GU/Gynae/Adrenal Flashcards

1
Q

Features of RCC?

A

Heterogenous mass +/- cystic or necrotic components
Sometimes Ca2+ or Fat mass
Enhancing (>15HU)
Vascular invasion

RF - VHL, smoker, dialysis > 3yrs

Type
1. Clear cell (most common)
-Aggressive, VHL. Enhances equal to the cortex in corticomedullary phase
- T2 hyperintense

  1. Papillary
    - Less vascular and not equal to cortex enhancement in CM phase.
    - Strongly associated with dialysis patients
    T2 DARK
  2. Medullary
    - Sickle cell trait. Young, very aggressive
  3. Chromophobe - associated with Birt- hogg disease
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2
Q

Features of renal oncocytoma?

A

Benign solid

Can’t reliable differentiate from RCC

2nd most common benign lesion after AML (AML never Have Ca2+ )

Echogenic stellate central scar
Hypodense and non-enhancing on CT

PET - Hotter than surrounding parenchyma, RCC colder

Bilateral = Birt hogg Dube
Also **chromophobe RCC

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3
Q

Renal lymphoma?

A

Can mimic anything as multiple different appearances

Commonly
- Bilateral
- Enlarged kidney
- Low density cortical based solid masses/nodules

NB - restricts diffusion on MRI

NHL is commonest cause

Bialteral enlarged kidney DDX
- Amyloid - increased echogenicity
- nephrotic syndrome. either primary or secondary and Hodgkin lymphoma
- HIV - increased echogenicity The sinus fat, however, becomes oedematous and therefore hypoechoic.

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4
Q

Features of Multilocular cystic nephroma

A

More common in paeds setting

Large, multilocular, cystic renal mass, typically 10cm
Thick fibrous capsule
NO solid components
protrudes into the renal pelvis

Michael jackson lesion - likes 4-year-old boys and 40-year-old women.

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5
Q

T2 dark renal lesions/massess?

A

Papillary RCC
Haemorrhagic cyst
Lipid poor AML

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6
Q

Bosniak classification for cystic lesions?

A

1 = Simple cyst. No septations or calcifications. Walls smooth and thin. < HU 20 on PV phase

2 = Hyperdense <3cm. smooth, thin walls and septations. Thin calcifications

2F = Hyperdense > 3cm.EHANCING thin walls or septations. +/- Nodular Ca. <5% chance Cancer
6 monthly review and then yearly for 5 years*

3 =**Thick **(> 4 mm) wall or septation. Mural nodule enhancement. Caorse calcification. 50% chance Cancer

4 = Large cystic/necrotic area. solid enhancing structures > 15HU. 100% Cancer

Hyperdense cyst
- HU > 70 and homogenous its benign 99.9%

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7
Q

Which has liver fibrosis - ARPKD or ADPKD

A

ARPKD

Presents in infants

Perinatal : More severe renal disease with pulmonary hypoplasia

Juvenile: Less renal disease, more hepatic issues. Portal hypertension & fibrosis develop in 50%.

Severity of the Liver fibrosis is inverse to renal disease

US - Smoothly enlarged kidneys and diffusely echogneic with loss of CM differentiation

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8
Q

Multiple innumerable tiny cysts. kidneys are normal to small in volume?

A

Lithium nephropathy

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9
Q

Enhancement curves?

A
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10
Q

Renal trauma AAST scale?

A

1 - subscapular haematoma no laceration

2 - **<1cm renal laceration **not involving the collecting system.
Retroperitoneal haematoma

3- > 1cm renal laceration, not involving the collecting system

4 - Laceration with pelvic involvement, segmental infacrt

5- Avascular kidney

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11
Q

Common features of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Usually, isthmus portion of the fallopian tube

US signs -

Tubal ring sign - echogenic ring around the ectopic (95%)

Complex adnexal cystic mass (95%)

Free fluid + empty uterus (+B-hcg) (70%)

Pseudogestational sac (20%)

Simple adnexal cyst (10%)

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12
Q

which layer of fascia/fat prevent the extension of perinephric abscess pus?

A

Perirenal/Renal fascia

This encloses the kidney and sends bundles of collagen through the fat, which assist in holding the kidney in position. It ascends to envelop the adrenal glands superiorly

Gerota fascia (anterior perirenal fascia)
Zuckerkandl fascia (posterior perirenal fascia)

Perirenal fat + perirenal fascia = Perirenal space

Anterior to the perirenal space = anterior pararenal space
- contains the pancreas, ascending and descending colon, duodenum
Posterior to perirenal space= posterior pararenal space

Thickening of the perninephric septa = ‘Hairy Kidney’ = Erdheim-chest disease

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13
Q

Risks of V/Q and CTPA to mother and foetus ?

A

V/Q
-Small increase in the absolute risk of the foetus developing a childhood cancer
-The absolute risk of maternal breast cancer is reduced compared to a CTPA.
- Many institutes choose to perform perfusion scanning only, which lowers the dose to foetus

CTPA
- Confers a lower dose to the foetus than V/Q. Although the effect is diminished in the third trimester as the gravid uterus becomes closer to the FOV
-CTPA confers a far greater dose to the breast tissue (more radiosensitive)
- iodinated contrast crosses the placenta and is excreted by the foetal kidneys. Babies need TFTs first week of life!!

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14
Q

Which sequence is best to assess mucle involvement in bladder Cancer?

A

T2
Detrusor muscle returns low signal but the continuity of this layer will be disrupted if there is invasion.

T1
useful for evaluating lymph node involvement and any bony metastases

STIR
extent of extravesical extension into the perivesical fat

Post-contrast images are of limited use in bladder cancer imaging but can be used to differentiation of tumour (enhances earlier) from inflammatory post-biopsy changes

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15
Q

Features of adrenal myelolipoma?

A

Bening tumour contain bulk fat
CA2+ (1/4)
Big, if >4cm
Can bleed, cause retroperitoneal haemorrhage

Associated but do not cause endocrine disorders - Cushings, conns)

Nb -
Signal suppression with fat saturation (STIR) and persistent signal on out-of-phase imaging indicate MACROSCOPIC fat, rather than the intracellular lipid characteristic of adrenal adenomas.

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16
Q

Features of prostate Cancer?

A

T2 low (background is high) - highest grade of suspicion for transitional zone lesions

**Restricts on diffusion (focal high b-value and corresponding low ADC signal) - best for peripheral zone **

Enhances - early and washes out. Type 3 curve

Stage B - confined by capsule, abutment of capsule but not bulging

Stage C - Extension through the capsule, bulging or frank extension through it

PSA density > 0.1

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17
Q

TZ cancer vs BPH?

A

Transition zone cancers on T2WI:
-lenticular nodules NO capsule.
-infiltrative borders
-homogeneous decreased signal
-generally anterior location

BPH
-Nodules: Round/oval; usually with capsule
-Most nodules will be internally heterogeneous, containing both increased and decreased signal on T2
- Nb can restrict diffusion and enhance with washout

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18
Q

Differentiate prostatic Utricle cyst vs Mullerian duct cyst?

A

Both midline cysts. Hard to differentiate

müllerian duct cyst
-large size and extension above the prostate
- ‘teardrop’ shape

Prostatic utricle cyst
-Typically small and at the base of the prostate
- ‘Pear shaped’
- communicates with the prostatic urethra
- Associated with hypospadias

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19
Q

Features of seminal vesical cyst?

A

Unilateral, lateral (paramedian)
Congenital or acquired

If congenital associated with
- Renal agenesis
- Vas defs agenesis
- Ectopic ureteric insertion
- Polycystic kidney disease

Acquired
- Hx prior prostatic surgery

Nb Zinner syndrome
Infertility + ipsilateral SV cyst and renal agenesis

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20
Q

Avascular, Well defined, round encepasulated with concentric hypoechoic and hyperechoic rings in the testicle?

A

Epidermoid cyst

‘Onion skin’ sign

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21
Q

Variably sized network of dilated tubules near mediastinum testis with no flow on color Doppler?

A

Tubular Ectasia of Rete Testis

DDx
-Mixed germ cell tumors/teratomas will often have cystic areas
- Does not form network of tubules
-Surrounding parenchyma is abnormal
- Will have abnormal flow on colour Doppler

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22
Q

Difference between spermatocele and epidydmal cyst?

A

Spermatocele
-multiseptated; may contain diffuse internal low-level echoes due to spermatozoa
- can be big

Epidydimal cyst
- simple and smaller

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23
Q

What lymphatics do testicular cancer spread to intially?

A

Para-aortic/retroperitoneal nodes at renal hilum.

Nb if nodes in pelvis/external iliacs are inguinal this is considered ‘non regional’ = M1 disease

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24
Q

What are the main types of testcular cancers?

A

Germ cell tumours
- Seminoma
- Non-seminomatous germ cell

Seminomas:
-Typically no cystic areas or calcification (rarely microcalcifcation)
-Best prognosis. Radiosensitive - melts with radiation.
- Age at diagnosis 40s
- US homogenously hypoechoic rounded mass
- MRI Homogenously T2 dark

Nonseminomatous:
- Heterogenous - Variable cystic elements, macrocalcifications, necrosis/hemorrhage

-Nb most are MIXED GERM cell. not pure cell type

  • Teratoma or Yolk sac - 10
  • Choriocarcinoma - 20s and 30s (most aggressive) as its mets haematogenously.
  • Embryonal cell - 30s
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25
Q

Multiple hypoechoic masses in both testes with increased Vascualrity?

A

Testicular lymphoma

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26
Q

Older man with Focal macrocalcification &/or hypoechoic, scar-like area of the testicle on US. Nodal disease in retroperitoneum

A

Burnt out Germ cell testicular tumour

Azzopardi tumour - burnt out germ cell that is very small hypoechoic

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27
Q

What testicular tumour is most commonly associated with gynecomastia?

A

Leydig Sertoli leydig

There tumours are seen with peutz jeghers

Apart of carneys COMPLEX

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28
Q

which testicular tumours are associated with elevated HCG and AFP?

A

HCG
- Seminoma
- Choriocarcinoma

AFP
- Mixed germ cell
- Yolk sac

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29
Q

Testicular tumours by age?

A

10s = Yolk sac tumour or teratoma

20s + 30s = Choriocarcinoma

30s = Embryonal cell carcinoma

40s = Seminoma

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30
Q

Short segment stricture at the bulbous urethra?

A

Traumatic/straddle injury

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31
Q

Long and irregular stricture and the bulbous urethra?

A

Gonococcal

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32
Q

Difference between emphysematous pyelonephritis and emphysematous pyelitis?

A

emphysematous pyelonephritis
- Life threatening
- Gas within or surrounding the kidney
- Diabetics

emphysematous pyelitis
- less threatening, gas within the collecting system

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33
Q

Features of XGP?

A

Staghorn calculus
Enlarged, often nonfunctioning kidney (chronic presentation)
Multiple low-attenuation masses throughout kidney

‘Bears paw’

DDx
Pyonephrosis - Purulent material within collecting system; usually no staghorn calculus

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34
Q

Rounded or triangular calyceal filling defect and blunted/rounded calyces?

A

Papillary necrosis

-medullary (round or oval cavity, calyceal blunting)
-papillary (triangular cavity, ‘lobster claw’ appearance)
-sloughed papilla ‘signet ring’ appearance

-Contrast fills curvilinear cavities at papilla periphery = Claw sign

-Contrast fills central cavities surrounded by intact papilla = Ball-on-tee sign

Commonest cause is diabetes and 50% sickle cell patients develop

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35
Q

Causes of medullary versus cortical nephrocalcinosis?

A

See image

Remember that unilateral medullary nephrocalcinosis is likely secondary to medullary sponge kidney

bilateral in adults - hyperparathyroidism

bilateral in children - RTA

36
Q

What conditions are associated with medullary sponge kidney? What is the underlying mechanism of sponge?

A

Ethler-Danlos
Carolis
Beckwith-weidman

medullary and papillary portions of the collecting ducts are dysplastic with cystic dilatation of the collecting tubules of the kidney

Delayed post contrast CT may demonstrate a paintbrush appearance to the renal medullary regions

Intravenous pyelogram
-ectatic distal collecting ducts - bouquet of flowers apperance
-Striated nephrogram

37
Q

What are the doppler features of renal vein thrombosis ?

A

Reversed Diastolic flow

Renal vein thrombosis is more common than renal artery stenosis in weeks 1-4 post renal transplant

38
Q

Renal transplant collections - Urinoma, haematoma, Lymphocele

A

Urinoma
- first 2 weeks post op.
- Anechoic, minimal thin/no septations, rapidly increasing in size
- Fluid collection containing extravasated/layering contrast material in the collection delayed/post excretory-phase CT/MR or contrast extravasation during cystogram.
- MAG 3

Haematoma
- Immediately post-op
- if large can cause a compressive hydro
US: Echogenicity varies with age and size of clot
NECT: Typically > 30 HU
MR: Variable signal depending on age of blood products but often heterogeneous

Lymphocele
- 1-2 months after transplant
-most common peritransplant fluid collection
-US - anechoic and may have septations
-Well-defined, cystic, extraperitoneal lesion along lymphatic pathways

39
Q

Differentiate between Acute rejection and ATN in transplant kidney?

A

Both occur in first week or so with prominent pyramids on US, enlarging transplant and elevated RIs

MAG - 3
- ATN has normal perfusion
- Rejection doesn’t

Chronic rejection
- one year post transplant
- enlarged kidney with loss of CM differentiation
- elevated RI

40
Q

Signs of renal artery stenosis in a transplant kidney?

A

Occurs most commonly 2-12 months postoperatively

PSV > 200/300cm/s in stenotic area
PSV ratio > 3 (iliac/RA)
Tardus Parvus @ the hilum of the main renal artery
Aliasing artefact at the anastomosis

RI = PSV - EDV/PSV

41
Q

Features of wolmans disease

A

Presents in Neonates
AR condition
Lipoidosis
**Large calcified adrenal glands **

42
Q

What is positive on MIBG and good indication?

A

Phaeochromcytoma/Paragangliomas (ie. extraadrenal phaeochromcytoma)
Neuroblastoma

Carcinoid
**Medullary **thyroid cancer

Good to do to find an extra adrenal phaeochromycytoma.
if MIBG negative, Ocetrotide scan is useful

43
Q

What features would follow up vs discharge a simple ovarian cyst?

A

Premenopaual =
< 5cm and simple apperance - NO follow up

5 - 7 cm -
Repat US at different time of menstrual cycle ie 6 weeks,
resolved or decreased in size? if not
US every 6 to 12 months to ensure stability

> 5cm + haemorrhageic features = MRI

> 7cm = MRI

Postmenopausal
<3cm discharge

3-5cm US at 6 months

If haemorrhagic features = MRI

44
Q

What primary tumour can mets to testicle>

A

> 50 years is more Likely to be a met than a primary

Prostate
Lung
Kidney

45
Q

Renal contrast phases?

A

Non-contrast - assess presence of CA2+

Corticomedullary phase - 25-40 secs
- Characterise renal tumour
- Papillary = less than cortex
- Clear cell = similar to cortex
- Evaluate renal arteries/ veins, tumour extension

Nephogram - 70-180 secs
- Renal parenchyma uniformly enhances.
-*** most sensitive to detect RCC

Excretory -
- Evaluate TCC
-‘striated’ nephogram - pyelonephritis

46
Q

Classic arrangement of the duplex system?

A

complete duplication
ureter draining upper pole (UP) of kidney inserts in bladder inferior & medial to ureter draining lower pole (LP) of kidney
(Weigert-Meyer rule)

LP ureter inserts orthotopically in trigone - tends to have VUR
UP ureteral orifice is ectopic in location & often associated with ureterocele - tends to obstruct

47
Q

Imaging features of phaeochromocytomas?

A

Very high on T2/ light bulb (compared to liver)

low on T1- haemorrhage so can have high signal areas on T1

No drop out on out out of phase

Arterial enhancement

**I-123 MIBG - uptake, can also evaluate for metastatic disease **

Most solid, or mixed solid and cystic

Remember it is a biochemical Dx.

10%
Bilateral
Ca2+
Extra-adrenal
Malignant

48
Q

What conditions are strongly linked with paraganglioma?

A

Men 2A and 2B
NF-1
VHL
Carney triad

49
Q

Bilateral testicular enlagement/masses and bilateral adrenal diffuse enlargement?

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Precocious puberty

50
Q

What condiions are assocaited with adrenal cortical carcinoma?

A

Astrocytoma
Beckwith- Wiedamann
hemihypertrophy

51
Q

Which type of fibroid is CI for UAE?

A

subserosal pedunculated fibroid

maximum size threshold for embolisation is 13–15 cm.
Above this, the post-embolisation volume may still result in bulk symptoms, and the
necrosis from a large fibroid may result in a protracted post-embolisation syndrome

T1 hyperintensity pre-MRI suggests fatty or haemorrhagic/red degeneration and is a negative predictor of success with a lower reduction in vascularity compared to fibroids with a low T1 signal.

fibroids may undergo progressive liquefaction with increasing T2
signal.

52
Q

causes of oligohydramnios and polyhydramnios.

A

oligo
- IUGR

Polyhydramnios
- maternal DM
- TOF
- duodenal atresia
- cystic adenomatoid lungs

53
Q

Features if mature teratoma (dermoid) over other types of germ cell ovarian tumour?

A

*Combination of fat, fluid and calcification** being highly specific.

Mature teratomas are the most common ovarian neoplasm(adults and kids) but are slow growing and usually benign.

It will show the usual signal drop-out on out of phase.

Calcification is low in signal on T2. May see on Xray!!

Ovarian germ cell tumours include (AFP raised)
-Teratomas, yolk sac tumours, choriocarcinomas and mixed germ cell tumours.
-Embryonal carcinoma (beta HCG and AFP raised) and dysgerminomas too (beta HCG rasied).

Quarter of all ovarian tumours and tend to affect young adults or children.

Nb rarely teratomas can have malignant transformation = SCC

54
Q

Solid with avid enhancement Extensive, infiltrative pelvic mass with inflammatory extensions across tissue planes. Patient has an IUD?

A

Actinomycosis

55
Q

Features of Intraperitoneal, extraperitoneal bladder ruputre?

A

Intraperitoneal rupture : 10-20%
-Opacified urine fills peritoneal spaces (pouch of Douglas, Morrison pouch)
-outlines bowel loops and intraperitoneal viscera
-Usually bladder dome rupture
-Needs Sx!!!

Extraperitoneal rupture : 80-90%
-Adjacent pelvic fractures sometimes with bone spicules pointing toward bladder
-bladder base
-Molar tooth sign
-Complex: Extravasation extends beyond extraperitoneal pelvic spaces [e.g., thigh, scrotum, penis, perineum, anterior abdominal wall, retroperitoneum

56
Q

Types of Uteroceles ?

A

Ureterocele: Cystic dilatation of terminal ureter

Intravesical: Ureterocele is entirely in bladder

Ectopic: Insertion at bladder neck or in posterior urethra
~ 80% of ureteroceles (in pediatric population) are seen in association with duplicated collecting system
~ 60% of these pediatric ureteroceles have ectopic insertion

Adult ureteroceles are mostly intravesical and orthotopic with single ureter

Cobra head or spring onion appearance of distal ureter with surrounding radiolucent halo
Smooth, round, intravesical filling defect

57
Q

What feature on MRI best denotes local disease recurrence after a prostatectomy?

A

High signal in the prostate bed on axial T2

58
Q

Causes of pseudotumor in the kidney?

A

Persistent foetal lobultaiton
-Multiple indentations in renal outline, between renal pyramids or calyces; preserved cortical thickness
-Distinguished from scars of pyelonephritis, which are directly over calyces with thinned cortex

dromedary hump
-Only occurs in left kidney: “Splenic hump”
-Focal bulge in lateral border of midpole of left kidney with similar echogenicity as rest of kidney

Column of Bertin
Hypertrophic medial bands of cortical tissue that separate pyramids of renal medulla
Isoechoic, continuous with renal cortex, normal renal outline

59
Q

How to differentiate between adrenal adenoma and adrenal metastasis ?

A

Prolonged washout pattern on CECT
Absolute washout value of < 60% or relative washout value of < 40% after 15 minutes suggests metastasis or other “nonadenoma”

Adenoma
Absolute washout value of >60% or relative washout value of > 40%
Out-of-phase T1WI GRE Lipid-rich adenoma: Marked signal dropout

….

60
Q

Features of adrenal cyst?

A

Majority are endothelial cysts (lymphangiomas)

Epithelial cysts exceedingly rare

Simple or minimally complex with thin septations or thin septations/rim calcification, no enhancement

61
Q

Features of ovarian granulosa tumours and thecoma?

A

Both oestrogen secreting and associated endometrial thickening - PMB/irregular bleeding

Granulosa tumours -
- Prepubescent girls
- Precocious puberty
-Large (mean: 10-12 cm), multilocular, solid and cystic mass with areas of hemorrhage.
-**‘sponge-like, ‘Swiss cheese’ **appearance.
-Thick septations
- differentiated from epithelial ovarian tumours (e.g. Mucinous cystadenomas) by their lack of a feature described as ‘intracystic papillary projections’
-associations with Ollier disease (multiple enchondromas) and
Maffucci syndrome (multiple enchondromas and haemangiomas/venous malformations).

Thecoma
- thickening - PMB/irregular bleeding
- ultrasound = **hypoechoic but solid ovarian masses (acoustic shadowing) **
- MRI = Low signal with both T1 and T2

Fibromas
- Nb ovarian fibromas are radiologically the same as Thecoma, don’t secrete oestrogen can be bilateral and strong association with Gorlin-Goltz syndrome
- Fibromas are commonest benign ovarian tumour to cause MEIGS - ascites, pleural effusion and ovarian lesion

62
Q

Features of brenner tumour (ovarian TCC)

A

Benign Brenner tumor
-Combination of calcifications demonstrated by US or CT and low signal intensity on T2WI MR
Calcifications are present in ~ 50% of cases

Malignant Brenner tumor
-Indistinguishable from other malignant epithelial tumors

63
Q

Ovarian tumour, young women with virilization and hirsutism?

A

Sertoli-leydig cell tumour

Well-defined, enhancing, solid ovarian mass

64
Q

Difference between placenta accreta, increta and pereceta

A

75-80% placenta accreta: Placenta attached to myometrium without muscular invasion

15% placenta increta: Chorionic villi (CV) invade myometrium

5% placenta percreta: CV penetrate serosa ± extend to involve adjacent bladder, rectum, parametrium

65
Q

Appearances of fibroids on MRI ?

A

Uterine fibroids/Leiomyomas

Intramural, subserosal, or submucosal

-low signal (compared to the myometrium) on T2 and T1 weighted sequences

Myxoid degeneration
-very complex ‘cystic type’ structure
-foci of **very high T2 signal **on backdrop of low T2

Hyaline degeneration
-most common form
-Calcification (typically described as popcorn calcification, sometimes visible on plain films

Cystic degeneration
- high T2 signal.

Red degeneration
**-related to pregnancy **or use of the oral contraceptive pill
-haemorrhagic necrosis and can present acutely as abdominal pain
- MRI characteristics vary depending on the degradation of blood within the fibroid. Peripheral high T1 signal is often described.

Malignant degeneration

66
Q

Uterine fibroid embolisation contraindications:

A

Pelvic infection
History of pelvic radiation
Connective tissue disease
Asymptomatic fibroids
Pregnancy
Subserosal Pedunculated fibroids

67
Q

Features of Beckwith Weidmann syndrome and which risk of childhood cancer?

A

Wilms tumours

Omphalocele, macroglossia and gigantism

68
Q

Difference between barthloin, skene, gartner, nabothian

A

Skene duct cyst
- retention cysts of the paraurethral ducts
-inferior to the pubic symphysis but lateral to the external urethral meatus

Bartholin gland cyst
-posterolateral aspect of the inferior vagina
- When infected or inflamed a Bartholin gland cyst can present as a painful lump
- MRI high T1 as mucoid fluid content

Gartner duct cyst
-usually found incidentally on MRI scans but can cause dyspareunia
-superiorly in the anterolateral wall of the vagina
-imaging they appear straightforwardly cystic
-associated with renal agenesis or ectopia

Nabothian cyst
-Blockage of the mucinous glands on the cervix
- mall yellow bumps on colposcopy.
-cystic with high T2 signal and can show high T1 signal owing to their mucein content
- Asymptomatic and incidental

Nb Urethral diverticulum (also known as urethrocele) can cause Dysuria, dyspareunia and post-void dribbling.
Urinary stasis within the diverticulum predisposes patients to the formation of calculi, which can be seen as low signal on the T2 scan, and adenocarcinoma which will enhance with gadolinium

69
Q

Posterior urethral valve ?

A

Dilated bladder + keyhole sign
Bladder “funnels” into dilated posterior urethra

Dilated posterior male urethra with distinct caliber change at level of valves.PUV lie just distal to prostatic urethra
Diagnosis is made on voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG), cystoscopy, or cystosonography

Perinatal: Anuria, pulmonary hypoplasia → pneumothorax
Infancy: Urinary tract infection, sepsis, urinary retention, poor urinary stream, failure to thrive

70
Q

Features of endometrioma?

A

often ovarian in location they can be found in the peritoneal cavity

Cystic hemorrhagic ovarian mass with thick wall
No internal enhancement or Doppler flow
May contain fluid-fluid levels

Ultrasound -
-single cyst with posterior acoustic enhancement and homogeneous internal low-level echoes

MRI -
-vary depending on the blood content.
-High T1 signal suggests old blood products
— Differentiated from the fat of a potential teratoma by checking to see that the signal persists (or is not suppressed) on the fat saturated sequences.
- **T2 shading **
—-Make the distinction from haemorrhagic corpus luteal cysts since the fresh blood in those will not have degraded sufficient to cause the T2 darkening of endometriomas

71
Q

DDx for endometrial thickening?

A

Tamoxifen
-Endometrial polyps, subendometrial cysts too

HRT
- Not sign of benignity however, and tissue sampling must still be sought.
- Subendometrial cysts would be unusual.

Adenomyosis

Endometrial cancer

72
Q

Features of adenomyosis ?

A

Adenomyosis
-Adenomyosis and endometrial cancer can be hard to distinguish
-Adenomyosis affects the myometrium whereas endometrial cancer arises from the endometrium.
-ectopic presence of endometrial tissue within the myometrium

-diffusely or be limited to a focal area
-absence of mass effect on the endometrial lining

***** MRI classic = widening of the transitional zone (aka junctional zone; the inner layer of myometrium) to greater than 12mm.
-small areas of high T1 and T2 signal are seen representing areas of haemorrhage and cystic change respectively

US -
Uterine enlargement with poor definition of endomyometrial interface
Myometrial heterogeneity and hypoechogenicity
Subendometrial, myometrial, 1- to 5-mm cysts

HSG there will be small diverticuli

DDx
- Leiomyoma -
- Ultrasound: Well-defined mass in submucosal, subserosal, or mural location
- JZ in normal thickness

73
Q

Features of endometrial cancer?

A

Endometrial cancer
-Anything that increases unopposed estrogen exposure causes an increased risk
- post-menopausal age group and thus presents with post-menopausal bleeding

-**endometrial thickness of >5mm in a postmenopausal lady **would be suspicious.
(<5mm 100% negative predictive value)

  • Cellular diagnosis can be obtained at hysteroscopy
  • MRI is used for staging -T2 weighted sequences
    —-loss of the bright endometrial signal and breach of this black junctional zone denotes myometrial invasion
    —– T1 weighted images the layers are all isointense to one another
    —-Contrast is required for endometrial cancer staging in order to accurately assess the depth of myometrial invasion. Cancer enhances to a lesser degree than the strongly enhancing myometrium
  • pelvic and para-aortic lymph node groups ~(inguinal is none regional)
    -cervical invasion which denotes stage II. Fertility sparing management (if required) is no longer a viable option

contrast also useful for staging ovarian tumours. However rectal and cervical tumours contrast is not useful!!

74
Q

Features of bladder cancer?

A

**T2 the detrusor muscle returns low signal ** disrupted if there is invasion.
MRI only if the patient is fit for intervention.

T1 images are more useful for evaluating lymph node involvement and any bony metastases.

Post-contrast images are of limited use in bladder cancer imaging.

<10% are SCC. most TCC

Bladder cancer normally spreads first to the internal and external iliac nodes. involvement of the inguinal nodes is considered non-regional disease

75
Q

Gestational Trophoblastic Disease

A

Partial hydatidiform mole (normal ovum is fertilised by two sperm):
-Thickened placenta with cystic change and peripheral vascularity, may be associated with fetal parts

Complete hydatidiform mole (genetic material derives solely from the father):
-Enlarged placenta with multiple cysts = Snowstorm or bunch of grapes appearance
-No embryo
- No increased vascularity/relatively hypo vascular
- Ovarian theca lutein cysts present in 25-55% of cases - 2° to ovarian hyperstimulation, ↑ β-hCG hormone

Malignant GTD
Invasive mole
-Enlarged, heterogeneous cystic intrauterine mass with ↑ vascularity extending into myometrium
-Rarely metastasizes

Choriocarcinoma
-Enlarged, heterogeneous uterus with complex solid and cystic mass with ↑ vascularity
-May invade myometrium and have extrauterine extension
-Lungs: Most common site of metastasis

76
Q

IOTA rules (International Ovarian Tumour Analysis)?

A

see picture

77
Q

Features of ovarian torsion?

A

enlarged (>4cm in length)
heterogenously echogenic
periphery of the ovary, small fluid-filled follicles
doppler ultrasound scan, twisting of the ovarian pedicle is a useful sign

78
Q

Difference between serous and mucinous epithelial ovarian tumours?

A

see chart

79
Q

Multiloculated lareg cystic mass in the adnexa in peri- and early postmenopausal women. US - diffuse low level echoes and Stain glass apperance.

A

Mucinous Ovarian Cystadenoma/Carcinoma

Solid components increase suspicion for malignancy
Lower ADC values of mural nodules
Abnormal ascites

80
Q

How to measure relative and absolute adrenal washout?

A

See chart

81
Q

Features of cervical cancer

A

see picture

82
Q

Commonest sites of urinary tract malignancies?

A

Majority Bladder
2nd = renal pelvis

Ureter is least common site
lower third is affected in around 75% of cases, followed by middle third.
The proximal third is affected in only around 3% of ureteric malignancies.

83
Q

Staging patterns for prostate cancer based on risk

A

see picture

84
Q

Mullerian duct abnormalities

A

Whe mention prominent fundal cleft (>1cm) it is between two things- *Didelphys or bicornuate. *

Didelphys uterine cavities do not merge/communicate.

Renal agenesis, ectopia and fusion present in 33% of patients

Aplastic/absent uterus + normal fallopian tubes and ovaries = MRKH syndrome

Two cervices also known as owl eyes on MRI = either didelphys or bicollis bicornuate (difficult to tell them apart)

Domed fundus (<1cm cleft) = reabsorption anomaly (Septate or arcuate)

Recurrent midterm miscarriages can be due to septate uterus and can be surgically resected to improve fertility.

85
Q

GU TB features

A

TB pyonephrosis (putty kidney)
small shrunken kidney with dystrophic or amorphous calcification (autonephrectomy) irregular eroded calyx (moth-eaten appearance)
cavities connected to the collecting system
hydrocalicosis and infundibular strictures
phantom and amputated calyces
kink of renal pelvis
renal stones.

Strictures in the ureter result in sawtooth, corkscrew, beaded and pipestem ureter. Calcification is seen in the distal ureter
whereas bladder wall calcification is rare.
Bladder TB results in thick-walled small volume ‘thimble’ or shrunken bladder.

Prostate TB causes radiating, streaky, low-signal areas on T2-weighted images (watermelon sign).

86
Q

Contrast induced nephropathy parameters?

A

Increase of creatinine >25% baseline or 0.5mg/dl
increase in serum level of creatinine occurring 48–72 hours after administration of contrast agent and persisting for 2–5 days