Gunery Skills Test Ver A

Question 1

__________________ is the real-time accurate knowledge of one’s own location and orientation, as well as the locations of friendly forces, enemy forces, and noncombatants. _________________includes
awareness of the METT-T conditions that affect the operation.

Answer 1

situational awareness, situational
awareness (3-04.3 para 10-2)

Question 2

What are the negative effects of fratricide?

Answer 2

• Hesitation to conduct limited-visibility operations.
  -Loss of confidence in the unit’s leadership.
  -Increase of leader self-doubt.
  -Hesitation to use supporting combat systems.
  -Over supervision of units.
  -Loss of initiative.
  -Loss of aggressiveness during fire and maneuver.
  -Disrupted operations.
  -Needless loss of combat power.
  -General degradation of cohesion and morale.
  (3-04.3 p 10-3 para 10-14)

Question 3

If several projectiles are fired from the same weapon with the same elevation and deflection settings, the individual points of impact will be scattered about the aim point. The degree of scatter of these rounds is called _____________.

Answer 3

Dispersion (3-04.3 C-1)

Question 4

What are the Interior Ballistics?

Answer 4

-Barrel Wear
-Propellant Charges
-Projectile Weight
-Launcher Tube and Rocket Pod Alignment
-Thrust Misalignment (3-04.3 pg C-5&6)

Question 5

Define maximum effective range.

Answer 5

Distance at which there is a 50-percent probability of both hitting and defeating a target. (3-04.3 para C-10)

Question 6

What are the five modes of fire per the TC 3-04.3?

Answer 6

Hover
Moving
Running
Diving
Running/Diving IP (TC3-04.3 12-1,2)

Question 7

What are the three inherent advantages of diving fire?

Answer 7

Decreased vulnerability to small-arms fire.

Increased accuracy.

Smaller beaten zone.

(3-04.3 para 12-11)

Question 8

Neutralization knocks a target out of action ____________.

Answer 8

Temporarily (ATM pg 4-147)

Question 9

What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP round?

Answer 9

Black with yellow band (SH D-11)

Question 10

During running rocket fire, align the helicopter into firing constraints with the _______ while
maintaining ______________.

Answer 10

Cyclic, trim (ATM p 4-159)

Question 11

When conducting AWS Harmonization, the target should be located _____ to _____ meters in front of the aircraft.

Answer 11

500 to 1500 meters (AWS SH D-51)

Question 11

The bursting radius of the M151 HE “10 Pounder” is __________ and can produce a lethality radius
in excess of __________.

Answer 11

10m 50 m (SH D-25)

Question 12

What is the gun duty cycle?

Answer 12

Six 50-round bursts with 5 seconds between
bursts, followed by a 10-minute cooling period. Burst settings other than 50, the duty cycle
can be generalized to mean that no more than 300 rounds are fired within 60 seconds before
allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes

Question 13

The software range limit for the 30mm is?

Answer 13

4200 meters (AWS SH D-22)

Question 14

The warning regarding 30mm stoppage states: If _____ or more rounds have been fired in the
preceding _____ minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for
____________. Crewmembers should ____________________________________.

Answer 14

300, ten minutes, 30 minutes, remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control (-10 p4-144)

Question 15

Will the AWS continue to follow the IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode?

Answer 15

Yes (-10 p 4-141)

Question 16

In the event of an IHADSS failure with the gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain ______________________________, gun firing _____________. When the gun is de-actioned, it will ______________.

Answer 16

LAST COMMAND position INHIBITED
RETURN TO STOW
(-10 P 4-29 WARNING)

Question 17

What is the elevation of the gun in the FIXED mode?

Answer 17

0.87 (-10 p 4-141)

Question 18

What is the rate of fire for the 30 mm cannon?

Answer 18

625 +/- 25 (AWS SH D-22)

Question 19

With Hellfire Rails on pylons 2 and 3, and rocket launchers on pylons 1 and 4, what rocket zones and
quantities of each are available?

Answer 19

A B E (ARS SH D-23)

Question 20

Is the pilot permitted to make changes to the ARS page when in the cooperative mode?

Answer 20

(Yes ARS
SH D-33)

Question 21

The Aerial Rocket Subsystem can be employed independently by either crewmember when the
active sight is _________ and __________; (CPG Only) _______.

Answer 21

HMD, FCR, MTADS (ARS SH D-
32)

Question 22

The pylons articulate independently through a range of _________________.

Answer 22

+4 to -15 (ARS SH
D-09)

Question 23

What are the different “modes” the pylons can operate in?

Answer 23

Ground Stow
Flight Stow
Articulation
Fixed
(ARS SH pg D-9)

Question 24

On preflight, the jettison plunger should be checked for proper gap to ensure __________________.

Answer 24

jettison will occur properly (ARS SH D-11)

Question 25

T/F The rocket page is crew station independent page for independent engagements.

Answer 25

True (ARS pg D-15)

Question 26

M151 Warhead HE is _________________________ and referred to as the “________________”.

Answer 26

-anti-personnel -anti-material -10 pounder (ARS SH pg D-25)

Question 27

A HF-II which does receive an R09 targeting message from the firing aircraft is considered an________?

Answer 27

"Enhanced HF-II". HF SUPP P4

Question 28

Define the 60 degree (preferably within 45 degrees) Designator Offset Angle.

Answer 28

The angle between the GTL and LTL. P14 HF SUPP

Question 29

What is the minimum effective range of a ENHANCED “R” LOBL engagement with a 0° degree offset angle from the aircraft datum line? __________. With a 20° offset? __________.

Answer 29

500/1200 (HF SUPP PG 33)

Question 30

What are the different sections/assemblies of the Hellfire Missile?

Answer 30

**Guidance**- missile autopilot and seeker guidance and control, displacement gyro/IMU, precursor **Warhead**- Control Interface Group, thermal battery, pneumatic accumulator, CI circuit card, warhead and fuze, Electronic ARM/Safe Device **Control**- **Propulsion**- single-stage, single-thrust, minimum-smoke, solid-propellant, rocket motor, a motor squib, and cruciform wing (SH D-10)

Question 31

What is the definition of Ripple fire?

Answer 31

Ripple fire mode requires at least two designators which will allow the aircrew to employ multiple missiles on different codes. RIPL allows for firing of missiles coded to both the priority channel and the alternate channel.

Question 32

How long is the allowable training mode, missile elapsed ON time?

Answer 32

30 min (HF SH D 117)

Question 33

What is “transfer alignment”?

Answer 33

-MSL receiving updated INU data from Aircraft to update IMU (HF SH D-92) -Transfer alignment (transfer of aircraft inertial data to missile inertial platform) occurs automatically, at missile power up with no pilot action required.-10 p4-154

Question 34

Can the BACKSCATTER inhibit be overridden by the trigger’s second detent?

Answer 34

NO (HF SH D-52)

Question 35

How long must you lase the target before the message “TARGET DATA?” blanks in the HAD?

Answer 35

3-5 seconds (HF SH D-95)

Question 36

Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes only stationary ground targets?

Answer 36

B (-10 pg 4-79)

Question 37

A single scan burst in GTM narrow FOV will give _____ scans.

Answer 37

3 (-10 p4-63)

Question 38

The ___________ switch is used to rapidly position the FCR centerline to the line of bearing of an emitting threat as detected by the RFI.

Answer 38

Cued search (-10 p 4-82)

Question 39

How is the number one RFI emitter displayed?

Answer 39

Home plate (-10 p4-81)

Question 40

T/F The RFI can detect and process pulse, pulse Doppler, and continuous wave (CW) radar signals.

Answer 40

True (-10 pg 4-167)