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GU > GU Anatomy TA Questions > Flashcards

GU Anatomy TA Questions Flashcards

1
Q

which kidney is lower, left or right?

A

right, the liver is superior

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2
Q

what are the 3 layers of supportive tissue of the kidney

A

renal fascia (false capsule), perirenal fat capsule, fibrous capsule (true capsule)

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3
Q
A

the tip of the pyramid, release urine into minor calyx

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4
Q

track blood flow from the aorta to the glomerulus

A
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5
Q

track blood flow from the glomerulus to the IVC

A
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6
Q
A

brodel’s line

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7
Q

what is the structural and functional unit of the kidney that forms urine

A

nephron

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8
Q

what is the function of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)?

A
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9
Q

what is the predominant function of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT)?

A
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10
Q

where are the three constrictions of the ureters?

A
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11
Q

infections tend to persist in which region of the bladder

A
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12
Q
A
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13
Q

what are the 3 regions of the male urethra

A

prostatic, membranous, spongy

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14
Q

what is angiotensin II’s effect on sodium

A
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15
Q

what are the 2 functions of the countercurrent mechanism

A
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16
Q

which limb of the loop of henle, descending or ascending, is freely permeable to water

A
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17
Q

does the absence of ADH produce dilute or concentrated urine

A

dilute

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18
Q
A

ultra filtrate from the glomerulus

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19
Q

where does most of the day-to-day regulation of potassium excretion occur

A
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20
Q

what is one of the primary controllers of renal tubular calcium reabsorption

A

PTH

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21
Q

by eliminating H+ from the body, the kidneys generate what?

A

HCO3

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22
Q

where is virtually all filtered bicarb reabsorbed

A

proximal tubule

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23
Q

decreased arterial pressure detected by the kidneys results in the secretion of what?

A

renin

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24
Q
A

renin

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25
Q

when the body is in a hypovolemic state, what is released to help prevent renal ischemia?

A

bradykinin - serves as a vasodilator & produced in distal nephron

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26
Q

what hormone made by the kidneys acts on bone marrow to increase RBC production

A

erythropoietin

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27
Q

what is the normal pH of urine

A

about 6, range of 4.5 to 8.0

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28
Q

what is the normal specific gravity of urine

A

1.001-1.035

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29
Q

which muscle of the scrotum is skeletal muscle responsible for elevating the testes

A

cremaster muscle

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30
Q

the cremaster muscle is derived from what abdominal muscle

A

internal oblique

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31
Q

what is the course of sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the epidydymis?

A
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32
Q

What is varicocele

A

abnormal enlargement of the pampiniform venous plexus

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33
Q

what is cut during a vasectomy

A

Vas/Ductus Deferens

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34
Q

which zone of the prostate is affected by BPH

A

transitional

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35
Q

what gland is responsible for neutralizing traces of acidic urine in the urethra

A

bulbourethral glands (Cowper’s glands)

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36
Q

what are the three masses of erectile tissue present in the shaft of the penis

A

corpus spongiosum and paired corpora cavernosa

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37
Q

what two sets of unpaired veins drain the penis

A

superficial dorsal vein and deep dorsal vein

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38
Q

what is the most common cause of acute epididymitis <35 yrs old

A
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39
Q

what is a vaccine-preventable cause of orchitis

A

mumps

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40
Q

relief of pain with elevation of the scrotum is known as what and is positive in what disease?

A
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41
Q

what is seen on ultrasound in a patient with epididymitis

A

increased testicular blood flow

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42
Q
A

Dx: testicular torsion

US: avascular testicle with decreased bloodflow

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43
Q

what is the most common surgically correctable cause of male infertility

A

varicocele (bag of worms on PE)

44
Q

the spermatic vein enters the renal vein at a right angle on which side of the body

A

left - this leads to the left being more susceptible to varicocele

45
Q

what is a major risk factor for testicular cancer

A

cryptorchidism

46
Q

in paraphimosis, what happens to the foreskin?

A
47
Q

this class of meds improves the clinical course of pts with BPH

A
48
Q

what is the most common cause of priapism

A

idiopathic

49
Q

what is peyronie’s disease

A

fibrotic band on lateral portion of the penis with history of penile curvature during erections

50
Q

which ligament of the ovary suspends the ovary?

A

mesovarium

51
Q

the ovarian artery is a branch of what artery?

A

uterine

52
Q

what is the usual site of fertilization

A

ampulla of the fallopian tube

53
Q

what is the function of the broad ligament

A

support uterine tubes, uterus, and vagina

also contains suspensory ligament and mesovarium

54
Q

what is the term for an immature egg

A

oocyte

55
Q

what develops from the ruptured follicle after ovulation

A

corpus luteum

56
Q

what are the four parts of the uterus

A

fundus, body, isthmus, cervix

57
Q

what are the four parts of the fallopian tubes

A

infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus, interstitium

58
Q

what is the name of the epithelial mucosa of the uterine wall

A

endometrium

59
Q

what layer of the uterine wall is shed during menstruation

A

endometrium

60
Q

the angle of anteversion, measured at 90 degrees, is the forward angle between what two structures?

A

cervix and vagina

61
Q

where is the urethra embedded within the vagina

A

anterior wall

62
Q

which neurotransmitter is responsible for expelling urine

A
63
Q

where in the kidneys do loop diuretics work

A
64
Q

where in the kidneys do thiazide diuretics work

A
65
Q

why is hyperaldosteronism associated with hypokalemia and metabolic acidosis

A
66
Q

where in the kidneys do potassium sparing diuretics work

A
67
Q

what three lab findings characterize nephrotic syndrome

A
68
Q

acute glomerulonephritis is an immunologic inflammation of glomeruli causing leakage of what two substances into the urine

A
69
Q

what is the most common cause of acute glomerulonephritis worldwide?

A
70
Q

in goodpasture’s syndrome, a form of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, antibodies are formed against what?

A
71
Q

what is the gold standard for diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis

A
72
Q

what are the RIFLE criteria used to describe acute kidney injury

A
73
Q

what are the three causes of acute kidney injury

A
74
Q

What is the hallmark of intrinsic acute tubular necrosis

A

cellular cast formation due to nephron damage

75
Q

what is the most common type of acute intrinsic tibular necrosis

A

acute tubular necrosis

76
Q

what class of abx can cause exogenous acute tubular necrosis

A

aminoglycosides

77
Q

WBC cast on UA are pathognomonic for what two diseases

A

acute interstitial nephritis or pyelonephritis

78
Q

while a high specific gravity reflects a concentrated urine, a low specific gravity reflects diluted urine due to what?

A

renal tubular damage

79
Q

is polycystic kidney disease autosomal dominant, recessive, or not a genetically inherited disorder?

A

autosomal dominant

80
Q
A

neurological - cerebral “berry” aneurysms

cardiovascular - mitral valve prolapse

81
Q
A

primary hyperparathyroidism

82
Q

renal failure decreases calcium levels while what increases it?

A

phosphate

83
Q

stage 5 chronic kidney disease is defined as GFR less than what?

A

15 - end stage renal disease

normal GFR is 120-130

84
Q

what is the most common cause of end stage renal disease

A
85
Q

what is the single best predictor of disease progression in patients with ESRD

A

proteinuria - spot urine ablumin/urine creatinine ration (ACR)

86
Q

what dietary restrictions are helpful in management of CKD

A

protein, water, sodium, potassium, and phosphate restriction

87
Q

what is a common hematologic complication of CKD

A
88
Q
A

ADH - Li is a potential cause of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

89
Q
A

Desmopressin/DDVAP

90
Q

the kidney adjusts water balance via what hormone

A

ADH - primary regulator of water excretion

91
Q

the kidney adjusts water balance via what hormone

A

Aldosterone

92
Q
A
93
Q

in a pt with hypernatremia, what type of fluid is used to manage their symptoms

A

hypotonic fluids (replaces water deficit)

94
Q

what 2 electrolytes are commonly decreased in a patient with hypomagnesemia

A

potassium and calcium

95
Q

hypomagnesemia can sometimes lead to what EKG finding which is treated with IV magnesium sulfate

A

torsades de pointes

96
Q

what are the classic EKG findings in a patient with hyperkalemia

A
97
Q

what is the most common pathogen that causes UTIs

A

E. coli

98
Q

is the presence of nitrites in urine specific or sensitive for an infection

A

specific

99
Q
A

Phenazopyridine (AZO, pyridium)

100
Q

painless hematuria, gross or microscopic, is considered what until proven otherwise?

A

bladder cancer

101
Q

what electrolyte abnormality may be seen in pts with renal cell carcinoma

A

hypercalcemia

102
Q

what is the most common cause of secondary hypertension

A

renal artery stenosis

103
Q

ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pts with which disease of the kidneys

A

bilateral renal artery stenosis

104
Q

what is the most common type of nephrolithiasis

A

calcium oxalate

105
Q

urge incontinence is due to over-activity of what muscle

A

detrusor muscle

GU (13 decks)

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