Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Osha 3a > GUM > Flashcards

GUM Flashcards

(65 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is bacterial vaginosis?

A
  • overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria in vagina
  • loss of lactobacilli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are lactobacilli?

A
  • healthy vaginal bacterial flora
  • produce lactic acid keeping ph <4.5
  • stops other bacteria overgrowing
  • alkaline environment > allows anaerobic to multiply
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are risk factors for BV?

A
  • multiple sexual partners
  • excessive vaginal cleaning
  • recent Abx
  • smoking
  • copper coil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does BV present?

A
  • fish smelling discharge
  • watery grey or white
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is BV investigated?

A
  • swab and pH paper
  • charcoal HVS
  • or self low VS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of cells are seen on microscopy in BV?

A
  • clue cells
  • epithelial cells from cervix with bacteria inside
  • usually Gardnerella vaginalis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is BV managed?

A
  • asymptomatic: none
  • metronidazole orally or gel (avoid alcohol)
  • clindamycin alternative
  • lifestyle advice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are complications of BV?

A
  • inc risk of STIs
  • preterm delivery
  • PROM
  • low birth weight
  • chorioamnionitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is thrush?

A
  • vaginal infection of Candida family
  • MC is Candida albicans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are risk factors for thrush?

A
  • inc oestrogen
  • poorly controlled diabetes
  • immunosuppression
  • broad-spectrum Abx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does thrush present?

A
  • thick white discharge that doesn’t smell
  • cottage cheese
  • vulva/vaginal itching/discomfort
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does thrush cause infection?

A
  • candida can colonise vagina without causing symptoms
  • progresses to infection with right environment
  • e.g. during pregnancy
  • after Abx treatment altering flora
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the complications of a severe thrush infection?

A
  • erythema
  • fissures
  • oedema
  • dyspareunia
  • dysuria
  • excoriation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is thrush investigated?

A
  • testing pH
  • charcoal swab with microscopy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which infections are indicated by pH >4.5?

A
  • bacterial vaginosis
  • trichomonas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is thrush managed?

A
  • antifungals
  • oral fluconazole 1st line
  • clotrimazole pessary if CI - pregnancy/breastfeeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How is recurrent thrush managed?

A
  • 4+ infections per year
  • induction and maintenance over 6 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What methods of delivery are there for thrush medication?

A
  • clotrimazole cream
  • clotrimazole pessary (500mg intravaginally)
  • fluconazole orally (single dose 150mg)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is chlamydia?

A
  • chlamydia trachomatis
  • gram-negative bacteria
  • intracellular organism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are risk factors for chlamydia?

A
  • young
  • sexually active
  • multiple partners
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the National Chlamydia Screening Programme?

A
  • covers every sexually active person 15-24 25 annually or when they change sexual partner
  • positive > retest 3mo after
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the order of preference for NAAT swabs?

A
  • women: endocervical > vulvovaginal > urine
  • men: first-catch > urethral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does chlamydia present in women?

A
  • abnormal vaginal discharge
  • pelvic pain
  • IMB or PCB
  • dyspareunia
  • dysuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does chlamydia present in men?

A
  • urethral discharge or discomfort
  • dysuria
  • epididymo-orchitis
  • reactive arthritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is seen on examination for chlamydia?
- pelvic/abdo tenderness - cervical motion tenderness - cervicitis - purulent discharge
26
How is chlamydia managed?
- uncomplicated: doxycycline 100mg BD for 7 days
27
What are the complications of chlamydia?
- PID - infertility - ectopic - lymphogranuloma venereum
28
How is chlamydia managed in pregnancy?
- azithromycin 1g orally single dose > 500mg OD for 2 days - erythromycin 500mg QDS for 7 days
29
What are the complications of chlamydia in pregnancy?
- preterm delivery - premature ROM - low birth weight - neonatal infection
30
What type of bacteria is neisseria gonorrhoeae?
- gram negative diplococcus
31
What are risk factors for gonorrhoea?
- young - sexually active - multiple partners - other STIs
32
What is the pathophysiology of gonorrhoea?
- infects mucous membranes in columnar epithelium - endocervix, urethra, rectum, conjunctiva, pharynx - spreads via contact with mucous secretions in infected areas
33
How does gonorrhoea present?
- odourless purulent discharge - green or yellow - dysuria - pelvic pain (women) - testicular pain/swelling (men)
34
What is the symptomatic percentage for gonorrhoea in men vs women?
- symptomatic percentage: - 90% of men - 50% of women
35
How is gonorrhoea diagnosed?
- NAAT swabs to detect RNA or DNA - endocervical, vulvovaginal, urethral or first-catch urine - standard charcoal endocervical swab for MC&S
36
What other gonorrhoeal swabs should be taken in MSM?
- rectal and pharyngeal
37
How is gonorrhoea managed?
- single dose IM ceftriaxone 1g if sensitivities unknown - single dose oral ciprofloxacin 500mg if sensitivities known
38
When should a test of cure be done in gonorrhoea?
- 72hrs after treatment for culture - 7 days after treatment for RNA NAAT - 14 days for DNA NAAT
39
How to decide which method to use for gonorrhoeal test of cure?
- NAAT if asymptomatic - cultures if symptomatic
40
What is disseminated gonococcal infection?
- complication of untreated gonorrhoea - bacteria spreads to skin and joints - haematogenous spread from mucosal infection
41
How does disseminated gonococcal infection present?
- tenosyonvitis - polyarthralgia - migratory polyarthritis
42
What are complications of gonorrhoea?
- PID - infertility - epididymo-orchitis - Fitz-High-Curtis
43
What is Trichomonas vaginalis?
- parasite - protozoan
44
Where does trichomonas live?
- men: urethra - women: vagina
45
How does trichomonas present?
- vaginal discharge - itching - dysuria and dyspareunia - balanitis
46
How is discharge described in trichomonas?
- frothy - yellow-green - fishy smell
47
What is seen on examination of trichomonas?
- strawberry cervix - vaginal pH >4.5
48
How is trichomonas diagnosed?
- charcoal swab from posterior fornix of vagina - self-taken low vaginal swab - urethral swab or first catch urine in men
49
How is trichomonas treated?
- metronidazole
50
What is the pathophysiology of HIV?
- RNA retrovirus - enters and destroys CD4 T-helper cells
51
How is HIV transmitted?
- unprotected anal, vaginal or oral sex - vertical transmission during pregnancy, birth or breastfeeding - mucous membrane, blood or wound exposure to bodily fluids
52
How does HIV present initially?
- within 3-12 weeks of infection - sore throat - lymphadenopathy - diarrhoea - malaise, myalgia, arthralgia - maculopapular rash
53
What are some AIDS-defining illnesses?
- lymphomas - CMV - TB - Pneumocystitis pneumonia (PCP)
54
How does fourth generation HIV testing work?
- 4th generate tests for antibodies to HIV and p24 antigen. - -ve result within 45 days is unreliable. - >45 days after exposure a negative result is reliable
55
How do point-of-care HIV tests work?
- test for HIV antibodies - give results within minutes - 90 day window
56
How is the CD4 count monitored?
- 500-1200 cells/mm3 is normal range - <200 puts patient at risk of infection
57
How is HIV managed?
- two NRTIs (tenofovir + emtricitabine) and a PI (indinavir) or NNRTI (nevirapine) - aim to achieve a normal CD4 count and undetectable viral load
58
What additional management/screening is given to patients with HIV?
- prophylactic co-trimoxazole to prevent PCP - CV disease (statins) - yearly smears - vaccinations up to date
59
How is HIV transmission during delivery prevented?
- <50 copies: NVD - >50 copies: consider pre-labour C-section - >400 copies: pre labour C-section
60
What prophylaxis is available for HIV?
- PEP: use within 72hrs - PrEP: take before - both use emtricitabine/tenofovir
61
What is lymphogranuloma venereum?
- affects lymphoid tissue around chlamydia infection - affects MSM
62
What is the primary stage of lymphogranuloma venereum?
- painless ulcer - penis in men - vaginal wall in women - rectum
63
What is the secondary stage of lymphogranuloma venereum?
- lymphadenitis - inguinal or femoral
64
What is the tertiary stage of lymphogranuloma venereum?
- inflammation of rectum and anus - anal pain - change in bowel habit - tenesmus
65
What is the treatment for lymphogranuloma venereum?
- doxycycline 100mg BD - 21 days

Osha 3a (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions