GP Flashcards
(146 cards)
1
Q
What is a FOBT kit used for?
A
To detect for bowel cancer
2
Q
What is a colonic polyp?
A
A benign tumour off the colon
3
Q
What is a suppository?
A
A tablet up the back passage as a treatment
4
Q
What is a colonoscopy?
A
A camera up the back passage
5
Q
How does CT scanning work?
A
Using X-rays
6
Q
What is a metastases?
A
A cancer which has spread
7
Q
What are haemorrhoids?
A
The blowing up of veins near/in the back passage
8
Q
What does an MRI scan locate in the body?
A
Water molecules
9
Q
What percentage of people are affected by bowel cancer?
A
5%
10
Q
At what age is bowel cancer screening offered?
A
55+
11
Q
What is bowel scope screening?
A
Screening using a camera on a thin tube
12
Q
When is bowel scope screening offered?
A
At age 55
13
Q
What does bowel scope screening look for?
A
Benign polyps
14
Q
What is the risk of bowel cancer screening?
A
Severe bleeding
15
Q
How common is a normal result for bowel cancer screening?
A
95%
16
Q
What is done if a polyp is found to be cancerous?
A
Another colonoscopy and a referral
17
Q
When is the home screening test provided?
A
Between 60-74 years
18
Q
How often is the home bowel screening test sent?
A
Every 2 years once past 60
19
Q
What does the home testing kit for bowel cancer test for?
A
Blood in the faeces
20
Q
What is required for the bowel cancer home screening?
A
2 samples of faeces on 3 occasions
21
Q
What is an unclear result on the home testing kit for bowel cancer?
A
A small amount of blood in the sample
22
Q
What is an abnormal result in the home bowel cancer screening?
A
A fair amount of blood in the sample. The patient will be invited for a colonoscopy
23
Q
What are the 4 types of bowel cancer?
A
Small bowel, colon (large bowel), rectal (back passage) and anal (bowel opening)
24
Q
What is a digital rectal examination (DRE)?
A
A finger up the back passage to feel for abnormalities
25
What is a colonoscopy?
A camera up the back passage to examine for abnormalities
26
What does a 3D colonography do?
Produces a 3D image of the large bowel and rectum
27
What is relapse?
The reoccurrence of cancer
28
Name 5 symptoms of bowel cancer
- Bleeding from back passage/blood in faeces
- A persistent and unexplained change in bowel habits
- Unexplained weight loss
- Extreme tiredness
- A pain/lump in the abdomen
29
What does PC stand for?
Present complaint
30
What does HPC stand for?
History of presenting complaint
31
What does PMHx stand for?
Past medical history
32
What does DHx stand for?
Drug history
33
What does FHx stand for?
Family history
34
What does SHx stand for?
Social history
35
What is osteoarthritis due to?
Wear and tear
36
What is a long term condition?
Can't be cured at present but can be controlled by medication and other therapies
37
Give 5 examples of long term conditions
- Diabetes
- Heart disease
- Arthritis
- Hypertension
- COPD
38
How many people are living with a long term condition in England?
15 million
39
Where are long term conditions more prevalent?
In the over 60's and in more deprived groups
40
What is multimorbidity?
The presence of two or more chronic medical conditions in an individual
41
What are the most common pair of conditions (multi morbidity)?
A cardio metabolic condition and osteoarthritis
42
What is polypharmacy?
The concurrent use of multiple medications by a patient (widely regarded as 5 or more)
43
What are some issues with polypharmacy?
Adverse drug interactions, prescription cascades, medication compliance, higher costs
44
What is the purpose of medication reviews?
Improves medication compliance, allows a joint approach between professional and patient
45
What does SOBOE stand for?
Shortness of breath on exertion
46
What is an underweight BMI?
Less than 18.5
47
What is a healthy BMI?
18.5 to 24.9
48
What is an overweight BMI?
25 to 29.9
49
What is an obese BMI?
30 or more
50
What is the maximum amount of units of alcohol you should consume per week?
Around 14 units
51
What is a coronary angiography?
X-ray and dye
52
What are some conditions which fall under cardiovascular disease?
Coronary heart disease, stroke, peripheral arterial disease, aortic disease (aneurysm)
53
What is a multidisciplinary approach?
Drawing multiple team members from multiple disciplines
54
What are the types of cardiac chest pain?
Ischaemic and non-ischaemic
55
What is the definition of ischaemic?
Restriction of blood flow
56
What is a bypass?
Adding a vein from elsewhere around the blockage
57
What are modifiable risks?
Physical activity, smoking, diet, saturated/trans fats, obesity and hypertension
58
What are some examples of primary prevention?
Changing exercise, diet, smoking habits, and lowering BMI into a healthy range
59
What are some examples of secondary prevention?
The use of statins, anti-hypertensive therapies ad controlled blood glucose
60
What are some non-modifiable factors?
Family history and being diabetic
61
What are the physiological effects of nicotine?
Activation of nicotinic ACh receptors in the brain, causing dopamine release in the NAcc (nucleus accumbens)
62
What are the two different types of smoking cessation?
Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) (e.g. patches, gums, nasal spray, microtab, inhaler) and non-nicotine pharmacotherapy (e.g. champix and zyban)
63
What are the stages of the transtheoretical model?
- Pre-contemplation
- Contemplation
- Preparation
- Action
- Maintenance/relapse
64
What is the patient approach (3 A's)?
Ask, advise, assist
65
What does spirometry do?
Measures the rate of air flow and estimates lung capacity
66
What do lung volume tests do?
Measure how much air the lungs can hold
67
What do lung diffusion capacity tests do?
Assess how well oxygen gets into the blood from the air inspired
68
What does pulse oximetry do?
Estimates oxygen levels in the blood
69
What do arterial blood gases do?
Directly tests the level of gases, such as oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood
70
What do fractional exhaled nitric oxide tests do?
Measure how much nitric oxide is in the air is exhaled. The patient will initially inhale the nitric oxide
71
Name 3 progressive lung diseases
- Emphysema
- Chronic bronchitis
- Refractory asthma
72
What is the aetiology of COPD?
Smoking, air pollution, occupational exposure
73
What is the physiology of COPD?
- Increased airway resistance due to decreased elastic recoil
- Fibrotic changes
- Luminal obstruction of airways by mucus secretion
74
What are some symptoms of COPD?
- Daily cough and mucus production
- Shortness of breath
- Wheezing
- Chest tightness
- Frequent respiratory infections
- Lack of energy
75
What is the management of COPD?
- Dependent of FEV1
- Corticosteroids
- Bronchodilators
- Nebulisers
76
What is self-management?
Encouraged by a care plan, shared decision making and patient partnership. Promotes confidence and understanding to patient's long-term conditions
77
What is patient partnership?
Patient collaboration. Encourages patients to be more involved in care and self-management
78
What is a care plan?
A document about management aims made by a patient and a professional. Ensures that patient's needs are regularly reviewed, care is patient centred and encourages self-management
79
What does patient centred mean?
Care adapted for an individual patient
80
What is shared decision making?
The sharing of ideas on how to manage care. identifies how aware patient is to their conditions and their motivation to manage it. Opportunity to clarify any issues with professional and set goals
81
What is a 'standard' blood pressure?
140/80
82
What is the health-illness continuem?
A common concept of health as a continuous spectrum ranging from optimal wellness at one end to illness cumulating in death at the other end
83
What is the WHO definition of health?
A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease
84
What is the definition of physical health?
Essential to the complete health of an individual, a state of well-being in which the individual is able to perform daily activities without problems
85
What is social well-being?
A person's ability to establish and maintain healthy relationships, as well as socialise and interact with others
86
What is mental health?
A person's condition with regard to their psychological and emotional well-being
87
What is ill-health?
A condition of inferior health in which some disease or impairment of function is present but is usually not as serious in terms of curtailing activity as an illness
88
What is a NHS health check?
At age 40-74, every 5 years, designed to spot early signs of stroke, kidney disease, heart disease, type II diabetes or dementia
89
What is the most obvious symptom of dementia?
Memory loss
90
Name a less common symptom of dementia
Restlessness
91
What is tested in cognitive assessments?
- Short/long term memory
- Concentration and attention span
- Language and communication skills
- Orientation
92
What causes Alzheimer's?
Deposits of amyloid proteins (plaques) and tau proteins which form tangles
93
What happens to neurotransmitters in Alzheimer's?
Decreases
94
What are the levels of acetylcholine like in patients with Alzheimer's?
Low
95
Where in the brain tends to be affected in Alzheimer's and what happens at this point?
This hippocampus, it is responsible for laying down new memories
96
What causes vascular dementia?
Reduced blood flow to the brain
97
What happens when there is a reduced blood flow in the brain?
Nerve cells are deprived of oxygen and nutrients, so a decline in function and death
98
What can cause a reduced blood flow in the brain?
- Small vessel disease
- Stroke
- TIAs
99
What are Lewy bodies?
Small clumps of alpha-synuclein protein that can develop inside brain cells
100
What do Lewy bodies do?
Damage the way cells work and communicate with each other in the brain
101
What causes frontotemporal dementia?
Abnormal clumping of proteins in the frontal and temporal lobes in the brain. This damages nerve cells, causing brain cells to die
102
What is the mental capacity act?
Protects and empower people who may lack the metal capacity to make their own decisions about their care and treatment
103
What is the 2 stage test of the MCA?
- Does the person have an impairment of their brain/mind?
| - Does this mean they are unable to make a specific decision when needed?
104
What is power of attorney?
A legal document which allows someone to make decisions for you, or act on your behalf, if you no longer can or don't want to
105
What is the most common symptom of dementia?
Memory loss
106
What are the point of cognitive assessments?
They may show whether there is memory difficulty
107
What do cognitive assessments test?
Short & long term memory, concentration & attention span, language & communication skill and orientation
108
What is aetiology?
Cause or set of causes for a disease or condition
109
What happens to the amount of neurotransmitters in patients with Alzheimer's?
- Decrease in neurotransmitters travelling between brain cells
- Levels of acetylcholine are low
110
What is Epidemiology?
Study of how often diseases occur in different groups of people
111
Give 8 ways to prevent cerebrovascular disease
- Beta blockers
- Lifestyle factors
- Aspirin
- Carotid enterectomy
- Lipid management
- Stents
- Anticoagulants
- Antithrombotic treatment
112
What kind of prevention are beta blockers?
Primary
113
What kind of prevention is lifestyle factors?
Primary and secondary
114
What kind of prevention is aspirin in cerebrovascular disease?
Primary and secondary
115
What kind of prevention is a carotid enterectomy?
Secondary
116
What kind of prevention is lipid management?
Primary
117
What kind of prevention is a stent?
Secondary
118
What kind of prevention is anticoagulants?
Primary and secondary
119
What kind of prevention is antithrombotic treatment?
Secondary
120
What is the most common type of cerebral disease?
Stroke
121
In what demographics are strokes most common?
- Males
- Over 65
- FHx of stroke
122
Give 6 factors which increase the risk of cerebrovascular disease
- Hypertension
- Smoking
- Obesity
- Poor diet/lack of exercise
- Diabetes
- High blood cholesterol
123
What does atherosclerosis do in blood vessels?
Causes blockages
124
Name 7 signs of a stroke
- Hemiplegia
- Hemiparesis
- Confusion
- Difficulty communicating
- Loss of half of vision
- Loss of balance
- Loss of consciousness
125
What is cerebrovascular attack?
TIA/stroke
126
What is a cerebrovascular disease?
Narrowing of arteries
127
What does the ABCD2 score assess?
Risk of a stroke within the next 7 days
128
What does the Glasgow coma scale assess?
Level of consciousness
129
What is the most common form of eczema?
Atopic eczema
130
What does atopic eczema cause?
Skin becomes itchy, red, dry and cracked
131
In what age group is atopic eczema more prevalent?
Children
132
What kind of condition is atopic eczema?
Chronic condition
133
What are the two main treatment options for atopic eczema?
- Emollients (use as much as required)
| - Topical corticosteroids (only use in regulated amounts)
134
Name 5 triggers for atopic eczema
- Irritants
- Environmental factors
- Food allergies
- Certain materials
- Hormonal changes
135
Why should soft cheese and pates be avoided in pregnancy?
To avoid listeria bacterial growth risk
136
Why should partially cooked eggs be avoided in pregnancy?
To avoid salmonella risk
137
Why should liver be avoided in pregnancy?
Too much vitamin A
138
Why should some fish be avoided in pregnancy?
Too much mercury
139
What supplements should be used in pregnancy?
10mg vitamin D and 400mg folic acid
140
What is aminocentesis?
A test offered to pregnant women as a diagnostic test for downs. Tissue sample is taken from uterus fluid surrounding the baby
141
What is chorionic villus sampling?
A test where a needle is used to take a tissue sample from the placenta. This is a diagnostic test that can be done at 11-14 weeks
142
What is chronic kidney disease?
A long term condition where the kidneys don’t work effectively as they should
143
What is EGFR?
Estimated glomerular filtration rate.
144
What is the EGFR altered by?
- Age
- Body mass
- Ethnicity
- Gender
145
What is looked at in a U&E blood test?
- Urea (created by liver - break down of proteins)
- Sodium ions (extracellular - should be high)
- Potassium ions (intracellular - should be low)
- Creatine (muscles - cleared by kidneys)
146
Give two examples of NSAIDs?
Ibuprofen and aspirin
