GOM Flashcards
(183 cards)
1
Q
What are the categories of Ops Specs?
A
A - General & Authorizations B - En Route C - Terminal D - Maintenance E - Weight & Balance
2
Q
What information can be found in Ops Spec D085?
A
- Aircraft Listing.
- Registration and serial numbers an operator is allowed to operate under Pt 135.
3
Q
What information can be found in Ops Spec B050?
A
Authorized areas of enroute operations, limitations, and provisions.
Where an operator can conduct enroute operations.
4
Q
What information can be found in Ops Spec C052?
A
- Straight in non-precision, APV, and Cat-1 precision
approach and landing minima - all airports
- Lists approaches an operator can fly and visibility reporting requirements (i.e. TDZ RVR controlling)
5
Q
What information can be found in Ops Spec C077?
A
- Terminal visual flight rules and provisions.
- Departing and arriving VFR and IFR visual approaches
and departures.
6
Q
What information can be found in Ops Spec C079?
A
- Lower than standard takeoff minima.
- RVR values for takeoff and required visual references
7
Q
Can MEL categories B or C be extended?
A
YES
8
Q
Can MEL categories A or D be extended?
A
NO
9
Q
Can NEF categories D or R be extended?
A
YES
10
Q
Can CDL items be extended?
A
NO
11
Q
IFR Takeoff Minimums - 2 Engine Standard Takeoff Mins
A
1SM or 5000RVR
12
Q
A TERPs minimum for takeoffs or landings is
A
Limiting
13
Q
IFR Takeoff Minimums - Std TO Mins may be reduced to:
A
IAW OpSpec C079
- 500 RVR
- or 1/4 SM based on RVV
14
Q
IFR Takeoff Minimums - RVR1600 or 1/4sm - Visual AIDS Req’d
A
One visual aid: HIRL, CL, RCLM or adequate visual reference
15
Q
Contents of the Aircraft Binder (12):
A
- Form: VOR Check
- Form: Aircraft Status Sheet
- Form: Airworthiness Release
- Form: Discrepancy Log and Instructions
- Form: Condition Log and Instructions
- Form: Airworthiness Release
- Empty weight and center of gravity determination
- Radio Station Authorization
- MEL/NEF/CDL Placards
- Customs Receipt
- Insurance forms
- Credit cards
16
Q
A signed off discrepancy will have what information (5)?
A
- Aircraft TT / TC
- Corrective action
- Date
- Signature
- Certificate Number
17
Q
VOR check required how often?
A
30 Days
18
Q
Non-compliant RVSM aircraft requirements
A
- “NO RVSM” flight plan remark
- Operate in accordance to MEL
- Advise FAA through DO within 72hrs if necessary
19
Q
Discrepancy categorizations (6):
A
- Un-airworthy Item
- MEL Item
- NEF Item
- CDL Item
- Carry-Over Item
- Information Only Item
20
Q
Persons authorized to complete corrective action portion of discrepancy log:
A
- Company Maintenance Personnel
- FAA Certificated Technicians and FAA Certified Repair Stations
- Company Flight Crew may clear deferrals for expired NAV databases / gross weight increases and decreases for approach category
21
Q
What MEL categories can be extended by the DOM?
A
MEL category B and C
NEF category D and R
22
Q
Length of discrepancy MEL categories?
A
A - MEL specified
B - 3 days (midnight day recorded +72 hours) day recorded doesn’t apply
C - 10 days (midnight day recorded +240 hours) day recorded doesn’t apply
D - 120 days (midnight day recorded)
R - refurb
23
Q
What is contained within the CDL?
A
Configuration Deviation List (CDL) are those items installed on the aircraft listed as secondary airframe parts. The CDL identifies any external parts of an aircraft type which may be missing at the commencement of a flight and which contains, where necessary, any information on associated operating limitations and performance correction (e.g., speed penalty, increased fuel burn, altitude limitations). If inoperative, damaged, or missing, these items have no effect on the aircraft’s ability to be operated safely under all operational conditions.
24
Q
What items are typically in the NEF?
A
Items that if inoperative, damaged or missing have no effect on the aircraft’s ability to be operated safely under all operational conditions.
25
Maintenance Check Flight is required after what maintenance (4):
- Engine Change
- Primary Flight Control Surface Installation, Rigging, Cable Changes, Actuator Replacement
- Major structural repair or alterations that may affect flight characteristics
- As required by DOM
26
Maintenance Check Flight Conditions (3):
- Minimum Required Crew
- VMC
- Daylight
27
Maintenance Confidence Flight Conditions (1):
- Minimum Required Crew
28
Discrepancies under which Special Flight Permits Issued (6:)
- Aircraft damage
- Landing gear down operations
- Landing gear door removed
- System(s) inoperative beyond the limits of the MEL, but otherwise capable of safe flight
- Aircraft operation with flaps in full up position
- Compliance with an airworthiness directive unless the airworthiness directive states otherwise or it is determined that the aircraft cannot be moved safely
29
Hazardous Materials COMAT will not be transported on our aircraft. The ONLY exception is:
A tire assembly with serviceable tire not over inflated and it is protected from damage.
30
HAZMAT exceptions, carried by Passengers or Crewmembers. Personal use items allowed under following conditions:
- Non-radioactive medicinal or toiletry articles in checked or carry-on
- Aerosol with no risk and protective cap
31
Aggregate quantity of all HM items carried by each person allowed may not exceed:
70oz. (2kg) by mass or 68fl. oz. (2L) by volume
32
Individual containers of HM cannot exceed:
18oz. (0.5kg) by mass or 17 fl.oz. (500ml) by volume
33
What self-defense HAZMAT item may a person carry on the aircraft?
One self-defense spray not exceeding 4 fl. oz. that incorporates a positive means of prevent accidental discharge (checked baggage only)
34
How are wheelchair batteries to be prepared for travel?
Battery must be disconnected and terminal and end cables are insulated to prevent short circuits.
35
A HAZMAT incident shall be reported as soon as practical but no later than
12 hours after the occurence of the incident.
36
Hazardous Material Onboard Gulfstream A/C (8):
- Aircraft Batteries
- Engine Oil
- Life Rafts
- Fire Bottles (APU, Engines)
- Fire Extinguishers (cockpit, cabin, lav)
- Fuel
- Hydraulic Fluid
- Oxygen Bottles
37
RNAV Instrument Approaches must be accomplished only in accordance with instrument approach procedures that are:
- Contained in a CURRENT FMS Database
| - Pilot must verify approach waypoints for accuracy to current pubs
38
Night Ops Require (2):
- runway lights
| - lighted wind direction indicator (may be substituted with ground personnel)
39
Use of FMS IAP is prohibited unless:
APPR or APP is annunciated
40
Minimum Altitude Rules -
| No turns prior to
400ft AGL unless required by ATC and is safe.
41
Minimum Altitude Rules -
| The initial climb to
1500ft AGL, or APG Acceleration Altitude, if higher, must be completed as rapidly as practicable.
42
Minimum Safe and Enroute Altitudes: The terrain clearance requirements are
1,000ft, or 2,000ft in mountainous terrain, above the highest obstacle and within 5nm of the course to be flown.
Note: MSA provides terrain clearance w/in 4nm of the course to be flown.
43
Aircraft landing on a runway served by a VASI, PAPI, or other visual light system or an ILS shall
- fly at or above the visual glideslope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
- fly at or above the electronic glideslope between the OM and MM.
44
Aircraft landing on a runway without a visual or instrument system shall
use a computed 3 degree slope (300ft/1mile) until 1/2mile final approach.
45
Operations shall be suspended (8):
a) Braking Action Reports of Nil or Poor (<2RCAM)
b) Freezing rain or drizzle
c) Severe turbulence
d) Severe icing
e) Winds 50 kts or greater
f) Crosswinds beyond the manufacturer's demonstrated component
g) Greater than 10kt tailwind
h) Deemed unsafe
46
Procedures Not Authorized @ Talon (9):
```
1- Special VFR Clearances
2- Contact Approaches
3- VFR or IFR On Top Clearances
4- VFR Over-the-Top
5- RNP AR Approaches
6- Use of Standard Weights
7- Carriage of HAZMAT
8- Powerplant Reversing for Rearward Taxi
9- LAHSO
```
47
All VFR operations will have what weather conditions minimum?
Visibility Day - 3SM
Visibility Night - 5SM
Visibility Above 10k MSL - 5SM
Cloud clearance requirements - 152 (1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal)
Above 10k - 111 (1000 above, 1000 below, 1SM horizontal)
Ceiling Reports >1000ft
48
VFR Arrival Requirements:
- Company Flight Plan
- Visual Contact with destination and maintain VFR
- Operate within 10NM of airport
- IAP required @ night or reduced visibility
- Pilots familiar with airport and obstacles
- Remain in controlled airspace as long as feasible
- Published CTAF
- Required Facilities or Services
- Verified Ground Handling 1 hour prior to landing
- @Night - Arrivals require VASI/PAPI or GS system
- @Night - May not cancel IFR and land VFR at SAG airports
- @Night - Mountainous VFR only airports not authorized
49
>1600RVR - Controlling RVR for landing
- Touchdown Zone RVR
| - Mid RVR may be substituted if TDZ RVR is unavailable
50
TDZ RVR 1200, Mid RVR 1200, Rollout RVR 1000 (one may be inoperative) - Req’d Airport Equip
Daylight - HIRL or CL or servicable RCLM
| Night - HIRL or CL
51
TDZ RVR 1000, mid-RVR 1000 (if installed), and rollout RVR
| 1000, (one may be inoperative) - Req’d Visual Aids
CL or HIRL and serviceable RCLM
52
TDZ RVR 500, mid-RVR 500 (if installed), and rollout RVR 500, (one may be inoperative) - Req’d Visual Aids:
HIRL and Operative runway CL lights
53
For operations below RVR 1600 - A minimum of how may RVR systems are required?
- Two operative RVR reporting systems are required.
- All available RVR reports are controlling.
- Far-end RVR on long runways is not controlling and not to be used as one of two required RVR systems
54
If ATC does not specifically assign a SID or radar vector:
You must comply with the ODP.
55
ODP exception - VFR conditions and what pilot request?
request 'visual climb on course' which will not be assigned by ATC
56
Define a diverse airport
IFR airport without ODP are considered diverse
| - turn in any direction with 3.3% climb gradient to reach min IFR altitude
57
Uncontrolled airspace or untowered airport operations require (4):
- Instrument Approach Procedure
- CTAF
- IFR facilities and services
- Approved weather sources
58
Uncontrolled airport departure/arrival weather sources
- Departures
- Arrivals
Departures
- without approved weather, depart VMC (Captain determines) with takeoff alternate
Arrivals
- Approved Alternate Airport
- Local Altimeter or altimeter on approach chart
59
An instrument approach will not begin unless
latest visibility is at or above the landing minimums
| * may not descend past FAF w/ less than landing mins
60
Effective runway length will be at least 115% of 60% runway required (1.92) for what approach visibility:
Weather forecasts or reports indicate @ ETA or upon arrival
| - visibility will be (or is) less than 3/4SM or 4000RVR
61
When approach visibility will be less than 3/4SM or 4000RVR what runway lights and markings must be operational?
Precision Instrument Runway Centerline Marking or Centerline Lights
62
What is the point that, after which, an approach must be discontinued if the weather drops below prescribed landing visibility minimums
FAF
63
What RVR is controlling for landing?
TDZ RVR reports are controlling. Mid and Rollout RVR are advisory.
64
An aircraft may operate below DA or MDA assuming (3):
- maintain runway visual reference
- continually in safe position to land normally in the TDZ
- Visibility equal to or greater than required for approach
65
Visual Reference Requirements for Landing (airport environment)
- Approach Lights (may continue to 100ft above TDZ elevation)
- REILs, VASIs, Red Sidebars / Terminating Lights
- Threshold, Threshold Markings, Threshold Lights
- Touchdown Zone, Touchdown Zone Markings, Touchdown Zone Lights
- Runway, Runway Marking, Runway Lights
66
Requirements Visual Approach:
- Inside B, C, D airspace, within 35sm from the destination in class E airspace, or airspace beneath the designated transition area.
- IFR airport
- Flight is under the control of an ATC facility.
- Maintains VFR arrival requirements
- Both the Captain and Co-Pilot must be familiar with the airport and the surrounding obstacles to identify, avoid and maneuver safely.
If Non-Charted
- Maintains visual contact with the airport or traffic following assigned by ATC.
If Charted
- Comply with its limitations and maintain visual contact with the charted landmark(s).
- IAP is required when the crew does not have absolute assurance of obstacle clearance at night and/or when the weather conditions might not allow excellent visual conditions.
- Night Visual Approaches require a VASI/PAPI or glideslope system to be operative and used.
67
Visual approaches into special airports at night are not authorized unless:
It is a charted visual approach
68
Night visual approaches require what guidance:
- VASI/PAPI or glideslope system
| - Good personal policy, but not Talon req't
69
Missed approach must be initiated if (3):
- Runway environment not in sight at or below/past DA/MDA or MAP.
- Not in a position to make a safe landing in the TDZ
- Aircraft not stabilized
70
Regulatory fuel requirements:
FAA
ICAO
FAA
Fly to first intended destination, to alternate (if required) and an additional 45 minutes at normal cruise speed.
ICAO
71
What are standard derived alternate approach minimums (1 Nav Rule)?
At ETA, airports with one navigational facility providing a suitable straight in precision / non-precision approach procedure, or circling approach.
- A ceiling derived by adding 400 ft to the DH/MDH
- A visibility derived by adding 1 statue mile to the
authorized CAT I landing minimum
72
What are standard derived alternate approach minimums (2 Nav Rule)?
At ETA, airports with two navigational facilities, each providing a straight-in precision / non-precision approach procedure, to different, suitable runways. Extended over water operations requires separate suitable runways (two separate pieces of pavement)
- A ceiling derived by adding 200 ft to the DH/MDH of the two approaches being used
- A visibility derived by adding 1/2 statue mile to the higher authorized CAT I landing minimum of the two approaches being used
- Visibility and ceiling corrections are separate items in determining the derived minimums
73
Should not tanker into or out of (4):
- Mountainous Airports
- Wet or Contaminated Runways
- Short Field Runway
- Anytime DAAP is used
74
When is a takeoff alternate required? How close to departure?
Visibility below lowest suitable CAT1 landing minimum
| Alternate must be within 1 hour flying time at normal cruise
75
What weather minimums at destination trigger the requirement to file an alternate?
- Forecast ETA +/- 1hr weather is less than:
- Ceiling
- lowest circling MDA +1500
- lowest straight in mins (if no circle authorized) +1500 or 2000AGL, whichever higher
- Visibility (highest of: lowest apch vis mins +2sm OR 3sm)
76
Alternate Airport with GPS ONLY approaches require (2):
- RAIM check during preflight
| - destination airport does not require GPS approach
77
To utilize an airport as an alternate:
- Airport is eligible
- 1.67 dry / 1.92 wet landing performance
- Approved weather reporting
- At ETA, weather at or above landing minimums (authorized to derive minimums for 135 ops)
78
Once a flight is AIRBORNE, the flight may continue towards the destination even if weather goes below landing minimums as long as:
The weather at an alternate airport listed on the flight plan is at or above alternate derived minimums.
79
Crew Oxygen Use Requirements - Pressurized Aircraft
- Cabin Altitude above 10000MSL, Crew shall use O2 continuously
- Above FL250, if pilot leaves cockpit, other shall use O2
- Above FL350, one pilot shall use O2 continuously
80
Passenger Oxygen Requirements - Pressurized Aircraft
- At or above FL250, each occupant requires a ten minute supply
- Between 10,000 and 15,000 MSL, 02 for 10% of the occupants for a time period that exceeds 30 minutes
- Above 15000MSL continuous O2 for each occupant
81
Pax Oxygen Requirements
____ per minute at 15,000
____ per minute at 20,000
____ per minute at 25,000
1. 5 liters
2. 0 liters
2. 5 liters
82
Accelerate stop distance must not exceed the length of the runway plus the length of any _____
Stop-Way
83
For takeoff, the Thrust Reversers are only used in calculations when the field is _____
Wet or Contaminated
84
For landing, the Thrust Reversers are only used in calculations when the field is _____
Contaminated
85
Calculated takeoff distance must not exceed the length of the runway plus any _____
Clearway
86
Length of any clearway used for takeoff distance calculations may not exceed _____
> one half the runway length
87
The company does not use any clearway except as associated with a _______
Stopway
88
Calculated takeoff run may not be greater than ____
Runway Length
89
Calculated takeoff distance ends at _____ on a dry runway and ______ on a wet runway
35 feet above the runway, 15 feet above the runway
90
Enroute engine out climb rate at MEA
Maintain 50 FPM climb at MEA with critical engine inop
91
Aircraft with FMS computed altitude limits will not fly ____
above this limit and will use extreme caution when operating within 3000ft of the computed altitude limit.
92
B-RNAV or RNAV5 (RNP5) requires
+/- 5NM for 95% of time
93
P-RNAV or RNAV1 (RNP1) requires
+/- 1NM for 95% of time
94
RVSM airspace begins at ____ and ends at _____ inclusive
FL290, FL410
95
What is required prior to entering RVSM airspace (3)?
- Crew Training
- Proper Operational Equipment
- Maintenance Program
96
RVSM Required Equipment List (4)
- Two independent altitude measurement systems (ADC)
- Auto Pilot
- Alt Alerting System
- Alt Reporting Transponder
97
RVSM Tolerance
- Total Vertical Error +/- 300ft
- Altimetry System Error +/- 245ft
- Assigned Alt Deviation +/- 300ft
98
During before start for a flight into RVSM the primary altimeters must be within ____ of ______
75ft of airport field elevation
99
Prior to entering RVSM the two primary altimeters must be within
200ft of each other
100
For all RVSM flights the two primary altitmeters must be checked every
Hour, for overwater flights a log must be kept
101
If RVSM equipment fails the crew must advise ATC
"negative RVSM due to equipment"
102
When will the runway length required be 115% of required (2)?
- When weather forecasts or reports indicate the runways may be wet or slippery at ETA
- Visibility will be less than 3/4SM (4000RVR)
103
What is the difference between most suitable runway and favorable runway?
Favorable = Longest Runway, in still air.
Suitable = Best Choice at Time of Landing, with respect to winds, approaches and length.
104
In the case of an emergency, crews may use actual unfactored ____
landing distance calculations
105
If the runway is not completely dry, it should be considered
Wet
NO...not if this disagrees w/ manufacturer definition of wet data
106
A runway is considered dry when
- No precipitation reported or forecast (within ETA -4/+1)
| - Fog or mist may prevent moisture evaporating
107
To help determining if runway is dry, flight crew may utilize
Ground personnel
108
Runway is considered contaminated when (3):
- Heavy precipitation (ETA -1/+1)
- Freezing rain (any intensity)
- Snow, Snow Grains/Pellets, Ice Pellets or Hail of any intensity other than 'light' with surface temp below -2C
-Other as defined by manufacturer?
109
Regarding runway coverage, a runway is considered contaminated when:
- >25% of the runway is covered by standing water, snow, or slush more than 1/8" or 3mm , or any ice accumulation
- <25% of runway is covered, if contaminate is prior to midpoint of runway
110
Patchy contamination indicates
<25% of surface covered, absence of described surface indicates entire landing area
111
Mandatory ATC Reports
- Vacating assigned altitude
- Leveling assigned altitude (ICAO)
- Missed Approach
- Variations in average TAS of 5% or 10 knots from filed FPL
- Entering holding
- Approaching clearance limit
- Leaving assigned holding fix
- Unable to climb/descend at least 500fpm
- Any loss of navigation or communication capability
- Deviation from ATC clearance
- Safety of flight issues
- Unforecasted weather
112
What additional ATC reports are required when not in radar contact?
- Leaving final approach fix inbound
| - Corrected estimate when estimate is in error by greater than 3 minutes
113
Failed communications under IFR, fly what route:
- Last assigned route
- Vectored, by a direct route to the fix being vectored to
- Expected route
- Filed route
114
Failed communications under IFR, fly altitude:
highest of:
- Minimum altitude as appropriate phase of flight
- Expected altitude
- Assigned altitude
115
Failed communications leaving a clearance limit:
- Leave the holding fix at EFC time
- Descent for approach begin from enroute altitude upon reaching the fix from which the approach begins but not before
- EFC time
- at ETA of FPL
116
Pilot qualifications for DAAP
- Captain (2000 total / 100 PIC in type)
- Co-Pilot (1000 total / 100 PIC in type)
If Co-Pilot does not meet requirements, and Captain is not Check Airman, PIC shall make all DAAP landings
117
DAAP landings will be made with what flap setting?
Full
118
DAAP limitations
- Full Flaps Only
- No Single Engine / Emergency Procedures
- Dry Only
*Not Talon Policy*
119
DAAP runway length factors
- actual x 1.25 (dry)
| - actual x 1.44 (visibility <3/4sm / 4000RVR)
120
Once a rest period is started the company may not _____ and can only _________
Shorten the rest period, lengthen the period once.
121
To lengthen a rest period Scheduling will _________
Notify the crew member at least one hour prior to the start of the next duty period.
122
Max regulatory flight crew hours per:
- Calendar Quarter
- Two consecutive Quarters
- Calendar year
- 500
- 800
- 1400
123
Define Pre-Block Out Delay
Any delaying event that the crew becomes aware of prior to closing the cabin door prior to taxi.
124
Define Post-Block Out Delay
Any delaying event that the crew becomes aware of after closing the cabin door prior to taxi.
125
In the case of a post block out delay, if the operation was legal when the _____
block began, the flight is legal to continue.
126
During any 24 consecutive hours the total flight (block) time of the assigned flight may not exceed______
10 hours flight (block) time.
| ********
127
Flight (block) times may exceed flight time limits if:
- Normally Terminate would be legal
- Duty period does not exceed 14 hours
- Next rest period complies with Compensated Rest
- Captain approves
128
Compensated Rest Rules:
30 minutes - 11hrs rest
30-60minutes - 12hrs rest
>60minutes - 16hrs rest
129
If an airman certificate is lost, what should be done?
Contact FAA Airman Certification Branch to request temporary authority to exercise privileges.
130
Replacement Airman Certificate length of validity and restrictions:
- 60 days
- Printed and copy emailed to training dept
- May be restricted to domestic ops
131
FAA letter of investigation
notify DO (within 3 days)
132
Considered high minimums Captain when
under 100 hours PIC in type
133
High minimums Captain restrictions
- No less than standard takeoff minimums
- Add 100ft to DA/MDA on IAPs
- Add 1/2 mile to required minimum visibility
- Published RVR1800-2000 = RVR4500
- Published RVR2400-3000 = RVR4500
- Published RVR4000-5000 = RVR6000
134
Co-Pilot Limitations (less 100hrs PIC)
- No less than standard takeoff minimums
- No less than 1sm or 5000RVR for landings
- No standing water, snow, slush or similar conditions
- Braking action good
- 15kts max crosswind
- Windshear reported
- Level 3 Special Airports
- Any condition determined by Captain
135
To prevent food poisoning, crews will
Not eat or share the same meal.
136
Blood donation restrictions
No duty within 72 hrs post blood donation.
137
Passengers under 2 years (seatbelt rule)
May be held by a properly seatbelted adult passenger
138
What must an FAA Aviation Safety Inspector, NTSB or DOT air carrier evaluator provide to gain access to the cockpit? What must the Captain do?
- Properly completed FAA Form 8430-13
| - Captain will inspect FAA form 110A or S&A form 110B
139
During aircraft fueling what should not be activated or deactivated?
Batteries or Starters
140
With an active thunderstorm within ____ the aircraft will not be refueled.
10 mile radius
141
Passengers _____ or older must show a current government issued personal photo ID prior to boarding.
18 years or older
142
Unaccompanied minors
| - Travel inside the US
- approved without any form of ID
143
The _______ is the Ground Security Coordinator (GSC) until ________, at which time ________ then becomes the In-Flight Security Coordinator (ISC).
Captain, the aircraft door is closed, the Captain
144
________ is responsible for verifying each adult passenger's _________ against the manifest.
The captain, valid ID
145
Valid Identification (ID) - 3 Options
- Current government-issued photo ID
- Current government-issued ID without photo and a second current photo ID non-government
- A current Company (Talon) photo ID
146
If a passenger does not meet ID requirements contact _____
Dispatch / DO / CP
147
If an additional pax shows up...
- What sort of delay?
- What must be done?
- Pre-Block Out
- Update W&B
- Call CA and provide pax full name and DOB
- Pax will be added to trip manifest and new briefs issued after No Fly List is checked
- Must receive updated brief, unless verbal given by AOSC
148
If a passenger is a no show...
- What sort of delay?
- What must be done?
- Pre-Block Out
- Update W&B
- Call CA to verify pax not traveling
149
Crew must confirm what items prior to safety briefing:
- Destination Airport and FBO
- Brief ETE
- Brief local arrival time
- Arrival Transportation
- (optional) enroute weather and destination weather
150
Safety briefing shall include (11):
- Comply with all placards
- No smoking flight
- Safety belt instructions
- Seat backs upright
- Aircraft exits, location and operation
- Survival equipment location
- Flotation Location
- Normal and emer O2 use
- Fire Extinguisher location and instruction
- Taxi, Takeoff, Landing large devices powered off and stowed
- Briefing card location
151
How many pax briefing cards are required?
1 per seat
152
Child safety seat requirements:
- passenger provided
- Placed in a forward facing seat
- Child is proper weight
- Seat must be labeled to meet all "federal motor vehicle safety standards" and (in red lettering) "THIS RESTRAINT IS CERTIFIED FOR USE IN MOTOR VEHICLES and AIRCRAFT"
153
Whose responsibility is it to ensure a child safety seat is appropriate and installed correctly?
The parent/guardian
154
On overwater flights, how many infant life vests must be onboard?
one for each child under 35lbs
155
Animals used by handicapped passengers may be carried if:
- secured by a short, quick disconnect chain w/in reach of its master
- not allowed in exit row or cockpit
- flight conducted below 10,000ft cabin altitude
156
Large animals are not allowed where? (2):
- in the exit row
- to lie in any aisle
- must occupy a seat and be restrained
157
Higher risk dogs will not be carried unless
- specific approval is given by brief/email
- carried in kennel at all times
No Talon policy on this.
158
What animals will be kenneled at all times?
- Certain large breed dogs (Not talon policy)
- Cats / small dogs
- Other non-service animals
159
PEDs that must be stowed for taxi, takeoff and landing
- personal computers
- DVD player
- Cameras and portable camcorders
160
PEDs not allowed for use during flight
- Televisions
- Radios
- Remote control toys
- Pagers
- Wireless Modems
- E Cigarettes
- Cellular functions enabled
161
For CREW, when must PED and EFBs be in airplane mode?
- At all times unless parked at gate or designated holding area.
162
Once aware of a possible violation, how long does crew have to file an ASAP?
- 24hrs
| - 72hrs with extension from ASAP manager?
163
What is required for a LEO to carry a weapon onboard?
- Documents provided to customer service and DO
- DO issues approval
- Identify self with official badge AND official photo ID
- Captain will be notified by CA/Dispatch or DO
- Briefing shall include LEO employing agency, "Armed LEO / Escort Approved by DO"
- Captain remind LEO of prohibition of using alcohol
164
Carriage of firearm rules:
- Unloaded
- Kept in locked container (hard-sided case) (baggage compartment is NOT considered locked container in G-IV or G-V)
- Or a functional trigger lock is used
- PIC retains possession of all locking device keys
- Proper customs forms if international
165
Transport of Ammunition rules
- Personal use small arms ammunition if securely packaged in proper containers in checked baggage
166
What service equipment must be stowed for taxi, takeoff and landing?
Tables, Food, Beverage and Setups
167
May passengers bring their own alcohol?
Alcohol must be served by operator
168
An intoxicated passenger:
- May not be served alcohol
| - Will be denyed boarding
169
Blood alcohol limit for flight crew:
?FAA - 0.04
| EASA - 0.02
170
Alcohol Policy
- FAR
- Company policy
- Post accident
- 8 hrs
- 10 hrs (prior to duty)
- 8 hrs after accident unless test specimen given, or w/ DO / CP determination of alcohol not contributing factor
171
Crews will never reset ______.
- Any fuel system circuit breaker that has tripped
This is airmanship, not policy.
172
Other than fuel system CBs, crews may reset CBs how many times?
- Once
- Follow manufacturer guidance
- Contact maintenance control
173
How long shall W&B records be maintained for flights?
30 days
174
How often must company aircraft be weighed?
36 months
175
No flight will depart in IMC conditions or at night unless
Weather radar is functioning
176
If 1 EFB is inoperative:
- Crew has printed second set of current terminal charts for each airport of intended landing and alternates
177
If 2 EFB are inoperative:
If both EFB’s have failed in flight, use the “Back-Up Approach Procedures-Voice Communication Checklist” to obtain required information to complete the flight.
In the event of a dual EFB failure, operations will continue utilizing printed paper navigational charts printed prior to departure.
178
Pilots shall update their terminal charts within:
7 days of issuance
Not Talon policy
179
Air Carrier Certificate #
OZTA781J
180
Aborted Takeoff (GOM definition)
Any discontinuance after takeoff clearance and commencement of takeoff roll.
181
Passport Renewal Policy
- Primary passport will be replaced at least 6 months prior to expiration
- 2nd passport will be acquired when the primary passport is within 24 months of expiration, unless a 2nd passport is already operationally required
182
What is the guidance document for Hazmat?
ICAO Doc 9284: Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Good by Air
183
Where can the checklist for Hazmat spillage be found?
ICAO Doc 9481: Emergency Response Guidance for Aircraft Incidents Involving Dangerous Goods
