Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

General medicine > GP general topics > Flashcards

GP general topics Flashcards

(56 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Define osteoarthritis

A

Degenerative joints disorder in which there is progressive loss of hyaline cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Risk factors for osteoarthritis

A 
Age
Obesity
Joint abnormality 
Trauma 
Occupation
Bone density
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Clinical features of osteoarthritis

A

Affects

  • Knee
  • Hips
  • DIPs ( distal intraphaengal joint)
  • PIPs (proximal intraphaegenal joint)
Bouchards node (prox) 
Herberdens node ( distal) 
Crepitus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Features seen on image in OA

A

Loss of joint space
Osteophytes
Subarticular scleorosis
Subchondrial cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Management of OA

A

Conservative

  • Decrease wt
  • Physio
  • Walking aids

Medical

  • Paracetamol
  • NSAIDs ( also topical)
  • Tramadol
  • Steroid injections

Surgical

  • Arthroscopic wash out
  • Arthroplasty
  • Osteotomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define rheumatoid arthritis

A

Auto inflammatory condition, reaction of the microcirculation. Movement of the WBC and fluid into the extravascular space.
Pro-inflammatory cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Clinical features of RA

A

4 Classical signs

  • Redness
  • Swelling
  • Hot
  • Pain
Pain will ease on movement 
Stiffness (am)
Swelling
Hot and red
Respond to NSAID's

Arthritis: symmetrical polyarthritis of MCP joints of hands or feet

  • Swann neck
  • Boutonniere
  • Z-thumb
  • Ulnar deviation
  • Dorsal subluxation

Nodules: firm, non tender, mobile or fixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Features seen on imaging RA

A

Swelling of soft tissues
Osteopenia
Loss of joint space
Deformity of the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Management of RA

A

Medical

  • NSAID’s ( be careful of the kidneys)
  • DMARDs ( methotrexate) can cause mylosupression
  • Biologics ( Infliximab)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define osteoporosis

A

Low bone mass and microarchitecture deterioration of the bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Risk factors for osteoporosis

A 
SHATTERED
Steroids
Hyperthyroidism 
Alcohol and cigarettes
Thin (BMI<22)
Testosterone levels decrease
Early menopause
Renal/liver failure
Erosive/Inflam bone disease
Dietary Ca decrease (malabsorption)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Management of osteoporosis

A

Conservative

  • Stop smoking, decrease alcohol
  • Wt bearing or balancing exercises
  • Fall prevention assessment

Medical

  • Bisphosphonates
  • Adcal
  • Teriparetide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Classify the different types of diabetes

A

Type I: Autoimmune destruction of the beta cells of the pancreas

Type II: Insulin resistance and beta cell dysfunction ( increased insulin resistance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define metabolic syndrome

A 
Central obesity (BMI>30) 
2 of the following 
- BP>130/85
- Triglycerides >1.7mmol/L
- HDL <1.03
- Fasting glucose >5.6mmol/L
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Clinical features of diabetes

A

Polyuria
Polydipsia
Decrease weight
Lethary

Type I can present in DKA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Treatment guidelines for HTN

A

1) If under 55 = ACE inhibitor
Black or >55 = CCB

2) Add an ACE inhibitor or thiazide diuretic
3) CCB + ACEi + Thiazide diuretic
4) Add in further diuretic, alpha blocker or beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Drugs used in the treatment of heart failure

A 
Beta blockers 
Ace inhibitors 
Loop diuretics 
Spironolactone
Digoxin  
Nitrates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Protecting your practise from TB

A
  • Raising awareness: TBAlert publishing TB and making people aware of the symptoms, removing the stigma of TB
  • Contract tracing
  • Vaccinations (only give to at risk indivivduals)
  • Latent TB screening
  • Tackling TB in the underserved and at risk populations
  • Ensuring stafff are aware of how to prevent TB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Challenges of a language barrier

A
  • Poor understanding of the problem
  • Lack of knowledge re other medical conditions
  • Medications misunderstanding
  • Vulnerability in confiding details, relient on other people
  • Frustration from both sides
  • Reduced ability to build rapport.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Use of chaperones in medical appointments

A

A chaperone is present as a safeguard for all parties (patient and practitioners) and is a witness to continuing consent of the procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Discuss the issues that can arise with teenage pregnancies

A
  • Teenage mothers have x3 postnatal depression
  • Infant mortality is 60% higher

-Less likely to finish education
and have an increased risk of poverty, poor housing and lower rates of economic activity

-High cost to the economy linked to teenage pregnancies, includes but not specific to teenage abortion, delivering teenage births and social security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List the different types of consent

A

Implied consent: provided by the behaviour of the patient

Express consent: Anything other than implied consent, may be oral or written

Informed consent: consent must be obtained after a reasonable explanation of the proposed procedure to patient, so that he/she is able to make an informed decision whether to submit or not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Explain Gillick competence and Fraser guidelines

Study These Flashcards
A

Gillick competence refers to prescribing contraceptions in those who are under 16

Fraser Guidelines
- Patient understands his advice ( U16)

  • Patient cannot persuaded to inform her parents or allow the dr to informer parents
  • Patient will continue to have intercourse regardless of if she has contraception or not
  • If she does not receive contraception her mental and physical health will suffer
  • It is in her best interests for her to receive the contraception.
24
Q

Discuss the safeguarding issues raised in dealing with underage sex

Study These Flashcards
A

-Age of consent

-Age of the partner (same age relantionship, age difference)

- Does the partner give you anything( eg drink, drugs, money) in return for sex

- Vulnerable person involve
d
- Under 13 not able to be invovled in a sexual activity = criminal offence, statutory rape

-Over 16 = legally have sex

25
Outline the management for heart failure
1. ACEi and B-blocker ( do not start at the same time) 2. Aldosterone antagonist 3. Digoxin Diuretics are used as symptomatic relief ( loop diuretic) Offer influenza and pneumococcal vaccine
26
List the effects of BNP
Vasodilator Diuretics and natriuretic Suppress sympathetic tone and the renin angiotensin aldosterone system
27
Symptoms and signs of heart failure
Breathlessness Reduced exercise tolerance Oedema Fatigue ``` Signs Cyanosis Tachycardia Elevated jugular venous pressure Displaced apex beat S3 heart sound ```
28
Define COPD | Differentiate between the pink puffers and the blue bloaters
Obstructive airway disease Consists of chronic bronchitis and emphysema Pink Puffers - Increase alveolar ventilation - Near normal PaO2 - Low PaCO2 - Progress to Type I reps failure Blue bloater - Decreased alveolar ventilation - Low PaO2 - High PaCO2 - Cyanosed - Resp drive is in sensitive to high Co2 levels - Be careful giving O2
29
Investigations to confirm COPD
Post bronchodilator spirometry ( assess reversibility and demonstrate airway obstruction) CXR ( exclude lung cancer) FBC ( exclude secondary polycythaemia)
30
Management of COPD
General - Stop smoking - Encourage exercise - Treat poor nutrition Medication 1. SABA/SAMA (ipratropium) ``` Depends on FEV1 A. If FEV1 >50% 1) LABA/LAMA 2) LABA + ICS 3) LAMA + ICS + LABA ``` B. FEV < 50% 1) LABA + ICS OR LAMA+ ICS 2) LABA+ICS +LAMA Advanced - Consider LTOT PaO2< 7.3 - Pulmonary rehabilitation - Mucolytics
31
Management of AF
Goal: Rate control and anticoagulation Rate control: - B blocker - Ca2+ channel blocker ( Amiodarone) - Digoxin ** Rhythm control: - Cardioversion Antocoagulation - Chronic AF use warfarin - INR 2-3 NOTE CHA2Ds2VASc
32
Management of angina
``` Modify risk factors Aspirin ( 75-100mg daily) B-Blockers Nitrate (GTN spray) Long acting Ca channel blockers ( Amlodopine) ```
33
Micro-organism that commonly cause infective exacerbations of COPD
Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae Moraxella catarrhalis
34
Management of TIIDM
``` Aim for HBA1c 48mmol/mol (6.5%) 1. Metformin (500mg BD) if HBA1c > 58mmol/mol 2. Sulfonylurea ( Gliclazide) 3. Insulin 4. Glitazone (pioglitazone) 5. Sulfonylurea receptor binders ( nateglinide) 6. Glucagon-like peptide (GLP) analogues (exenatides) 7. DPP-4 inhibitors (sitagliptin) ``` ``` Mono therapy if fails dual therapy if fails triple therapy All with metformin Can also consider insulin ```
35
Outline the difference between impaired glucose tolerance and fasting glucose tolerance
IMPAIRED GLUCOSE TOLERANCE - Fasting plasma glucose <7mmol/L - Oral glucose tolerance 2hr >7.8mmol/L IMPAIRED FASTING GLUCOSE - Fasting plasma glucose >6.1mmol/L but <7mmol/L
36
Criteria for diagnosing DMTII
``` Polyuria Polydipsia Unexplained weight loss Visual blurring Genital thrush Raised venous glucose -Fasting >7mmol/L - Random >11.1mmol/L ```
37
Tests for Tired all the time
``` FBC ESR/CRP WCC LFT and U&E's IgA TTG Thyroid function EBV screen ```
38
Treatment of hyperthyroidism
Block and replace - Carbimazole ( 20-40mg) - Thyroxine Titration - Carbimazole Be aware of neutropenia Radioiodine Thyroidectomy
39
Treatment of hypothyroidism
Thyroxine
40
Antibodies raised in coeliac disease | Definitive diagnosis of coeliac disease
Anti-alpha gliadin Tissue transglutaminase Anti-endomysial Biopsy of the duodenum - Sub total villous atrophy - Crypt hyperplasia - Intraepithelial lymphocytes
41
Treatment of crohn's attacks
Mild Attacks - Prednisolone 30mg/d Severe Attacks - May require admission - Hydrocortisone - Metronidazole - Infliximab
42
Management of crohns
Azothioprine Methotrexate Infliximab
43
Management of UC
Sulfasalazine Azathioprine Infliximab
44
Treatment and prevention of gout
Acute Rx: - NSAID - Colchicine Prevention - Loss weight, avoid triggers - Allopurinol ( Xanthine Oxidase inhibitor) Will see negatively bifrigent needle shaped crystals on polarised light microscopy
45
Signs of venous leg ulcers
``` Shallow Large Painless Associated with varicose veins and varicose eczema Caused by incompetent valves ```
46
Management of a venous leg ulcer
``` Measure ABI if <0.8 than it is arterial disease Graduated compression bandages Cleaning and debridement Dressing Good skin care ( treat eczema) ```
47
Signs of an arterial leg ulcer
Distal, dorsum of the foot Clearly defined borders Grey granulation tissue Nocturnal pain
48
Management of arterial ulcers
Measure ABI if less than <0.8 arterial disease Modifications of cardiovascular risk factors Dressings Anti platelet drug in symptomatic patients
49
List the headache red flags
``` Early morning vomiting Worse on lying down, sneeze or bending over Papillodema Seizures Focal neurological deficit ```
50
List the contraindication for starting the pill
``` Age over 50 BMI >35 Smokers Migraine with aura Breastfeeding mothers 6 weeks postnatal Multiple CV risk factors such as smoking HTN, CVD Family hx of breast Ca VTE history Atrial fibrillation Past medical hx of stroke SLE ```
51
Emergency contraception options
An oral progestogen-only emergency contraceptive (POEC) - levonorgestrel (LNG): Inhibits ovulation A selective progesterone receptor modulator (SPRM) - ulipristal acetate (UPA: Inhibits or delays ovulation A copper intrauterine contraceptive device (Cu-IUCD): prevents implantation
52
Outline the 2 week wait guidelines for suspected cancer referrals
People with suspected cancer should be seen by a specialist within two weeks of the inital referral being made
53
General management of eczema
Emollients (Dermol/Diprbase/E45) Mild corticosteriods ( Hydrocortisone 15) Moderate steroid ( betamethasone valerate 0.25%) Finger tip unit ( amount on one fingertip)
54
Differential diagnosis of a cough
``` GORD Asthma Heart failure Cold Pneumonia (CAP/HAP) TB ```
55
Reasons for a CXR with a hx of cough
``` Persistent cough Query TB Ongoing pneumonia Weight loss Haemotapesis ```
56
Antibiotics for otitis media
Ciprofloxacin (=/- dexamethasone) | 4drops each day each ear

General medicine (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions