GOM

Question 1

Before each flight ALL ‘operating flight crewmembers’ shall review (6)

Answer 1

Maintenance Log
Flight Plan
Weather 
NOTAMs
Performance 
Weight and Balance

{2-6}

Question 2

A change of PIC requires _____

Answer 2

a new Dispatch Release

(can be verbal with Dispatch - record time and initials of amending party)

{2-7}

Question 3

Above FL____ one pilot must wear 02 mask

Answer 3

410

{2-8}

Question 4

Above FL____ must wear mask if only one pilot at controls

Answer 4

250

{2-8}

Question 5

Cabin altitude above 10,00ft, up to and including ____ft, must wear mask if more than ____ min

Answer 5

12,000

30

{2-30}

Question 6

Verify MCP changes on FMA by __(PF/PM)__

Answer 6

both

{2-10}

Question 7

Both pilots verify altitude changes on ____

Answer 7

MCP

{2-12}

Question 8

How do you satisfy Special Airport Qualification?

Answer 8

read Jeppesen Special Airport Qualification pages

{2-14}

Question 9

When are non-revenue Part 91 Flights used? (3)

Answer 9

repositioning

maintenance ferry

maintenance acceptance

{2-16}

Question 10

Three-engine ferry only by persons ____

Answer 10

authorized by the Administrator

{2-20}

Question 11

Transportation ‘local in character’ is ___ min or less between airport and hotel and ___(can/can not)___ be considered part of a rest period

Answer 11

60

can

{3-1}

Question 12

Flight Time begins _____ and ends _____

Answer 12

when aircraft moves under it’s own power for the purpose of flight

when the aircraft comes to a rest after landing

{3-1}

Question 13

Must except/acknowledge flight assignment ____ hrs prior to scheduled reporting time

Answer 13

12

{3-2}

Question 14

Rest Period is a _____ period of time free from _____

Answer 14

continuous

all duty

{3-3}

Question 15

The company ___may/may not___ contact crew once during a required rest period

Answer 15

may

(up to 1 hr after release or within 1.5 hrs prior to reporting)

{3-3}

Question 16

When Autoland is used to satisfy landing currency requirements, which pilot is credited for landing?

Answer 16

both

{3-4}

Question 17

Duty Time begins ____ mins prior to scheduled departure and end ____ min after block in

Answer 17

60/90 (international)

30

{3-9/10}

Question 18

Who is responsible for notifying SOC, and establish a new report time if needed, if duty period is extended due to post flight duty requirements?

Answer 18

PIC

{3-10}

Question 19

Must block in ____ mins before end of duty time to be compliant

Answer 19

30

{3-11}

Question 20

If the projected end of duty period time is within ____ hrs of the Crew Duty End Time, the Dispatcher will notify _____ and _____

Answer 20

3

pilot

Duty Manager

{3-11}

Question 21

If you leave the company hotel for more than ____ hrs you must notify _____, _____ or ____ and leave contact number

Answer 21

2

Captain

Crew Scheduling

SOC Duty Manager

{3-13}

Question 22

Company may extend into days off for no more than ____ hrs

Answer 22

72

{3-14}

Question 23

A repositioning/ferry flight ___(may/may not)___ be performed after completion of a revenue flight as a Part 91 non-revenue flight without complying with 121 rest requirements

Answer 23

may

{3-14}

Question 24

A flightcrew member may not take off on a flight segment if he does not have _____ that the flight segment will be completed within the maximum flight and/or duty time limitations

Answer 24

a reasonable expectation

{3-15}

Question 25

Home base stby will return Crew Scheduling calls within ____ mins and be prepared to depart on DH flight within ____ hrs

Answer 25

15 4 {3-15}

Question 26

Long Call Reserve: - Positive contact with Crew Scheduling via _____ or _____ - minimum of ____ hrs notice prior to show time

Answer 26

email phone 10 {3-16}

Question 27

Short Call Reserve: - must return call within ____ min - report to the aircraft no later than ____

Answer 27

15 2 hours {3-16}

Question 28

2 pilot domestic or international flight/duty limits ____

Answer 28

8/16 (during any 24 consecutive hours) {3-18/19}

Question 29

3 pilot domestic or international flight/duty limits _____

Answer 29

12/18 (during any 24 hour period) {3-18/20}

Question 30

4 pilot domestic flight/duty limits ____

Answer 30

16/20 (during any 24 consecutive hours) {3-18}

Question 31

Flight time limitation in any 12 calendar month period

Answer 31

1,000 {3-19}

Question 32

4 pilot international flight/duty limits _____

Answer 32

no published limit/30 {3-20/21}

Question 33

Minimum rest - 4 pilot international ____

Answer 33

10 hours ‘on the ground’ 16 hours ‘on the ground’ (if more than 24 hrs on duty - scheduled or not) {3-20}

Question 34

Required Trip Envelope documents (5)

Answer 34

``` search checklist dispatch release flight plan load manifest maintenance log page (yellow) ``` {4-5}

Question 35

Walk-around must be performed by ____

Answer 35

member of flight crew OR mechanic {4-6}

Question 36

B744 is ICAO code ____ aircraft

Answer 36

E {4-9}

Question 37

No alcohol ____ hours before flight, sim, ground training

Answer 37

12 {4-33}

Question 38

Transfer of control in flight briefing (5)

Answer 38

``` speed LNAV VNAV altitude CMD ``` {4-44}

Question 39

Lowest takeoff minimums and required equipment

Answer 39

600(175m)/600(175)/600(175) HIRL ‘and’ CL lights {4-49}

Question 40

Lowest takeoff minimums with either HIRL ‘or’ CL lights

Answer 40

1000(300m)/(1000(300m)/1000(300m) {4-49}

Question 41

SMGCS (SMIGS) in effect below

Answer 41

RVR 1200 (350m) {4-50}

Question 42

Circling approaches (without training) are approved with weather _____ and minimums _____

Answer 42

1000 ft / visibility 3 miles or published circling minimums (whichever is higher) 1000 ft HAA or published MDA (whichever is higher) {4-56}

Question 43

VNAV approach requirements: GOM (4) FCOM (3)

Answer 43

-approach in database -no modifications on final segment (including FAF) - VNAV PTH annunciated by 1000 ft HAA - ANP within limits (if published) {4-57} ``` FCOM: - GP angle on legs page, or - RWxx waypoint, or - MXxx waypoint before end of runway {NP.21.42} ```

Question 44

Descent below MDA/DA(H) requirements (4)

Answer 44

visual reference continuously in position normal descent rate land in touchdown zone {4-67}

Question 45

Which RVR is controlling for approaches?

Answer 45

Touchdown zone (mid/rollout advisory only, use mid if touchdown zone inop) {4-59}

Question 46

Stabilized approach from _____ feet (5)

Answer 46

1000 correct flight path small changes in heading/pitch speed (+10/-5) landing configuration (checklist complete) sink rate no greater than 1000 fpm (or brief) {4-60} FCTM {5.4}

Question 47

Airplane must be aligned within the confines of the runway by _____

Answer 47

200 ft AGL {4-61}

Question 48

Crew must report to Dispatcher any time flight deviates: ____ min late from planned ETA ____ feet from planned altitude ____ NM from planned route

Answer 48

15 4000 100 {Ops Specs B43.c.(1)}

Question 49

When must you file a ‘low fuel’ report?

Answer 49

Emergency declared Low fuel declared and given ATC priority {Ops specs B43.c.(2)}

Question 50

Autopilot minimum use height (MUH) ILS ____ NP ____

Answer 50

100 ft MDA - 50 {Ops spec C071.c}

Question 51

Circle to land weather minimums (without training): ceiling _____ ft, visibility _____ sm, MDA _____ ft

Answer 51

1000 ft 3 sm 1000 ft (or published if higher) {Ops spec C075.d}

Question 52

Change of control the Pilot Flying should state __(5)__ then say “You have the controls.”

Answer 52

speed autoflight modes (e.g. LNAV, VNAV) altitude CMD {4-8}

Question 53

What is the minimum planned landing fuel at the _____ airport?

Answer 53

alternate 9000 kg {4-41}