismol
582
How many kinds of laxatives are there?
8
583
Laxatives are given how long before/after tetracyclines and digoxin?
2 hours
584
What is the most popular stool softener?
docusate
585
All magnesium products should be avoided by who?
people with bad kidneys
586
saline laxatives do what?
draw fluid into the intestines and slow down colon transit time
587
Hyperosmotic laxatives work by doing what?
increasing fluid in the intestinal lining
588
Polyethylene is often used before what?
colonoscopies
589
Stimulant laxatives do what?
stimulate the intestines to promote motility
590
Stimulant laxatives should be only be used as what?
rescue treatments
591
Linzess is used for what?
constipation and IBS
592
Movantik is used for what?
opioid induced constipation
593
What is the brand name for psyllium?
metamucil
594
What is the brand name for docusate sodium/ calcate?
colace
595
what is the brand name for lactulose?
kristalose
596
what is the brand name for polyethylene/glycol?
miralax
597
What is the brand name for bisacodyl?
dulcolax
598
what is the brand name for senna?
senokot
599
what is the brand name for lubiprostone?
amitiza
600
What is the brand name for linaclotide?
Linzess
601
What is the brand name for naloxegal?
movantik
602
What is the brand name of simethicone?
Gas-X
603
When are GI stimulants used?
for conditions when the movement of food out of the stomach is slow or delayed
604
Phenothiazines do what?
calm the nausea center in the brain
605
What is the brand name of ondansetron?
zofran
606
What is the brand name of granisetron?
Kytril
607
What is the brand name of Dolasetron?
Anzemot
608
Neurokinin-1 Receptor Antagonists are used in what?
chemotherapy
609
Cholesterol build up is known as what/
hyperlipidemia
610
What does TC stand for?
Total Cholesterol
611
What are the two bad kinds of cholesterol?
LDL, Triglycerides (TGs)
612
what is the good kind of cholesterol?
HDL
613
What does Niacin do?
increases HDL and lowers LDL and TGs
614
Long acting Niacin can casue what?
Liver toxicity
615
What is the brand name for fenofibric acid?
Trilipix
616
What is the brand name for fenofibrate?
Tricor
617
What is the brand name for Gemfibrozil?
Lopid
618
What two statins have the least amount of drug interactions?
Rosuvastatin and Pravastatin
619
What causes problems with statins?
grapefruit juice
620
What is the brand name for atorvastatin?
lipitor
621
What is the brand name for Rosuvastatin?
Crestor
622
What is the brand name for Simvastatin?
Zocor
623
What is the brand name for Lovastatin?
Mevacor
624
What is the brand name for Pravastatin?
pravachol
625
What is the only cholesterol absorption inhibitor on the market?
ezetimbe
626
What do fish oils do?
reduce triglycerides and prevent heart disease
627
What are the two beneficial componenets of fish oil?
EPA and DHA
628
PCSK9 Inhibitors are what?
injectable cholesterol meds
629
Repatha and Praluent are what?
PCSK9 inhibitors
630
True or False: in blood pressure, the top is systolic and bottom is diastolic
true
631
A person is considered hypertensive is they have a blood pressure of what?
140/90 or above
632
Diuretics are also known as what?
water pills
633
Thiazides are good at what?
lowering blood pressure without getting too much fluid out of the body
634
What renal labs must be monitored when on a thiazide?
blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine (Scr)
635
Furosemide, Bumetanide, and torsemide are all what?
loop diuretics
636
What are common side effects of loop diuretics?
dehydration and dropping potassium
637
What is an example of a potassium-sparing diuretic?
spironolactone (aldactone)
638
How do Beta Blockers work?
blocking the action of beta receptors in the heart muscle and smooth muscle in the blood vessels
639
Atenolol, metoprolol, and propanolol are all examples of what?
beta-blockers
640
Bradycardia is also known as what?
low heart rate
641
True or false: beta blockers can be stopped abruptly
false
642
What is the brand name for atenolo?
tenormin
643
What is the brand name for metoprolol succinate?
Toprol XL
644
What is the brand name for Labetalol?
Trondate
645
What is the brand name for atenolol/chlorthalidone?
Tenoretic
646
What si teh brand name of metoprolol tartrate?
lopressor
647
What is the brand name of propanolol?
Inderal
648
What is the brand name of carvediolol?
Coreg CR
649
What is the brand name for Bisoprolol?
Zebeta
650
How do calcium channel blockers work?
preventing the movement of calcium in and out of cells
651
The two groups of calcium channel blockers work on what?
directly on the heart; other work on opening up blood vessels
652
Verapamil and Cardizem are CCBs that do what?
work directly on the heart
653
Amlodipine, nifedipine, and felodipine are CCBs that do what?
open up the blood vessels
654
What is the brand name for diltiazem?
Cardizem
655
What is the brand name for verapamil?
calan
656
What is the brand name for Nifedipine?
procardia
657
How do ACE inhibitors work?
through the kidneys to prevent constriction of blood vessels
658
What is the brand name of ramipril?
altace
659
What is the brand name of lisinopril?
prinivil
660
What is the brand name of enalapril?
vasotec
661
What is the brand name of benazepril?
Lotensin
662
What is the brand name of accupril?
quinapril
663
What is the brand name of fosinopril?
monopril
664
ACE inhibitors are often combined with what?
HCTZ
665
When on ACE/HCTZ combo, you should avoid what?
potassium supplements
666
Angiotension Receptor Blockers (ARBs) are very similar to what?
ACE inhibitors
667
What is the brand name of valsartan?
diovan
668
What is the brand name of telmisartan?
Micardis
669
What is the brand name of losartan?
cozaar
670
What is the brand name of olmesartan?
Benicar
671
What is the brand name of irbesartan?
avapro
672
What is the brand name of candesartan?
atacand
673
What is the only Direct Renin Inhibitor on the market?
Tekturna (aliskiren)
674
How do alpha-1 blockers work?
blocks blood vessels ability to constrict
675
What is the brand name of doxazosin?
cardura
676
What is the brand name of terazosin?
hytrin
677
Alpha-1 blockers shouldn't be mixed with what?
viagra, cialis, and levitra
678
How do Alpha-2 agonists work?
dilates blood vessels to lower BP
679
What is the brand name for Clonidine?
catapres
680
How do vasodilators work?
opens up blood vessels
681
What is the brand name for hydralazine?
apresoline
682
Nitrates are used for what?
angina/ chest pain
683
How do nitrates work?
opens up blood vessels and increases blood distribution of oxygen to the heart
684
What are the two most common nitrates?
nitroglycerin and isosorbide
685
Nitrates won't work if used continuously for how long?
24 hours
686
What is a "nitrate free period"
a separation of doses by 7 to 12 hours
687
nitroglycerin breaks down quickly when exposed to what?
light and air
688
What is an example of a cardia glycoside?
digoxin
689
What is a common test while on a cardia glycoside?
EKG
690
Antiarrhythmics are used to treat what?
hearts beating out of rhythm
691
tachycardia means the heart is doing what?
beating too fast
692
what is a arrhythmias?
skipping heartbeat
693
What is the brand name for amiodarone?
cordarone
694
What is the brand name for sotalol?
betapace
695
What do antithrombotics do?
prevent blood clot formation
696
Anticoagulants are used to do what?
prevent blood clots that from in the veins or atrium of the heart
697
Warfarin and enoxparin are both what?
anticoagulants
698
When on a coagulant, you need to have a consistent of what?
vitamin K
699
When on an anticoagulant, the blood monitoring includes what?
platelet count and hematocrit (HCT)
700
Newer blood thinners (xarelto, eliquis) don't require what?
monthly blood monitoring
701
Antiplatelets are used to do what?
prevent clots in the arteries
702
What are the two most common antiplatelets?
plavix and aspirin
703
Brilinta and Effient are used for what?
prevent heart attacks
704
What is the brand name for meloxicam?
Mobic
705
What is the brand name for etodolac?
Lodine
706
What is the brand name for Indomethacin?
indocin
707
What is the brand name for celecoxib?
celebrex
708
NSAIDs can have what negative sidfe effect?
can thin the blood
709
analgesics are what?
pain relievers
710
What is the max amount of analgesics in a 24hr span?
4 grams
711
What is the only Rx analgesic?
tramadol
712
What is the brand name of tramadol?
ultram
