Group D - Normal pregnancy, labour and puerperium Flashcards

1
Q

Briefly outline the difference between gravidity and parity

A

Gravidity = number of times a woman has been pregnant (regardless of the outcome)

Parity = total number of pregnancies carried over the threshold of viability (typically 24 + 0 weeks)

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2
Q

Outline the weeks for the 3 trimesters

A

First trimester: start of pregnancy until 12 weeks

Second trimester: 13 weeks until 26 weeks

Third trimester: 27 weeks onwards

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3
Q

At what gestation do pregnant women typically start to feel fetal movements?

How does this vary for women who have had children previously

A

Start to feel fetal movements between:
16 to 24 weeks gestation (around 4-5 months)

If had children previously:
Feel later, often not until 20 weeks gestation

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4
Q

When does nausea and vomiting typically begin, peak and resolve in pregnancy?

A

Begin:
- 4th to 7th week

Peak:
- 9th to 16th week

Resolve:
- Around the 20th week

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5
Q

How is an accurate estimation of gestation and estimated date of delivery (EDD) achieved?

Outline some factors affecting accurate dating

A

During dating scan between 10-14 weeks: ultrasound scan to measure the crown-rump length (CRL). Before this date, Naegele rule can use LMP to predict

Factors affecting accurate dating:
- Uterine fibroids
- Maternal obesity
- Multiple pregnancy

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6
Q

Outline the booking screening blood tests offered to all women during pregnancy

Any additional measurements taken at a booking clinic

A
  • FBC (anaemia)
  • Electrophoresis for haemoglobinopathies (thalassaemia and sickle cell)
  • Blood group test and antibody screening (rhesus and non-rhesus antibody status)
  • Infection screen (hepatitis B, HIV and syphilis)
  • Urine MSU (asymptomatic bacteraemia)

Additional measurements:
- Weight and height for BMI
- Blood pressure
haematuria, proteinuria and glycosuria

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7
Q

Outline topics covered in the booking visit

A
  • What to expect during pregnancy
  • Lifestyle advice
  • Supplements
  • Mental health
  • Discuss screening tests
  • Preference for birth
  • Antenatal classes
  • Breastfeeding classes
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8
Q

Outline how the following medical conditions can impact the baby / mother
- Diabetes (T1DM or T2DM)
- Hypothyroidism
- Epilepsy
- Previous VTE
- Blood bourne viruses
- Genetic diseases

A

Diabetes (type 1 or 2):
- Poor maternal health
- Fetal complications (e.g. macrosomia)

Hypothyroidism:
- If not well controlled, can lead to congenital hypothyroidism impacting neuro-development

Epilepsy:
- Seizures during pregnancy increase risk of miscarriage
- Also many anti-epileptic drugs are teratogenic

Previous VTE:
- Significantly increased risk of developing further VTEs without prophylactic treatment (e.g. LMWH)

Blood-borne viruses:
- Risk of vertical transmission during birth

Genetic disease:
- May influence the management of the patient and their pregnancy

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9
Q

List some drugs than are known to be teratogenic

A
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Sodium valproate
  • NSAIDs
  • Methotrexate
  • Retinoids
  • Trimethoprim
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10
Q

List some harmful substances that can cross the placenta

A
  • Alcohol
  • Thalidomide
  • Drugs of abuse

Therapeutic drugs:
- Anti-epileptics e.g. Lithium
- Warfarin
- ACEi
- Tetracyclines
- Trimethoprim

Smoking - indirectly, affects development of the placenta

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11
Q

Outline the timeline for the following appointments in the pregnancy timeline
- Booking scan
- Dating scan
- Antenatal appointment
- Anomaly scan

A

Booking scan: before 10 weeks

Dating scan: 10 - 14 weeks (around 12)

Antenatal appointment: 16 weeks

Anomaly scan: 18 - 21 weeks

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12
Q

Briefly outline what happens during following appointments in the pregnancy timeline
- Booking scan
- Dating scan
- Antenatal appointment
- Anomaly scan

A

Booking scan: baseline assessment and plan the pregnancy

Dating scan: ultrasound scan to calculate gestational age from crown-rump length and identify multiple pregnancy

Antenatal appointment: discuss results and plan future appointments

Anomaly scan: ultrasound to identify any abnormalities e.g. heart conditions

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13
Q

Outline some things for pregnant women to avoid during pregnancy

A
  • Alcohol
  • Smoking
  • Unpasteurised dairy / blue cheese
  • Liver or pate
  • Raw poultry / eggs / undercooked ready meals
  • Contact sports
  • Flying (increases risk of VTE)
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14
Q

Suggest some risk factors for which you would screen for gestational diabetes

A
  • High BMI (>30)
  • Previous macrosomia
  • Previous gestational diabetes
  • Family history of diabetes
  • Ethnicity linked to diabetes e.g. South Asian or middle eastern
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15
Q

Suggest some risk factors for which you would screen for pre-eclampsia

A
  • Previous pre-eclampsia
  • Family history of pre-eclampsia
  • Age > 40
  • Increased BMI (>30)
  • First pregnancy
  • Twin pregnancy (multiples)
  • Pre-existing HTN
  • Pre-existing renal disease
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16
Q

Outline symptoms of preeclampsia

A
  • Severe headache
  • Vision changes e.g. blurring or flashing
  • RUQ or epigastric pain
  • Vomiting
  • Swelling (hands, feet, face)
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17
Q

Start the management options offered to a post-term pregnancy (overdue at 41 weeks), what happens if this is unsuccessful and what if the induction is refused

A

At 41 weeks = offer membrane sweep (separation causes the release of prostaglandins which may stimulate spontaneous labour)

If the sweep is unsuccessful = offer administration of prostaglandins

If induction of labour is refused = expectant management involving regular foetal monitoring is required

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18
Q

Outline the 3 trisomy conditions tested for during nuchal translucency

A

1) Trisomy 13 = Patau
2) Trisomy 18 = Edwards
3) Trisomy 21 = Down’s

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19
Q

Outline the two antenatal screening combinations for trisomy conditions (Down’s, Patau and Edwards)

A

Combined test from 11-14 weeks
1. Ultrasound calculate nuchal translucency > 6mm
2. Maternal blood tests: beta-HCG (higher = risk) and PAPPA (lower = risk)

Quadruple test from 15-20 weeks, if missed dates for combined test
ONLY maternal blood tests
1. beta-HCG (higher = risk)
2. AFP (lower = risk)
3. Serum oestradiol (lower = risk)
4. Inhibin A (higher = risk)

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20
Q

Outline the significance of a thickened nuchal translucency on ultrasound scan

A

Presence of a thickened nuchal translucency is associated with chromosomal abnormalities and therefore requires further testing

A diagnosis can be made by amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling

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21
Q

Outline the difference between amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling, in terms of:
- What it samples
- What gestation it is typically done in
- Whether it can measure alpha-feto protein or not

A

Amniocentesis (better):
- Samples amniotic fluid containing fetal cells (which are then analysed)
- 14 weeks gestation (2nd trimester)
- CAN measure alpha-feto protein

Chorionic villus sampling:
- 8-10 weeks gestation (1st trimester)
- CAN’T measure alpha-feto protein
- Can cause absent limb defect

*Chorionic villus sampling can be done earlier, which means the pregnancy can be electively terminated earlier

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22
Q

Outline the purpose of screening tests for trisomies in pregnancy

A
  • Reproductive choice for parents to decide whether to terminate
  • Allows time for parents to prepare
  • Allows planning of birth in specialist centre
  • Allows for intrauterine therapy
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23
Q

Outline the difference between a monochorionic and dichorionic twin pregnancy and how regularly ultrasound tests should be done

A

Monochorionic = share the same placenta (risk of twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome
USS every 2 weeks

Dichorionic = have a placenta each
USS every 4 weeks

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24
Q

State the 2 vaccines that are offered to all pregnant women

A
  1. Whooping cough (from 16 weeks)
  2. Influenza (in autumn/winter)

LIVE vaccines are avoided in pregnancy

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25
Q

Outline 2 supplements that should be taken during pregnancy

A
  1. Folic acid 400mg (standard) from before pregnancy to 12 weeks - 500mg if high risk e.g. diabetic
  2. Vitamin D

Avoid vitamin A supplements - teratogenic at high doses

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26
Q

Outline the consequences of alcohol in early pregnancy

A
  • Foetal alcohol syndrome
  • Preterm delivery
  • Small for dates
  • Miscarriage
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27
Q

Outline the consequences of smoking in pregnancy

A
  • Foetal growth restriction
  • Preterm delivery
  • Small for dates
  • Miscarriage
  • Placental abruption
  • Preeclampsia
  • Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
  • Cleft lip / palette
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28
Q

Outline the frequency of antenatal appointments for the following cases:
- Uncomplicated, nulliparous
- Uncomplicated parous

A

Uncomplicated, nulliparous: 7 appointments

Uncomplicated parous: 10 appointments (more if had children before)

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29
Q

Outline how the following antenatal conditions are managed
- Pregnancy past 41 weeks
- Breech presentation at term
- High risk for VTE
- High risk for preeclampsia
- Suspected foetal growth restriction

A

Pregnancy past 41 weeks:
- Offer a membrane sweep
- Offer induction of labour (after 41 weeks), if declined then regular CTG and USS monitoring

Breech presentation at term:
- Offer external cephalic version (after 37 weeks if no contraindications)

High risk for VTE:
- Offer LMWH prophylaxis

High risk for preeclampsia:
- Offer Aspirin from 12 weeks onwards, until 36 weeks

Suspected foetal growth restriction:
- Serial growth scans

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30
Q

State the 2 times during a pregnancy when a woman is screened for anaemia and provide the normal ranges

A
  1. Booking bloods at < 10 weeks
    Range: > 110 g/l
  2. At 28 weeks
    Range: > 105 g/l
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31
Q

Outline how anaemia is managed during pregnancy

A

Iron replacement - ferrous sulphate 200mg tds
- If not tolerated or discovered late, may require a IV iron
- Further tests should be undertaken if there is no rise at 2 weeks
- Multiple pregnancy should have an additional FBC at 20–24 weeks

If folate deficiency, give 500mg folic acid (rather than 400mg)

Specialist haematological management if haemoglobinopathy e.g. sickle cell

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32
Q

Outline how acid reflux is managed during pregnancy

A

Investigations are usually not necessary

1st line: lifestyle advice e.g. eat smaller meals, avoid spicy food

2nd line: medication - antacids and alginates e.g. Gaviscon
- H2 receptor antagonists or PPIs only used if symptoms are severe

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33
Q

Pelvic girdle dysfunction - state the following:
- Pathophysiology
- Symptoms
- Investigations
- Management

A

Pathophysiology:
- Caused by the pelvic joints moving unevenly

Symptoms:
- Pelvic pain (pubic, lower back, hips, groin, thighs or knees)
- Clicking or grinding in pelvic area
- Pain made worse by movement

Investigations:
- Physiotherapy diagnosis

Management:
- Lifestyle modification to e.g. changing position frequently, equal weight on both legs and avoiding exacerbation e.g. heavy lifting
- Conservative e.g. exercises, hot baths
- Analgesia
- Crutches or wheelchair
- Can still have a natural birth

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34
Q

Outline the speed of progression of cervix dilation in the first stage of labour

A

Latent phase (0cm to 3cm): 0.5cm per hour (max 6 hours)

Active phase (3-10cm): 1cm per hour (max 7 hours)

35
Q

Outline the duration suggesting delay in first stage of labour

A

Either:
- Less than 2cm dilation in 4 hours
- Or a slowing of progress in multiparous women

36
Q

Outline the duration suggesting delay in second stage of labour

A
  • More than 2 hours for nulliparous women
  • More than 1 hour for multiparous women
37
Q

Outline the duration suggesting delay in third stage of labour

A

> 60 minutes with natural (physiological) management

> 30 minutes with active management

38
Q

List some risk factors for failure to progress

A
  • Previous failure to progress in previous pregnancy
  • Epidural
  • PROM
  • Induced labour with medications such as oxytocin
  • Macrosomia e.g. from diabetes or LGA
39
Q

Outline how foetal monitoring is done in a low-risk labour (mostly about foetal ausculation frequency)
- 1st stage
- 2nd stage

A

1st stage:
- Hourly maternal observations
- Intermittent auscultation for 1 minute immediately after a contraction, at least once every 15 minutes

2nd stage:
- Intermittent auscultation for 1 minute immediately after a contraction, at least once every 5 minutes

Move to CTG monitoring if any concerns
If CTG is normal after 20 minutes, can return to normal monitoring

40
Q

Outline some indications for continuous CTG monitoring during labour

A
  • Previous caesarean scar or uterine rupture
  • Pre-existing diabetes
  • Preeclampsia / hypertension
  • Sepsis / chorioamnionitis
  • Any vaginal blood loss
  • SGA / foetal growth restriction
  • Oligohydramnios / polyhydramnios
  • RFM 24 hours prior to labour
  • Epidural
  • Use of oxytocin
  • Maternal tachycardia
  • Delay in labour
  • Disproportionate maternal pain
  • Significant meconium
41
Q

Outline some indications for induction of labour

A
  • Over due date e.g. 41 and 42 weeks gestation
  • Premature rupture of membranes (after 24 hours if > 37 weeks, less than this = difficult decision)
  • Foetal growth restriction
  • Maternal issues e.g. preeclampsia / obstetric cholestasis / existing diabetes
  • Intrauterine foetal death
42
Q

Outline some absolute contraindications for induction of labour

A
  • Placental issues e.g. placenta praevia or vasa previa
  • Cord prolapse
  • Poor baby positioning e.g. transverse or cephalopelvic disproportion
  • Active genital herpes
43
Q

Outline the methods of induction that can be used

A

Membrane sweep (not considered full induction) but used > 40 weeks
- Induces natural release of prostaglandins

  1. Vaginal prostaglandins (tablet, gel or pessary)
    - Ripen cervix and smooth muscle uterine contractions
  2. AmniHook +/- Oxytocin infusion
    - Process releases prostaglandins
    - Only used when cervix is ‘ripe’
  • Oral Mifepristone if intrauterine death
44
Q

Outline the risk factors for perineal trauma

A
  • First time birth / nulliparity
  • Large babies (>4kg)
  • Instrumental delivery
  • Shoulder dystocia
  • Occipito-posterior position
  • Asian ethnicity
45
Q

Outline the degrees of perineal trauma

A

1st degree: limited to area where labia minora meet, superficial skin only

2nd degree: tear involving superficial skin AND perineal muscles (not anal sphincter)

3rd degree: anal sphincter (but not rectal mucosa)

4th degree: anal sphincter AND rectal mucosa

46
Q

Outline the how the different degrees of perineal trauma are managed including measured to prevent complications

A

1st degree: generally, no sutures required
2nd degree: sutures can be done in delivery room

3rd degree and 4th degree: sutures in theatre

Additional measures:
- Broad-spectrum antibiotics
- Laxatives
- Physiotherapy (incontinence)
- Follow up

47
Q

Outline the potential consequences of perineal trauma (short term and long term)

A

Short term:
- Pain
- Infection
- Bleeding / haematoma
- Wound dehiscence

Long term:
- Incontinence (urinary or faecal) or altered bowel habits
- Sexual dysfunction / dyspareunia
- Psychological impact/ mental health

48
Q

Outline the maternal and foetal benefits of breastfeeding

A

Maternal benefits:
- Reduced risk: T2DM, hypertension and heart disease
- Reduced rates breast cancer and ovarian cancer
- Triggers oxytocin release, helps contraction of uterus and reduce blood loss
- Burns calories

Foetal benefits:
- Contains full requirements for baby
- Easier to digest so less GI symptoms e.g. gas
- Reduce risk of short term and long term health problems e.g. gastroenteritis, asthma and obesity
- Reduced risk of SIDS (sudden infant death syndrome)

49
Q

Can NSAIDs be used in pregnancy, and if not, why not?

A

No - avoided (especially in 3rd trimester)

NSAIDs block prostaglandin production, which is responsible for maintaining the ductus arteriosus and induction of labour

Risk:
- premature closure of ductus arteriosus
- delay labour

50
Q

Can beta blockers be used in pregnancy, and if not, why not?

A

Only Labetalol - other beta blockers are avoided

Risk:
- foetal growth restriction / SGA
- hypoglyacemia in neonate
- bradycardia in neonate

51
Q

Can ACEi or ARBs be used in pregnancy, and if not, why not?

A

No - avoided

Block renin-angiotensin system and can cross the placenta
Mainly affect the kidneys and reduce the production of amniotic fluid

Risks:
- Oligohydramnios
- Hypocalvaria (incomplete formation skull bones)
- Renal failure in neonate
- Hypotension in neonate
- Miscarriage or foetal death

52
Q

Can opiates be used in pregnancy, and if not, why not?

A

Generally avoided
- Can lead to withdrawal symptoms in the neonate after birth = ‘neonatal abstinence syndrome’ (NAS)
- Presents 3-72 hours after birth, as irritability, tachypnoea, high temp and poor feeding

53
Q

Can Warfarin be used in pregnancy, and if not, why not?

A

No - teratogenic!!

Crosses the placenta, risk of:
- Congenital malformation
- Foetal loss
- Increased risk of bleeding (PPH, intracranial bleeding and foetal haemorrhage)

54
Q

Can Lithium be used in pregnancy, and if not, why not?

A

No - avoided

Linked with congenital cardiac abnormalities, especially Ebstein’s anomaly

Also avoided in breastfeeding, can enter breastmilk and is toxic to infant

55
Q

Can SSRIs be used in pregnancy, and if not, why not?

A

Situation dependant - generally avoided but used if the risk of depression is great

Risks:
1st trimester: congenital heart defects
3rd trimester: pulmonary hypertension in neonate

Neonates can also experience withdrawal symptoms

56
Q

Can Roaccutane (Isotretinoin) be used in pregnancy, and if not, why not?

A

No - highly teratogenic!!

Avoided completely in pregnancy and need to be on very reliable contraception

57
Q

Explain why rubella is dangerous in pregnancy and which syndrome can develop

A

Rubella can lead to congenital rubella syndrome, caused by maternal infection with rubella virus

Occurs during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy (risk highest before 10 weeks)

58
Q

Outline some features of congenital rubella syndrome

A
  • Deafness (sensorineural)
  • Congenital cataracts / retinopathy
  • Congenital heart disease (PDA and pulmonary stenosis)

+ microcephaly
+ low birthweight
+ organ dysfunction

59
Q

Outline how vaccination for rubella should be managed surrounding pregnancy

A

Mothers should be vaccinated with MMR vaccine prior to trying to conceive (can’t have the live MMR vaccine during pregnancy)

If unsure of status, should be tested for antibodies - if no antibodies, vaccinated with 2 doses 3 months apart

60
Q

Outline how cytomegalovirus impacts on pregnancy and which condition can develop

A

Most cases of cytomegalovirus (CMV) don’t cause issues

However, risk of congenital cytomegalovirus

Features:
- Hearing loss
- Vision loss
- Learning disability
- Foetal growth restriction
- Microcephaly
- Seizures

61
Q

Outline potential complications of parvovirus in pregnancy

A
  • Anaemia caused by infection of foetal bone marrow and liver, leading to faulty production of RBCs with shorter lifespan
  • This severe anaemia can lead to heart failure (Hydrops fetalis)
  • Rarely, a maternal preeclampsia like syndrome can occur from the foetal heart failure = triad of Hydrops fetalis, maternal oedema and placental oedema
62
Q

Outline how you manage a mother with parvovirus B19 infection

A
  • General supportive management
  • Referral to foetal medicine to monitor for complications and malformations of foetus
63
Q

Outline the impact of chickenpox immunity in pregnancy, including management if woman is exposed but not immune

A

9/10 women are immune to chickenpox. If unsure, can test for antibodies to chickenpox

If not immune: injection of varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG) during pregnancy as prophylaxis
- can be given within 10 days of contact with chickenpox (ineffective if rash already appeared)
- human blood product that strengthens the immune system for a short time
- can make the infection milder and shorter in duration

64
Q

Outline some potential complications of having chickenpox during pregnancy

A

More severe disease in the mother, leading to:
- Hepatitis
- Pneumonia
- Encephalitis

Foetal varicella syndrome
Neonatal infection with chickenpox

65
Q

Outline some potential foetal complications of chickenpox if mother infected at the following stages:
- Before 28 weeks
- Between 28 - 36 weeks
- After 36 weeks

A

Before 28 weeks:
- Baby unlikely to be affected
- However small risk of foetal varicella syndrome
- Requires referral to a fetal medicine specialist for ultrasound scans

Between 28 - 36 weeks:
- Virus stays in your baby’s body but does not cause symptoms
- May cause shingles in the first few years

After 36 weeks:
- Greatest risk of chickenpox
- If baby born within 7 days of chickenpox rash chickenpox within the first week after birth = give Aciclovir and Varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG)

66
Q

Outline some features of babies born with foetal varicella syndrome (maternal infection of chickenpox during first 28 weeks)

A
  • Microcephaly / hydrocephalus / learning disability
  • Foetal growth restriction
  • Scars and skin changes in specific dermatomes
  • Limb hypoplasia
  • Chorioretinitis
67
Q

Outline how chickenpox during pregnancy is managed

A

If immune: no management required

If not immune and contact has occured:
- Varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) within 10 days of contact (but ineffective if rash already appeared)

If symptomatic:
- Oral Acyclovir if > 20 weeks
- When baby is born, IV Acyclovir + close monitoring

Referral to foetal medicine to monitor for complications and malformations of foetus

68
Q

Outline how influenza can impact on pregnancy and generally how it is managed

A

Pregnant women are more likely to develop more severe symptoms

Management: supportive therapy and admission if unwell:
- IV fluids
- Paracetamol
- Analgesia
- Thromboprophylaxis
Oseltamivir asap (within 48 hours) for 5 days

69
Q

Outline how syphilis can affect pregnancy and generally how it is managed if positive

A

Syphilis can readily cross the placenta to the baby

Increased risk of:
- Premature birth
- Foetal growth restriction
- Stillbirth
- Miscarriage

Risk of congenital syphilis (give Benzylpenicillin after birth)

If positive, management:
- Single dose of Benzylpenicillin
- Referral to foetal medicine for regular checks from 26 weeks onwards

70
Q

Outline how congenital syphilis can present after birth

A

2/3rds = asymptomatic at birth
However will develop signs within 5 weeks

  • Jaundice
  • Rash
  • Anaemia
  • Generalised lymphadenopathy
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Skeletal abnormalities

Can also have latent presentation, up to 2 years after birth

71
Q

Outline how infection with the Zika virus can affect foetus

A

Zika virus can be spread through mosquitoes or through sex

Risk of congenital zika syndrome if virus contracted during pregnancy:
- Microcephaly
- Foetal growth restriction
- Intracranial abnormalities e.g. cerebellar atrophy

72
Q

Outline how infection with Zika virus is managed during pregnancy

A

Unfortunately no cure/treatment for the virus - only supportive treatment

If uncertain about infection, test for virus with viral PCR / antibody test
- May then require ultrasound scans for monitoring

73
Q

Outline generally how HIV is managed during pregnancy, including how mode of delivery is decided and breastfeeding

A
  • All women should be on antiretroviral therapy indefinitely, starting from 2nd trimester onwards (decrease risk of teratogenicity)
  • Should be screened for other STIs

Mode of delivery / management:
All based on viral load at 36 weeks!
All women recommended to have birth at medical facility

Viral load < 50
- Vaginal birth acceptable

Viral load > 50
- Pre-labour c-section recommended (38-39 weeks)
- If spontaneous rupture of membranes, immediate c-section recommended (rather than waiting usual 24 hours)
- If high, give IV Zidovudine infusion during labour

Breastfeeding:
- Not currently recommended in UK due to low risk of transmission, formula recommended
- If woman decides to breastfeed, mother and baby should be reviewed monthly for HIV RNA viral load testing during and for 2 months after stopping breastfeeding

74
Q

Outline neonatal therapy for a HIV positive mother

A

Very low risk - 2 weeks Zidovudine

Low risk - 4 weeks Zidovudine

High risk - combination post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) within 4 hours

75
Q

Outline COVID-19 can affect pregnancy and generally how it is managed

A

Increased risk of severe illness if pregnant and COVID-19, especially after 28 weeks (3rd trimester)
Risk:
- Maternal ICU admission
- Stillbirth
- Premature birth
Evidence that COVID-19 itself doesn’t have an impact on the development in-utero

Management of pregnant women with COVID-19 should be the same as for non-pregnant women

  • If COVID positive during labour, advised for obstetric led unit
  • Advised to have COVID vaccine prior to or during any stage of pregnancy
76
Q

State the meaning of rhesus negative and the consequences for the 1st pregnancy and subsequent pregnancies

A

Rhesus status is based on whether or not rhesus-D antigens are present on maternal RBCs
Rhesus positive = rhesus-D antigens present
Rhesus negative = rhesus-D antigens are absent

Only issue is rhesus negative - rhesus positive isn’t an issue

1st pregnancy - potential for sensitisation (if foetus is rhesus positive and mother is negative)

Subsequent pregnancies - if sensitisation has occurred (now rhesus positive) and the foetus is rhesus positive = antibodies cross placenta and attack rhesus-D RBCs

End result: haemolytic disease of newborn

77
Q

Outline the management for rhesus antigen negative mothers

A

Prevention of sensitisation is the mainstay of management
- Intramuscular anti-D injections to rhesus-D negative women
- Given within 72 hours of any event where the mum might become sensitised

Anti-D immunoglobulins attacks the rhesus-D antigens on the surface of foetal RBCs that have made their way into the maternal bloodstream
- Prevents mother from becoming sensitised to foetal rhesus-D positive RBCs

78
Q

Suggest some sensitising events where maternal and foetal blood can mix (with reference to rhesus status)

A
  • Miscarriage > 12 weeks
  • Abdominal trauma
  • Antepartum haemorrhage
  • Birth
  • External cephalic version (ECV)
  • Amniocentesis
79
Q

State 2 times during pregnancy/birth where anti-D is given to rhesus-D negative mothers

A
  1. 28 weeks
  2. At birth
80
Q

State the test that can be used to determine whether additional anti-D doses are required

A

Kleinhauer test

  • Detects how much foetal blood has passed into the mother’s blood during a sensitisation event
  • Only used after 20 weeks
  • Helps suggest whether further doses of anti-D injections are required
81
Q

List 3 main symptoms of a miscarriage

A
  • Vaginal bleeding
  • Abdominal pain (can reported to be worse than the pain of a usual period)
  • Tissue loss (loss of foetus)
82
Q

List some foetal and maternal causes of miscarriage

A

Idiopathic!

The cause is often idiopathic. Known causes can be split into:

Foetal causes:
- Genetic disorder
- Abnormal foetal development

Maternal pathology:
- Cervical incompetence
- Uterine abnormality
- Antiphospholipid syndrome
- Poorly controlled diabetes or thyroid disease
- PCOS

83
Q

Outline how the symptoms of a miscarriage and ectopic pregnancy can differ

A

Both can present with pain and vaginal bleeding

However in ectopic pregnancy, pain is often the dominant symptom and occurs first
If vaginal bleeding does occur it is minor in ectopic pregnancy, in comparison to a miscarriage

84
Q

List the layers cut through during a c-section operation

A

Skin
Subcutaneous fat
Rectus sheath
Rectus abdominus muscle
Peritoneum
Uterine myometrium
Amniotic sac