Green-org-test Flashcards
1
Q
- Halazone is a/an:
a. iodophor
d. oxidizing agent
b. mercury containing anti-infective e. none of the above
c. chlorine containing anti-infective
A
C
2
Q
- The therapeutic uses of amphetamines does not include which of the following:
a. in hyperkinetic children c. obesity e. hypertension
b. narcolepsy d. parkinsonism
A
E
3
Q
- Thiabendazole (Mintezol), a benzimidazole derivative, is an anthelmintic drug used primarily to treat
infections caused by:
a. Ascaris c. Strongyloides e. Taenia saginata (flatworm)
b. Necator americanus (hookworm) d. Enterobios vermicularis
A
C
4
Q
- For the treatment of systemic mycosis, which of the following antifungal agents can be administered by
intravenous route?
a. miconazole c. ketoconazole e. nystatin
b. amphotericin B d. clioquinol
A
B
5
Q
- Barbiturates with an intermediate duration of action:
a. amorbital b. Phenobarbital c. pentobarbital d. secobarbital
A
A
6
Q
- A diuretic that will manifest a competitive inhibition of the action of aldosterone:
a. Triamterene b. Spirinolactone c. Furosemide d. Chlorothiazide
A
B
7
Q
- A fourth generation cephalosphorins:
a. Cefaloxin b. Cefepime c. Cefamandole d. Cefuroxime
A
B
8
Q
- These anti-diarrheals trap the toxins and flushes them out of your system:
a. adsorbents b. anti-motility agents c. astringents d. oral rehydration salts
A
A
9
Q
- The quinolone derivative effective against P. Aeruginosa is:
a. norfloxacin c. ofloxacin e. lomefloxacin
b. ciprofloxacin d. enoxacin
A
B
10
Q
- The prototype narcotic antagonist is:
a. nalorphine b. naloxone c. levallorphan d. meperidine
A
B
11
Q
- Which of the following bases is most susceptible to alkylating agents?
a. adenosine c. thymidine e. uridine
b. cytosine d. guanine
A
D
12
Q
- Presence of electron withdrawing groups attached to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins
render:
a. activity against Pseudomonas c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria
b. acid stability d. penicillinase resistance
A
B
13
Q
- A potentially fatal aplastic anemia is a toxicity associated with:
a. chloramphenicol b. nitrofurantoin c. clindamycin d. cephalothin
A
A
14
Q
- Also known as solvent shift:
a. facilitated transport c. bulk transport e. none of the above
b. ion-pair transport d. passive diffusion
A
C
15
Q
- A broad-spectrum anthelmintic that is effective against a variety of nematode infestations and is the generic
name of Antiox:
a. Piperazine b. Thiabendazole c. Pyrantel pamoate d. Mebendazole
A
D
16
Q
- Acetaminophen is preferred over aspirin in following conditions, except:
a. rheumatic disease d. children with influenza
b. patients with peptic ulcer e. children with chicken pox
c. patients with bronchial asthma
A
A
17
Q
- Liquefied phenol, USP:
a. phenol containing 10% water c. carbol-fuchsin solution
b. phenol as surgical antiseptic d. treatment of tinea infection
A
A
18
Q
- Chelating agent that is an effective antidote foe copper poisoning and used in the treatment of Wilson’s
disease:
a. deferoxamine mesylate b. dimercaprol c. penicillamine d. EDTA
A
C
19
Q
- A common agent in smoking cessation programs providing patches:
a. lobeline b. nicotine c. emetine d. coal tar
A
B
20
Q
- Levodopa is used in the treatment of:
a. leukemia c. Alzheimer’s disease
b. Parkinson’s disease d. Tay Sach’s disease
A
B
21
Q
- The onset and duration of barbiturate action is mainly a function of its:
a. lipid solubility c. plasma binding
b. renal excretion d. method of administration
A
A
22
Q
- Mechanism of action of trimethoprim:
a. competitive inhibitor for the incorporation of PABA c. inhibits protein synthesis
b. folate reductase inhibitor d. destruction of bacterial cell wall
A
B
23
Q
- Mescaline is a _________ derivative:
a. indolethylamine b. phenylethylamine c. steroidal d. xanthine
A
B
24
Q
- Anesthetic of choice for labor:
a. halothane b. enflurance c. nitrous oxide d. methoxyflurane
A
D
25
202. Drugs which act on erythrocytic cycle of malarial parasite:
a. will be effective for radical cure c. will not be clinically effective
b. will be effective for suppressive prophylaxis d. will both be effective for prophylaxis and radical use
B
26
60. Drug of choice for absence seizures:
a. carbamazepine b. ethosuximide c. phenytoin d. primidone
B
27
189. The most potent of the inhalation anesthetic agents:
a. methoxyflurane c. enflurane e. isoflurane
b. halothane d. nitrous oxide
A
28
194. All of the following antibiotics produce neuromuscular blockade, except:
a. ampicillin c. streptomycin e. amikacin
b. kanamycin d. neomycin
A
29
123. CNS depressants with skeletal muscular relaxant property, except:
a. Methacarbamol, USP c. Baclofen e. Meprobamate
b. Carisoprodol, USP d. Buspirone
E
30
229. Penicillin is the drug of choice for the following infective conditions, except:
a. gonococcal infection d. streptococcal infection
b. pneumococcal infection e. pseudomonal infection
c. treponema pallidum infection
E
31
238. All of the following chemotherapeutic agents are useful for prophylaxis against infections caused by
specific microorganisms, except:
a. amantadine against influenza A virus d. tetracycline against rickettsial infection
b. chloramphenicol against typhoid fever e. pyrimethamine against malaria in endemic areas
c. isoniazid against tubercular infection
B
32
264. Drug of choice for urinary tract infections:
a. co-trimoxazole b. gentamicin c. naprofen d. all of the above
A
33
248. Passive diffusion includes what drug?
a. Lipid soluble b. Lipid insoluble c. Amphoteric d. Hydrophilic
A
34
129. Which of the following actions of histamine is not blocked by H1 antagonist:
a. increase in salivary excretion c. vasodilation
b. increase in gastric secretions d. itchiness
B
35
51. Cidex:
a. gammabenzenehexachloride c. hexachlorophene
b. glutarol d. carbamoyl phosphate
B
36
232. Sensitivity of gram negative bacilli to amoxicillin is due to its:
a. carboxyl group c. hydroxyl group e. carbonyl group
b. nitro group d. amino group
D
37
297. Pharmacologic effects of the classic antihistamines include all of the following, except:
a. sedation with low doses c. an antipruritic effect
b. inhibition of gastric acid secretion d. drying of salivary and bronchial secretion
B
38
151. Which of the following penicillins is resistant to penicillinase?
a. Polymyxin B c. Dicloxacillin e. Streptomycin
b. Penicillin G d. Carbenicillin
C
39
43. Fertility vitamins:
a. retinoic acid b. riboflavin c. alpha tocopherol d. biotin
C
40
49. The most potent anti-bacterial alcohol:
a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary
A
41
211. Diphenoxylate, an effective antidiarrheal drug is:
a. related to meperidine c. a narcotic antagonist e. anticholinergic action
b. atropine-like drug d. a ganglion-blocking drug
A
42
55. A tumor is benign if:
a. metastasis is evident
b. cell originating from the tumor may invade other tissues and cause damage
c. tumor mass may be removed by surgery and regression of remaining cells occur
d. cause damage to surrounding structures
C
43
84. Naturally occurring alkaloids, derivatives of tropane are:
a. nasal decongestants b. analgesic c. vasoconstrictor d. bronchodilator
D
44
120. Retin-A is:
a. alltoin b. adapalene c. tretinoin d. benzoyl peroxide
C
45
80. The functional group in pyridoxine is:
a. alcohol b. amine c. carboxylic acid d. ketone
A
46
158. AZT or Azidothymidine is used in the treatment of:
a. Koch's infection b. HIV or AIDS c. carbuncle d. ringworm
B
47
4. The following are preservatives except:
a. undecylenic acid b. Methyl paraben c. benzoic acid d. potassium sorbate
A
48
112. Among the three xanthines, it is drug of choice for obtaining a stimulating effect of the CNS.
a. caffeine b. theophylline c. theobromine d. all of the above
A
49
134. Streptomycin and other aminoglycoside antibiotics are:
a. ototoxic c. hyperglycemic e. goiterogenic
b. carcinogenic d. hepatotoxic
A
50
255. Classified as a macrolide antibiotic, except:
a. Bacitracin b. Erythromycin c. Spiramycin d. Oleandomycin
A
51
227. Vincristine is used primarily in the treatment of which of the following?
a. Hodgkin's disease c. liver cancer e. prostate cancer
b. lung cancer d. melanoma
A
52
247. Synthesized from dry hydrogen chloride and carbon monoxide at 300 degrees and 200 atm pressure:
a. tetrachloroethylene b. piperazine c. both d. none
A
53
53. Attachment of bulky groups to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render:
a. activity against Pseudomonas c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria
b. acid stability d. penicillinase resistance
D
54
35. Use of crotamiton:
a. pediculicide b. scabicide c.anthelmintic d. antibacterial
B
55
153. Which of the following penicillins is resistant to penicillinase?
a. Ampicillin c. Carbenicillin e. Mezlocillin
b. Oxacillin d. Ticarticillin
B
56
94. Lysergic acid diethylamide is:
a. derived from mushroom c. histamine analog
b. a parasympathetic drug d. ergot derivative
D
57
166. These are calcium channel blockers, except:
a. Verapamil b. Nifedipine c. Atenolol d. Diltiazem
C
58
21. Prodrugs of active anti-malarial metabolites, the dihydrotriazines:
a. quinolines b. biguanides c. beta-lactams d. quinolones
B
59
124. The drug of choice for the treatment of genital herpes being potent against DNA formation:
a. Symmetrel b. Herplex c. Acyclovir d. Vidarabine
C
60
181. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents has a good penetrability into the cerebrospinal fluid?
a. streptomycin c. tobramycin e. cephalexin
b. gentamicin d. chloramphenicol
D
61
161. The generic name of Duracef:
a. Cephradine b. Cephazoline c. Cephadroxil d. Cephalexin
C
62
260. Externally, ethyl alcohol is employed as:
a. refrigerant c. astringent
b. rubefacient d. all of the above
D
63
155. A thiazide diuretic can:
a. enhance action of amphetamines d. enhance action of oral hypoglycemics
b. antagonize action of guanethidine e. antagonize action of tricyclic antidepressants
c. antagonize action of digitalis drugs
A
64
71. A characteristic of cancer cells:
a. lack of normal growth controls c. G0 phase is the resting phase for all cell types
b. synthesis of DNA occurs in the M phase d. None of the above
A
65
240. Nitrous oxide, a general anesthetic agent, is characterized by all of the features of which of the following
groups?
a. high potency, good analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation
b. low potency, good analgesia, poor skeletal muscle relaxation
c. high potency, poor analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation
d. high potency, good analgesia, poor skeletal muscle relaxation
e. low potency, good analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation
B
66
111. Polyene antibiotics include:
I. nystatin II . amphotericin B III. Griseofulvin
a. I only b. III only c. I and II d. II and III
C
67
147. Levarterenol (Levophed) is:
a. L-epinephrine c. Isoproterenol e. L-ephedrine
b. L-norepinephrine d. L-dopa
B
68
270. Transport of drug molecules from the site of administration to the systemic circulation:
a. absorption c. metabolism e. toxicology
b. adsorption d. excretion
A
69
63. Expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil of Fagus grandiflora:
a. potassium iodide b. tyloxapol c. guaiafenesin d. emetine
C
70
46. A sample drug excreted via the saliva:
a. lidocaine b. sulfonamide c. sulfonamide d. thiamine
A
71
110. Bonamine is:
a. meclizine b. dramamine c. scopolamine d. aspirin
A
72
200. Heparin is a/an:
a. extract of animal tissue c. metal e. enzyme
b. extract of plant d. hormone
A
73
201. Amongst the following, the drug of choice for acute attack of Plasmodium vivax malaria is:
a. amodiaquine c. primaquine e. mefloquine
b. chloroquine d. quinine
B
74
58. The side effects of steroids used for asthma are minimized when the drug is given:
a. orally b. intravenously c. via inhalation d. rectally
C
75
136. Acetazolamide (Diamox) is rarely the drug of choice for diuretic therapy because it:
a. is too potent
b. causes systemic acidosis and alkaline urine
c. is habit forming
d. does not exhibit tachyphylaxis
e. induces enzymes, especially carbonic anhydrases
B
76
125. The drug most effective against malarial parasites in the liver but not effective against parasites within
erythrocytes:
a. primaquine b. pyrimethamine c. quinacrine d. chloroquine
A
77
193. Long term use of tetracyclines in pregnant women should be avoided due to several reasons. Which of
these is not true?
a. they chelate calcium ions
b. they may predispose to discoloration of deciduous teeth in the infant
c. they are toxic to the fetus and may cause abortion
d. they can cause yellow atrophy of the liver in the mother
e. they get deposited in growing bones
C
78
191. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the aminoglycoside antibiotics?
a. they are highly ionized in solution d. they are ototoxic and nephrotoxic
b. they are bactericidal e. they are easily absorbed after oral administration
c. they are more effective in alkaline medium
E
79
68. Propionic acid derivative:
a. paracetamol b. dipyrone c. piroxicam d. naproxen
D
80
91. Although the prostaglandins are hormone-like, they may closely resemble which of the following
chemically?
a. enzymes b. porphyrins c. proteins d. lipids
D
81
234. The following antibiotic possess clinically useful antimalignant property, except:
a. mitomycin c. streptomycin e. plicamycin
b. bleomycin d. daunorubicin
C
82
182. The scientist who can lay claim to the title of Father of Chemotherapy:
a. Robert Koch c. Paul Ehrlich e. Giuseppe Brotzu
b. Joseph Lister d. Alexander Fleming
C
83
100. Kantrex belongs to this type of antibiotics:
a. penicillins b. cephalosphorins c. macrolides d.. aminoglycosides
D
84
2. The generic name of Nizoral:
a. Meconazole b. Clotrimazole c. Ketoconazole d. Potassium sorbate
C
85
204. Drug of choice for ringworm infection is:
a. nystatin c. griseofulvin e. amphotericin B
b. ketoconazole d. neomycin
C
86
167. The generic name of the brand Diabinese:
a. Chlorpropramide b. Glibenclamide c. Metformin d. Acetohexamide
A
87
280. Generic name of Benadryl AH:
a. guaiafenesin b. diphenhydramine c. apomorphine d. benzonatate
B
88
50. Product of acid hydrolysis of penicillins:
a. penicillenic acid b. penicilloic acid c. penicilloate Cl d. pinecillic acid
A
89
184. This group is responsible for the bone marrow toxicity of chloramphenicol:
a. NO2 group c. OH group e. benzene group
b. NH2 group d. COOH group
A
90
115. Simethicone is chemically classified as a/an:
a. wax b. silicone c. sulfur d. ketone
B
91
243. A drug molecule which possesses both intrinsic activity and affinity:
a. agonist b. antagonist c. poison d. none of the above
A
92
241. A drug receptor may be all of the following, except:
a. isolable enzyme c. protein or a nucleic acid
b. functional component of a cell membrane d. chelates
D
93
117. This is an analgesic agent that is used to lessen severity of labor pains in obstetrics:
a. colchicines b. codeine c. apomorphine d. Demerol
D
94
130. Opium is an example of:
a. narcotic analgesic c. antipyretic analgesic
b. non-steroidal analgesic d. anti-inflammatory analgesic
A
95
162. The preparation is used as pediculicide:
a. Ultralan cream b. Trimycin ointment c. Betronavate ointment d. Kwell lotion
D
96
41. This anti-histamine possesses the same indications as that of diphenhydramine:
a. meclizine b. hyoscine c. dimenhydrinate d. celestamine
C
97
221. All of the following statements are true concerning the penicillins, except:
a. this class of antibacterials acts by damaging the cell walls of bacteria
b. piperacillin and ticarcillin have activity against Pseudomonas species
c. use of any penicillin is contraindicated in a patient who has had an allergic reaction to any one penicillin
d. they are obtained from the genus of Streptomyces
e. the addition of clavulanic acid to amoxicillin preparations protects the drug from penicillinase
D
98
61. An anti-oxidant added in food products which are potent carcinogens:
a. aspartame b. PCP c. BHT d. EDTA
C
99
109. Aureomycin is:
a. kanamycin b. erythromycin c. chlortetracycline d. oxytetracycline
C
100
169. This drug is used as an osmotic diuretic:
a. Mannitol b. Ethanol c. Isopropanol d. Glycitol
A
101
218. Which of the following is not used for topical application on external surfaces?
a. mafenide c. sodium sulfacetamide e. resorcinol
b. silver sulfadiazine d. sulfisoxazole
D
102
206. Oral neomycin and streptomycin are used for sterilization of bowel and for dysentery because:
a. they are at least absorbed from oral route
b. the peak concentration in blood is achieved quickly
c. they are least toxic to GIT
d. they are destroyed by the gastric juice
A
103
140. An antimanic agent:
a. haloperidol b. lithium salts c. LSD d. phenol
B
104
220. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is not bactericidal?
a. carbenicillin c. cefuroxime e. vancomycin
b. gentamicin d. erythromycin
D
105
15. The generic name of Dalacin C which is often used to treat pimples:
a. Erythromycin b. Tetracycline c. Lincomycin d. Clindamycin
D
106
148. The most active aminoglycoside against Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:
a. streptomycin c. neomycin e. kanamycin
b. amikacin d. tobramycin
A
107
300. Large overdose of acetaminophen are likely to cause:
a. tinnitus b. hepatic necrosis c. agranulocytosis d. renal tubular acidosis
B
108
170. These drugs are narcotic analgesics, except:
a. morphine b. codeine c. nalbuphine d. mefenamic acid
D
109
90. Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are usually:
a. short acting b. intermediate acting c. long acting d. ultra short acting
D
110
32. This anti-burn therapy causes systemic acidosis:
a. silvadene b. sulfamylon c. whitfield d. vandol
B
111
83. When used in pharmaceutic preparations, the purpose of hydroquinone, lecithin and alpha tocopherol is:
a. humectant c. oil soluble antioxidant
b. demelanizing agent d. emulsifying agent
C
112
127. Voltaren is:
a. acemetacin b. ibuprofen c. diclofenac d. naproxen
C
113
30. These group of drugs share the same mechanism of action as that of sulfanilamide but are less effective:
a. trimethoprim b. sulfones c. quinolones d. none of the above
B
114
228. For the treatment of systemic mycoses, which of the following antifungal agents can be administered by
intravenous route?
a. miconazole c. ketoconazole e. nystatin
b. amphotericin B d. clioquinol
B
115
144. Tetracycline is:
a. an intermediate spectrum, bactericidal c. a broad spectrum, bactericidal
b. a broad spectrum, bacteriostatic d. an intermediate spectrum, bacteriostatic
B
116
146. The drug used in all types of tuberculosis is:
a. ethambutol c. streptomycin e. p-aminosalicylic acid
b. cycloserine d. isoniazid
D
117
116. An acidifying agent employed in effervescent salts and refrigerant drinks:
a. acetic acid b. lactic acid c. tartaric acid d. citric acid
C
118
19. The generic name of new Merthiolate is:
a. Chorhexidine gluconate c. Mexachlorophene
b. Thimerosal d. Benzalkonium chloride
D
119
186. Which is not true regarding ceftriaxone:
a. a 3rd generation cephalosporin c. administered parenterally e. resistant to acid
b. resistant to B-lactamase d. once daily dosing
E
120
145. Which of the following is not soluble in or miscible with alcohol, USP?
a. ether b. acacia c. methanol d. Phenobarbital e. water
B
121
253. A phenol primarily obtained from clove oil:
a. resorcinol b. cresol c. hexylresorcinol d. eugenol
D
122
20. Mechanism of action of quinolones:
a. injury to plasma membrane c. protein synthesis inhibition
b. inhibition of DNA gyrase d. production of toxic free radicals
B
123
99. Chloroquine is the generic name of:
a. atabrine b. artane c. aralen d. akineton
B
124
289. The following drugs are extensively metabolized in the liver, except:
a. Isoproterenol b. Propranolol c. Lidocaine d. Paracetamol
D
125
1. The ratio of disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of the bacterium Salmonella
typhi:
a. Phenol number b. Phenol coefficient c. Phenol value d. None of the above
B
126
96. Diamox has a generic name of:
a. allopurinol b. acetazolamide c. dimethylxanthine d. theophylline
B
127
11. These drugs are used in treatment of amoebic dysentery, except:
a. Tinidazole b. Chloroquine c. Etofamide d. Metronidazole
B
128
133. Sulfonamides are metabolized by humans principally by:
a. acetylation c. oxidation e. methylation
c. deamination d. conjugation
A
129
14. The drug of choice for typhoid fever:
a. Chloramphenicol b. Lincomycin c. Penicillin d. Cephalosporins
A
130
214. Which of the following is the longest-acting nitrate?
a. glyceryl trinitrate c. erythritol tetranitrate e. isosorbide dinitrate
b. amyl nitrite d. pentaerythritol tetranitrate
D
131
16. The study of chemical agents which are selectively more toxic to the invading organisms than the host:
a. therapeutics b. chemotherapy c. organic chemistry d. biochemistry
B
132
114. The combination type oral contraceptive pill contains:
a. an androgen and a progestin c. an androgen and an estrogen
b. an estrogen and progestin d. FSH and LH
B
133
197. All of the following are effective and clinically useful against worm infestation caused by Ascaris
Lumbricoides, except:
a. piperazine c. mebendazole e. thiabendazole
b. niridazole d. pyrantel pamoate
B
134
183. Effective administration routes of nitroglycerin for angina pectoris include all of the following, except:
a. oral b. inravenous c. transdermal d. sublingual
A
135
118. Benzaldehyde is synthetic:
a. cinnamon oil b. bitter almond oil c. corn oil d. rose oil
B
136
188. An antipyretic aniline derivative with weak anti-inflammatory activity:
a. acetylsalicylic acid c. mefenamic acid e. sulindac
b. acetaminophen d. indomethacin
B
137
38. An example of a glycine conjugation pathway:
a. phenol to phenolsulfate c. noradrenaline to epinephrine
b. benzoic acid to hippuric acid d. antabuse to dithiocarbamic acid
B
138
76. A necessary precursor of visual pigment is:
a. tocopherol b. retinal c. ergosterol d. retinol
B
139
179. One of the reasons why aminoglycosides are frequently combined with other antibiotics in treating certain
infections is to:
a. prevent drug infections d. increase oral absorption
b. prevent drug emergence of resistant bacteria e. decrease systemic toxicities
c. increase renal excretion
B
140
219. All of the following benzodiazepines are commonly used in the treatment of anxiety, except:
a. chlordiazepoxide c. alprazolam e. diazepam
b. clonazepam d. lorazepam
B
141
296. Which of the following is most likely to cause tinnitus and hearing loss in high doses?
a. ibuprofen b. phenylbutazone c. acetylsalicylic acid d. indomethacin
C
142
173. The generic name of Nubain:
a. Nalbuphine b. Naloxone c. Pentazocine d. Methadone
A
143
224. The preferred agent for hypertensive emergencies:
a. propranolol c. captopril e. sodium nitroprusside
b. clonidine d. diazoxide
E
144
251. Penicillin G
a. Methicillin b. Benzyl penicillin c. both d. none
B
145
272. Agents that facilitate the evacuation of bowels:
a. anti-motility agents c. astringents e. none of the above
b. cathartics d. antacids
B
146
192. Baclofen, a derivative of GABA is used in:
a. spasticity in patients with multiple sclerosis c. management of spasticity in rheumatic disorders
b. parkinsonism d. spasticity of cerebral palsy
A
147
283. Drug of choice for leprosy:
a. rifampicin c. prothionamide e. dapsone
b. ethonamide d. clofazimine
E
148
131. Which of the following penicillin derivatives is both acid-stable and resistant to penicillinase?
a. methicillin c. ampicillin e. phenoxymethyl penicillin
b. disodium carbenicillin d. oxacillin
D
149
37. A sympathomimetic agent that bind to alpha receptors found centrally that cause suppression of appetite:
a. Xenical b. Gas-X c. Apokinon d. Adifax
D
150
7. Benzyl penicillin is also known as:
a. Penicillin G b. Penicillin V c. Oxacillin d. Ampicillin
A
151
36. Mechanism of action of mebendazole:
a. paralysis due to excessive loss of calcium c. decreased glucose uptake
b. unknown mechanism of action d. phagocytic attack on worms
C
152
196. Which of the following agents is not used for local candidiasis?
a. nystatin c. griseofulvin e. clotrimazole
b. gentian violet d. miconazole
C
153
107. Procaine is a/an:
a. amine b. ester c. alcohol d. ketone
B
154
40. These anti-diarrheals tend to decrease pore sizes of GIT epithelial to prevent formation of watery stools:
a. adsorbents b. astringents c. anti-motility d. oresols
B
155
223. An antibiotic most commonly used in topical preparations:
a. clotrimazole c. griseofulvin e. foscarnet
b. vidarabine d. bacitracin
D
156
209. All of the following drugs interfere with platelet activity, except:
a. aspirin c. protamine e. anisindione
b. dimercaprol d. warfarin
B
157
106. Ma huang is a/an:
a. imidazole alkaloid b. alkaloidal amine c. purine d. steroidal alkaloid
B
158
69. An example of iodophor:
a. iodine tincture b. povidone-iodine c. Lugol's solution d. all of the above
B
159
98. Cevitamic acid is:
a. folic acid b. ascorbic acid c. nicotinic acid d. glacial acetic acid
B
160
85. Local anesthetics that is not a derivative of benzoic acid is:
a. lidocaine b. procaine c. dibucaine d. bupivacaine
A
161
164. The plant containing the anticancer drug, vincristine and vnblastine:
a. Mayapple b. Periwinkle c. European year d. Datura alba
B
162
285. Sunshine vitamin:
a. A b. D c. E d. K
B
163
86. All of the following are macrolide antibiotics, except:
a. erythromycin b. oleandomycin c. vancomycin d. spiramycin
C
164
154. Rancidity of fats may be due to:
a. reduction to alcohols c. oxidation of double bonds e. hydrogenation
b. impurities d. saponification
C
165
28. Structural congener of Symmetrel which is used for viral influenza:
a. ribavirin b. rimantadine c. gancyclovir d. foscarnet
B
166
274. Nubain:
a. meperidine c. methadone e. pentazocine
b. nalbuphine d. fentanyl
B
167
102. 1,3-dimethylxanthine is:
a. caffeine b. theobromine c. theophylline d. aminophylline
C
168
122. Vitamin C is extremely important in wound healing. Its principal effect is on the:
a. maturation of osteoblast c. reduction of inflammation
b. collagen formation d. epithelial proliferation
B
169
103. Of the following penicillin congeners, the one with the broadest spectrum of action is:
a. pen V b. methicillin c. carbenicillin d. oxacillin
C
170
257. The following antimalarials are synthetic drugs, except:
a. Atabrine b. Aralen c. Camoquin d. Quinine
D
171
72. Carcinogenic substances obtained from paper products:
a. polychlorinated biphenyls c. butylatedhydroxyanisole
b. acesulfame d. none of the above
A
172
79. Aspirin is to salicylic acid as morphine is to:
a. codeine b. methadone c. heroin d. pentazocine
C
173
135. Benzalkonium chloride is a germicidal surfactant which rendered inactive in the presence of:
a. organic acid c. cationic surfactants e. inorganic salts
b. gram-negative organisms d. soaps
D
174
198. A good local anesthetic should have all of the following properties, except:
a. systemic toxicity should be low
b. effective at body fluid pH
c. onset of anesthesia should be gradual and short duration of action to avoid toxicity
d. must be effective regardless of the site of application
e. not irritant to the tissue and should not cause any permanent structural damage to nerves
C
175
298. An example of a commercial product that is pro-drug:
a. Lasix b. Geocillin c. Morphine d. Valium
A
176
268. Mechanism of action of this anti-tubercular agent is to inhibit protein synthesis:
a. PZA b. Streptomycin c. INH d. Ethambutol
B
177
87. Ativan has this generic name:
a. triazolam b. lorazepam c. flurazepam d. tranexamic acid
B
178
262. For patients allergic to penicillins, this drug is used as alternative:
a. erythromycin c. aureomycin e. none of the above
b. spectinomycin d. lincomycin
A
179
273. Absolute alcohol is commercially prepared by:
a. direct distillation c. azeotropic distillations
b. fermentation d. none
C
180
75. Derivatives of benzylsulfonylureas are:
a. oral hypoglycemics b. diuretics c. anti-inflammatory d. spasmolytic
A
181
150. Aluminum and calcium salts inhibit the intestinal absorption of which of the following agents?
a. Isoniazid c. Phenoxymethyl penicillin e. Tetracycline
b. Chloramphenicol d. Erythromycin
E
182
235. This is the process utilized by Florey and Chain in isolating penicillin:
a. freeze-drying c. chromatography e. distillation
b. extraction d. x-ray
A
183
258. Polyene antibiotics for fungi:
a. amphotericin B c. ketoconazole e. both b & c
b. miconazole d. both a & b
A
184
62. Pentavalent antimony in the presence hydrochloric acid gives a violet precipitate with this pink dye:
a. rhodomine B c. p-nitrobenzene azo-resorcinol
b. aluminum reagent d. dimethylglyoxime
A
185
97. Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of:
a. dilantin b. codeine c. meperidine d. naloxone
C
186
287. In terms of pH, aspirin is absorbed in the:
a. mouth c. stomach e. rectum
b. small intestines d. large intestines
C
187
138. Diphenoxylate (Lomotil) is an agent useful in the treatment of diarrhea. It is structurally similar to:
a. kaolin c. diphenhydantoin e. oxalic acid
b. meperidine d. pectin
B
188
292. Superinfection is common with:
a. antibiotics which are given parenterally c. those which suppress the normal bacterial flora
b. those which are used for prolonged period d. those which are given as a depot preparation
C
189
25. An aromatic diamide derivative used for sleeping sickness:
a. suramin b. pentamidine c. efflornithine d. stibophen
B
190
67. Anesthetic of choice for patients with asthma:
a. ketamine b. thiopental c. enflurane d. none of the above
C
191
215. Which of the following is considered a primary drug for the treatment of all seizure types except absence?
a. carbamazepine c. valproic acid e. phenobarbital
b. ethosuximide d. diazepam
A
192
233. Bone marrow depression resulting in pancytopenia is the characteristic toxic effect of all the following
drugs, except:
a. oxytetracycline c. methotrexate e. dactinomycin
b. chloramphenicol d. mitomycin
A
193
252. Organo-Silicon polymers containing O and Si atoms with a substituent organic groups:
a. silicons b. alkynes c. esters d. ethers
A
194
81. Ascorbic acid and tetracycline are:
a. enols b. esters c. ethers d. amines
A
195
203. All statements regarding antipyretic analgesics are false, except:
a. produce fall in blood pressure c. develop drug dependence e. produce general CNS depression
b. raise the pain threshold d. relieve visceral pain
B
196
104. Zantac is:
a. cimetidine b. famotidine c. ranitidine d. nizatidine
C
197
213. Which of the following drugs does not reduce blood cholesterol level?
a. clofibrate c. destrothyroxine e. colestipol
b. epinephrine d. cholestyramine
B
198
149. The most effective agent in the treatment of Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Chlamydia infection is:
a. penicillin G c. vancomycin e. bacitracin
b. tetracycline d. gentamicin
B
199
236. The metabolite of the red dye, prontosil, responsible for its antimicrobial property:
a. sulfisoxazole c. sulfanilamide e. sulfapyridine
b. sulfamethoxazole d. sulfacetamide
C
200
246. Dimercaprol is also known as:
a. BAL b. Dithioglycerol c. both a & b d. none of the above
C
201
225. Superior to acyclovir in the treatment of herpes viruses in the CNS in neonates:
a. idoxuridine c. vidarabine e. zidovudine
b. ribavirin d. amantadine
C
202
165. A very common adverse reaction of alkylating agents used in the treatment of cancer:
a. alopecia b. miosis c. mydriasis d. ataxia
A
203
6. A polyene anti-fungal antibiotic:
a. Griseofulvin b. Nystatin c. Salicylic acid d. Econazole
B
204
265. Voltaren:
a. tolmetin b. sulindac c. diclofenac d. piroxicam
C
205
56. 1 gram mass of tumor is equivalent to:
a. 100,000 cancer cells b. 1 billion cancer cells c. 1 million cancer cells d. none of the above
B
206
23. The drug is effective against both exoerythrocytic and erythrocytic forms of malaria:
a. chloroquine b. quinine c. amodiaquine d. cycloguanil
D
207
157. Piperazine citrate (Antepar), gentian violet, pyrivinium pamoate (Povan) and thiabendazole
(Mintezol) are all:
a. anthelmintics c. antiseptics e. anticholinergics
b. dyes d. scabicides
A
208
59. A progesterone derivative which is used for the treatment of endometrial cancer:
a. tamoxifen b. depo-provera c. flutamide d. goserelin
B
209
210. 6-aminopenicillanic acid is:
a. major metabolite of penicillin
b. responsible for development of penicillin resistance
c. the common nucleus of all penicillins
d. a long-acting penicillin
e. minor metabolite of penicillin
C
210
142. Castellani's paint:
a. phenol containing 10% water c. phenol as surgical antiseptic
b. carbol-fuchsin solution d. antibacterial dye
B
211
39. The following are characteristics of active transport, except:
a. follow saturation kinetics c. carrier mediated
b. expenditure of energy d. higher to lower concentration gradient
B
212
143. This is an effective antidote for the treatment of poisoning by copper:
a. penicillamine b. dimercaprol c. lugol's solution d. castellani's paint
A
213
207. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement about indomethacin?
a. it is a powerful analgesic only
b. it is a power anti-inflammatory only
c. it is only analgesic and anti-inflammatory without antipyretic effect
d. it is a powerful analgesic and anti-inflammatory agent with antipyretic and uricosuric actions
e. it is powerful antipyretic only
D
214
101. Epinephrine is also known as:
a. tocopherol b. adrenalin c. emetine d. levarterenol
B
215
250. Brand name of Bisacodyl:
a. Gelusin MPX b. Dulcolax c. Haloperidol d. Fleet
B
216
159. Is a folate-reductase inhibitor:
a. Trimethoprim b. Sulfonamides c. Penicillin d. Tetracycline
A
217
54. A glycopeptide antibiotic:
a. beta-lactam b. vancomycin c. polymyxin d. probenecid
B
218
276. The least stable of all vitamins:
a. ascorbic acid c. thiamine e. menadione
b. folic acid d. retinoic acid
A
219
174. Methenamine is also called:
a. Uridine b. Uracil c. Uric acid d. Urothropin
D
220
48. Structurally specific drugs are those whose activity depends on:
a. physical characteristics c. both a and c
b. ability to bind on a specific receptor d. none of the above
B
221
77. Paracetamol is a/an:
a. salicylate b. pyrazolone c. aniline derivative d. azocine derivative
C
222
126. Feldene is:
a. sulindac b. piroxicam c. indomethacin d. ketoprofen
B
223
18. A combination of non-ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine:
a. Povidone-Ioduine b. Strong I2 solution c. Iodine Tincture d. I2 in KI solution
A
224
288. Therapeutic gas used as a gas diluent/carrier:
a. oxygen b. helium c. nitrogen d. carbon dioxide
B
225
190. Which of the following antineoplastics is not considered an antimetabolite?
a. methotrexate c. etoposide e. cytarabine
b. thioguanine d. fluorouracil
C
226
78. All of the following are progestins except:
a. norethindrone b. testosterone c. ethynodiol diacetate d. progesterone
B
227
139. Which of the following is classified as a broad-spectrum antibiotic?
a. ampicillin c. sodium methicillin e. potassium phenethicillin
b. penicillin G d. sodium cloxacillin
A
228
44. Calcitriol, a hormone responsible for enhanced absorption of calcium from the intestines, is synthesized
from:
a. calcitonin b. vitamin D2 c. vitamin D3 d. caltrate
C
229
29. More potent optical isomer of ofloxacin:
a. levo b. dextro c. cis isomer d. trans isomer
A
230
267. The following are the uses of methylene blue, except:
a. antidote for cyanide poisoning c. antidote for barbiturate poisoning
b. antidote for nitrate poisoning d. none of the above
C
231
237. Which of the following antiviral agents is not useful for the treatment of herpes virus infection?
a. vidarabine c. trifluridine e. idoxuridine
b. interferon d. acyclovir
B
232
119. The ring common among penicillins and cephalosphorins:
a. benzene ring b. B-lactam ring c. thiazole ring d. phenothiazone
B
233
26. Methylated erythromycin:
a. clarithromycin b. azithromycin c. lincomycin d. ilotycin
A
234
108. The functional group found in codeine and scopolamine is a/an:
a. amine b. alcohol c. ester d. ether
D
235
271. Methylsalicylate is also known as :
a. toothache drop b. oil of Jasmine c. oil of rose d. oil of wintergreen
D
236
281. A bright red dye that was found to create remarkable cures of streptococcal infections:
a. prontosil b. methyl red c. both d. none
A
237
57. The following are mucolytics, except:
a. bromhexine b. acetylcysteine c. caramiphen d. none of the above
C
238
284. The metabolic function of niacin:
a. decarboxylation c. differentiation of epithelial tissues
b. redox reactions d. maturation of erythrocytes
B
239
222. In choosing a specific benzodiazepine for the treatment of insomnia, all of the following are considerations,
except:
a. age of the patient
b. mental status of the patient
c. the half life of the drug
d. the absorption of the drug
e. the underlying sleep disorder being treated
B
240
291. The excretion of weakly basic drug will be more rapid in acidic urine than in basic urine because:
a. all drugs are excreted more rapidly in acidic urine
b. the drug will exist primarily in the unionized form, which cannot easily be reabsorbed
c. weak bases cannot be reabsorbed from the kidney tubules
d. the drug will exist primarily in the ionized form, which cannot be easily reabsorbed
D
241
216. Which of the following penicillins is acid stable and therefore orally effective:
a. benzathine penicillin c. cloxacillin e. piperacillin
b. procaine penicillin d. tricarcillin
C
242
230. All of the following drugs act as prodrugs and need to be converted in the body to active compound, except:
a. levodopa c. prednisone e. cyclophosphamide
b. salbutamol d. bacampicillin
B
243
74. Which of the following functional groups is the most basic?
a. imide b. amide c. amine d. aniline
C
244
88. Plasil is:
a. acyclovir b. metoclopramide c. diclofenac sodium d. tranexamic acid
B
245
290. A dye used in vital nerve staining:
a. malachite green b. gentian violet c. methylene blue d. basic fuchsin
C
246
275. Kaopectate:
a. activated charcoal c. Oresol e. atropine sulfate
b. attaulgite d. kaolin + pectin
D
247
295. Bactrim and Septrim are trade names for a fixed-dose combination of:
a. sulfamethizole and trimethoxazole c. sulfamethoxazole and phenazopyridine
b. sulfisoxazole and methenamine d. sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim
D
248
34. Active form of the sulfonamide:
a. non-ionized b. ionized c. amphoteric d. oxo ring
B
249
137. The antipsychotic drug loxapine succinate (Loxitane) is a _____ compound:
a. phenothiazine c. dibenzoxazepine e. butyrophenone
b. benzodiazepine d. thioxanthene
C
250
175. Neurotoxicity caused by Isoniazid can be treated with:
a. thiamine b. pyridoxine c. menaquinone d. ergocalciferol
B
251
66. The drug of choice for the acute attack of migraine:
a. Codeine b. Avamigran c. Litec d. Inderal
B
252
269. Compounds that result from a combination of electron donors with a metal ion to form a ring structure:
a. chelates b. ligands c. both d. none
A
253
9. A fluoroquinolone:
a. Norfloxacin b. Pipemedic acid c. Methenamine d. none of the above
A
254
256. A macrolide antibiotic which was found in the soil of Iloilo:
a. Achromycin b. Albamycin c. Erythromycin d. Viomycin
C
255
5. The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is also known as:
a. clotrimazole b. miconazole c. co-trimoxazole d. cotrimazine
C
256
8. First generation urinary tract anti-infective:
a. salicylic acid b. Griseofulvin c. Norfloxacin d. Nalidixic acid
D
257
31. Mechanism of action of thiabendazole:
a. paralysis due to GABA receptor occupation c. phagocytic attack on worms
b. inhibition of cell division d. decreased glucose uptake
B
258
82. MAO is classified as a/an:
a. protein inhibitor b. complexing agent c. enzyme d. hormone
C
259
266. The chemical name of Phenethicillin:
a. Benzyl penicillin c. Phenoxyethyl penicillin
b. Phenoxymethyl penicillin d. Phenoxypropyl penicillin
C
260
279. Major organ for excretion:
a. liver c. skin e. none of the above
b. kidney d. small intestines
B
261
105. Cytotec is:
a. sucralfate b. misoprostol c. omeprazole d. pirenzepine
B
262
299. All of the following statements are correct, except:
a. sulfonamides increase the risk of neonatal kernicterus
b. ketoconazole penetrates into the CSF
c. metronidazole is effective against Enterobacter histolytica
d. mebendazole is the drug of choice in the treatment of whipworm infections
B
263
45. A metabolite of chloral hydrate:
a. trichloroacetic acid b. acetaldehyde c. carbapenem ring d. phenacetone
A
264
249. It is the tendency of the drug to combine with the receptor:
a. Efficacy b. Intrinsic activity c. Bonding d. Affinity
D
265
128. Depo-Provera is:
a. cyproterone acetate c. medroxyprogesterone acetate
b. nandrolene decanoate d. leuproreline acetate
C
266
286. The following are fat-soluble vitamins, except:
a. A b. B2 c. D d. E e. K
B
267
294. Which is not true for cephalosporins?
a. broad spectrum b. bactericidal c. affected by penicillinases d. acid-stable
C
268
95. Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is:
a. acetic acid b. salicylic acid c. oxalic acid d. citric acid
B
269
187. All of the following substances are present in opium, except:
a. thebaine c. codeine e. papaverine
b. methadone d. morphine
B
270
113. A polysaccharide that is used as plasma expander is:
a. starch b. insulin c. dextrose d. dextran
D
271
156. Surfactants are characterized by:
a. the presence of water-solubilizing groups d. the presence of fat-solubilizing groups
b. negative charges e. the presence of water-solubilizing and fat-solubilizing
c. positive charges groups in the same molecule
E
272
42. The metabolism of warfarin is induced by the following except:
a. tolbutamide b. haloperidol c. nitroglycerine d. DDT
A
273
3. Sulfonamides used for burn therapy:
a. Mafenide b. Silver sulfadiazine c. both a and b d. none of the preceeding
C
274
70. Phenylmethanol:
a. chloretone b. benzyl alcohol c. phenylalcohol d. carvacrol
B
275
160. The structure of this class of antibiotic has a beta-lactam ring and a thiazolidine ring.
a. Tazobactam b. Penicillin c. Cephalosporins d. Monobactam
B
276
245. Which is not a chelating agent?
a. 8-Methoxyquinoline c. 8-Hydroxyquinoline
b. 8-Mercaptoquinoline d. 4-AZA-Oxime
A
277
171. This is used as an inhalation anesthetic:
a. droperidol b. thiopental c. halothane d. midazolam
C
278
217. A monoamine oxidase inhibitor used as an antidepressant drug:
a. amitryptiline c. clozapine e. fluoxetine
b. thioridazine d. tranylcypromine
D
279
168. A loop or high-ceiling diuretic:
a. Furosemide b. Sorbitol c. Spirinolactone d. Hydrochlorothiazide
A
280
278. The most toxic vitamin:
a. folic acid c. retinoic acid e. pyridoxine
b. pantothenic acid d. thiamine
C
281
163. An antibiotic that is obtained from Streptomyces noursei:
a. Amphotericin B b. Nystatin c. Griseofulvin d. Clindamycin
B
282
261. Carbonic acid gas:
a. oxygen c. carbon dioxide e. helium
b. nitrogen d. ammonia
C
283
24. Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria:
a. amodiaquine b. mefloquine c. atabrine d. daraprim
B
284
89. The principal hydrolytic degradation product of aspirin is:
a. methyl salicylate b. acetyl chloride c. salicylic acid d. salicylamide
C
285
277. A change in structure of isoniazid causes:
a. an increase in the potency of the drug c. decrease in the potency of the drug
b. an increase in the duration of drug action d. none of the above
C
286
47. A vitamin A derivative used in the management of psoriasis:
a. Retin-A b. Tegison c. Accutane d. Oilatum
B
287
208. Which of the following is a depot penicillin preparation?
a. phenoxymethylpenicillin c. benzyl penicillin e. methicillin
b. benzathine penicillin d. cloxacillin
B
288
13. This drug is used in the treatment of chicken pox:
a. Zidovudine b. Chloroquine c. Acyclovir d. Metronidazole
C
289
185. Diazepam is used in the treatment of all of the following, except:
a. anxiety c. skeletal muscle spasm e. preoperative sedation
b. status epilepticus d. analgesia
D
290
254. Which of the following is used in the treatment of pernicious anemia?
a. thiamine b. niacin c. riboflavin d. cyanocobalamin
D
291
231. Amongst the following the drug of choice for scabies is:
a. sulfur c. benzyl benzoate e. tannic acid
b. crotamiton d. amodiaquine
C
292
199. From the list given below, identify the drug possessing "triad of features" which includes antiamebic.
antigiardiasis, and antitrichomonal:
a. iodoquinol c. emetine e. piperazine
b. chloroquine d. metronidazole
D
293
27. A semi-synthetic aminoglycoside whose structural prototype is kanamycin:
a. Kantrex b. Amikin c. Garamycin d. Nebcin
B
294
212. Class I antiarrhythmic drugs result in decrease in heart rate of the accelerated heart and usually reduce the
rate of conduction of cardiac impulse. They include the following, except:
a.quinidine c. disopyramide e. amiodarone
b. procainamide d. phenytoin
E
295
180. Angiotensin-converting enzymes (ACE) inhibitors are associated with a high incidence of which of the
following adverse reactions?
a. hepatitis c. agranulocytosis e. hirsutism
b. hypokalemia d. proteinuria
D
296
10. Combination therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis contain the following drugs, except:
a. Ethambutol b. Rifampin c. Isoniazid d. Streptomycin
D
297
17. Compounds that kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms when applied to living tissues:
a. disinfectant b. fungicides c. antiseptics d. systemic anti-infectives
C
298
22. 7 chloro-7-deoxy lincomycin:
a. clindamycin b. roxithromycin c. spectinomycin d. ilotycin
A
299
33. Drug of choice for filarial infections:
a. ivermectin c. diethylcarbamazine
b. praziquantel d. Stibophen
C
300
73. Prostaglandins are also known as:
a. saturated fats b. compound lipids c. eicosanoids d. all of the above
C
