Gynae Flashcards

(61 cards)

1
Q

Cervical mass DDx

A

Cervical polyp or fibroid (including prolapsed uterine fibroid)

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2
Q

Subtypes of cervical ca

A

SCC, adenocarcinoma (clear cell, endometroid, mucinous)

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3
Q

Cervical ca risk factors

A

HPV 16/18, multiple sexual partners, smoking, young age at first intercourse, high parity, immunosuppression

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4
Q

Cervical ca pathology

A

HPV integrates with host DNA, viral proteins E6 and E7 disrupt tumour suppressor proteins. LSIL (lower third atypia, 10% become HSIL), HSIL (lower 2/3rds or more, 10% become cancer)

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5
Q

Cervical Ca staging

A

FIGO: 1 - cervix, 2a - outside cervix with no parametrial invasion (surgery), 2b - parametrial involvement (chemoradio), 3 - pelvic sidewall/hydronephrosis, 4 - bladder/rectum

2b is key differentiator

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6
Q

Cervical ca screening in australia

A

Free 5 yearly screening swabs (looking for evidence of HPV) for for women 25-74

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7
Q

What are the types of Mullerian duct anomalies?

A

1 - uterine agenesis (MRKH syndrome)
2 - unicornuate
3 - didelphys
4 - bicornuate
5 - septate/subseptate (most common 45%)
6 - arcuate
7 - DES

MRKH syndrome is a congenital condition characterized by the absence of the uterus and the upper two-thirds of the vagina.

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8
Q

What are the complications of a septate uterus?

A

Infertility (requires septoplasty)

Septoplasty is a surgical procedure to correct a septate uterus, which can improve fertility outcomes.

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9
Q

What are the associations of Mullerian duct anomalies?

A

Renal anomalies (renal agenesis, crossed fused ectopia, duplex)

These renal anomalies are often seen in conjunction with Mullerian duct anomalies due to their embryological origins.

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10
Q

What are the MRI findings for fibroids (leiomyomas)?

A

High T1, low T2, variable enhancement. If degeneration, opposite signal

MRI is a useful imaging modality for characterizing fibroids and their degeneration can change imaging characteristics.

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11
Q

What are the subtypes of fibroids (leiomyomas)?

A

Intrauterine:
* subserosal
* intramural
* submucosal
Extrauterine:
* cervical
* broad ligament

The location of fibroids can significantly affect symptoms and treatment options.

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12
Q

What are the risk factors for Fibroid (leiomyoma)?

A

Age, family history

Risk factors can influence the likelihood of developing fibroids.

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13
Q

What is the pathology of Fibroid (leiomyoma)?

A

Benign monoclonal tumours of smooth muscle cells and fibrous connective tissue

This describes the basic structural composition of fibroids.

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14
Q

What are the types of degeneration for Fibroid (leiomyoma)?

A
  • Hyaline (most common)
  • Cystic
  • Myxoid
  • Red

These types indicate the various ways fibroids can change over time.

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15
Q

What are the management options for Fibroid (leiomyoma)?

A
  • Myomectomy
  • Focal endometrial curettage
  • Hysterectomy
  • UAE (more effective for T2 hyper fibroids)
  • High intensity focused ultrasound

Management strategies depend on the severity and symptoms of fibroids.

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16
Q

What are the complications associated with Fibroid (leiomyoma)?

A
  • Benign metastases (lung/peritoneal nodules, intravenous)
  • Infertility
  • IUGR in pregnancy due to growth
  • Sarcomatous transformation (<1%)
  • Torsion if pedunculated
  • Abruption if retroplacental

Complications can arise from the presence and growth of fibroids.

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17
Q

What are the associations with Adenomyosis?

A
  • Endometriosis (20%)
  • Fibroids (50%)
  • Endometrial hyperplasia/polyps/cancer

These associations indicate co-occurring conditions with adenomyosis.

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18
Q

What is the pathology of Adenomyosis?

A

Benign downgrowth proliferation of ectopic endometrial glands within the myometrial layer (presents as dysmenorrhoea/menorrhagia). >12mm junctional zone thickness is highly specific

This describes the abnormal growth patterns seen in adenomyosis.

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19
Q

What are the types of Adenomyosis?

A
  • Diffuse (favours posterior wall)
  • Focal (adenomyoma)
  • Cystic

Different types of adenomyosis can affect treatment decisions.

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20
Q

What is the differential diagnosis (Ddx) for AVM?

A

EMV (differentiate on DSA). If bHCG+ –> molar pregnancy or RPOC (centred at endometrium, not myometrium)

Differential diagnoses help in identifying the correct condition affecting the patient.

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21
Q

What are the risk factors for AVM?

A
  • Multiple pregnancies
  • Miscarriage
  • Prior surgery (D&C, C-section, termination)

These factors can increase the likelihood of developing an arteriovenous malformation.

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22
Q

What is the management for AVM?

A

O&G and IR referral (transcatheter arterial embolisation)

Management typically involves specialists in obstetrics and gynecology as well as interventional radiology.

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23
Q

What are the differential diagnoses (Ddx) for endometrial cancer?

A

RPOC, endometritis, hyperplasia, polyp, submucosal fibroid, tamoxifen changes

RPOC refers to retained products of conception.

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24
Q

What are the subtypes of endometrial cancer?

A

Type 1, Type 2

Type 1 is more common (80%) and associated with hyperestrogenism; Type 2 is less common (20%) and associated with endometrial atrophy.

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25
What is the normal endometrial thickness in premenopausal women?
2-16mm depending on cycle ## Footnote Thickness can vary during the menstrual cycle.
26
What is the normal endometrial thickness in postmenopausal women?
<5mm (if PVB) or <8-11mm (if no PVB) ## Footnote PVB refers to postmenopausal vaginal bleeding.
27
What are the stages of endometrial cancer according to FIGO?
1 - uterine body, 2 - cervical involvement, 3 - serosa/adnexal/vaginal/parametrial involvement or lymphadenopathy, 4 - bladder/rectum, ascites, distant mets ## Footnote FIGO stands for the International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics.
28
What is the pathology of a polyp?
Localized hyperplastic overgrowth of glands & stroma; pedunculated or sessile ## Footnote Pedunculated polyps are attached by a stalk, while sessile polyps are flat and attached directly.
29
What are the aetiologies of hydro/haematometrocolpos?
Imperforate hymen, vaginal stenosis/septum, lower vaginal atresia, cervical stenosis ## Footnote These conditions can obstruct the normal flow of menstrual blood.
30
What is the follow-up timeframe for a simple cyst if it is >5cm in premenopausal and >3cm in postmenopausal?
2-6 months for resolution or 6-12 months for growth rate assessment
31
What are the differential diagnoses for a haemorrhagic cyst?
* Ruptured ectopic (if bHCG positive) * Endometrioma * Cystic neoplasm
32
What is the management protocol for a haemorrhagic cyst that is >5cm in premenopausal or peri-menopausal?
Follow up US in 6-12 weeks; surgical evaluation if post-menopausal
33
What percentage of dermoid cysts can be malignant?
1-2% can transform into SCC
34
What is the recommended management for a dermoid cyst?
Short term follow up in 3 months to ensure stability
35
What are the possible complications of a dermoid cyst?
* Torsion (3-16%) * Rupture * 1% malignant transformation into SCC * Limbic encephalitis * Hyperthyroidism (for struma ovarii)
36
What happens to an endometrioma during pregnancy?
Decidualisation
37
Where are the common locations of endometriosis deposits?
* Ovaries * Uterosacral ligament * Bladder * Pouch of Douglas * Peritoneum * Rectum/GIT * Chest
38
What imaging modalities are best for the three types of endometriosis?
* Superficial: MRI, laparoscopy * Endometrioma: TV US, MRI * Deep: TA/TV US, MRI
39
What are the types of pathology associated with endometriosis?
* Metastatic (retrograde menstruation) * Metaplastic * Induction (from shed endometrium)
40
What is the management for endometriosis?
* Drugs to target hormonal regulation (GRH analogues, OCP) * Surgery (adhesiolysis, uterosacral ligament excision, hysterectomy, oophorectomy)
41
What is the management protocol for an endometrioma?
Follow up ultrasound yearly to ensure no malignant transformation (1% risk of ca)
42
What are the IOTA criteria for benign ovarian tumours?
* Unilocular cyst * Smooth multilocular <10cm * Solid components <7mm * Acoustic shadows * No vascularity
43
What are the IOTA criteria for malignant ovarian tumours?
* Irregular solid * Irregular multilocular-solid >10cm * >4 papillary structures * Ascites * High vascularity
44
What are the types of ovarian tumours?
* Epithelial (serous, mucinous, endometrioid, clear cell, Brenner, carcinosarcoma) * Germ cell (dysgerminoma, embryonal, choriocarcinoma, teratoma, yolk sac) * Sex cord/stromal (granulosa, fibroma-thecoma, Sertoli-Leydig) * Metastases
45
What are the differential diagnoses for solid ovarian tumours in pre-menopausal women?
* Dysgeminoma * Immature teratoma * Sertoli-Leydig * Juvenile granulosa cell tumour
46
What are the differential diagnoses for solid ovarian tumours in post-menopausal women?
* Brenner * Fibroma-thecoma * Adult granulosa cell tumour
47
Which ovarian tumours are typically bilateral?
* Endometriomas * Serous cystadenomas/cystadenocarcinomas * Metastases (including Krukenberg tumours) * Lymphoma * Endometroid * Dermoid
48
Which tumours are associated with Meigs syndrome?
* Fibroma (80-90%) * Thecoma * Fibrothecoma * Granulosa cell * Brenner
49
What are the genetic associations of ovarian cancer?
* BRCA1 * TP53 mutation * HNPCC
50
What is the management approach according to ORADS criteria for low-risk patients?
Specialist US/MRI, gynae referral
51
What is the management approach according to ORADS criteria for intermediate/high-risk patients?
Gynae-onc referral
52
What are the steps in the management of ovarian tumours?
* Correlate with serum tumour markers (CA125) * CT for staging (FIGO) * Refer to gynae-oncology * Likely need surgery + chemo
53
What is the FIGO staging for ovarian cancer?
* 1 - Ovaries * 2 - Pelvic extension * 3 - Peritoneal extension or retroperitoneal LN * 4 - Distant mets
54
What are the primary sites of Krukenberg tumour metastasis?
* Stomach (signet ring cells) * Colon * Breast * Lung * Contralateral ovary * Pancreas * Biliary tree
55
What is the differential diagnosis for multicystic ovarian morphology?
* PCOM (check for endometrial hyperplasia) * Theca lutein cysts in OHSS or molar pregnancy
56
What are the diagnostic criteria for polycystic morphology?
≥20 follicles per ovary and/or ≥10ml ovarian volume
57
What are the Rotterdam criteria for diagnosing polycystic ovary syndrome?
* Ovulatory dysfunction (oligomenorrhoea, anovulation) * Clinical/biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism (hirsutism, obesity, increased AMH) * Polycystic morphology on US
58
What is the classification of OHSS according to the Modified Golan criteria?
* 1 - Abdominal distension * 2 - Nausea and vomiting, diarrhoea * 3 - Ascites on imaging * 4 - Clinical ascites +/- pleural effusion * 5 - Hypovolaemia, abnormal FBC/EUC
59
What are the colour scores for ORADS
1 = no detectable flow 2 = flow present, challenging to see 3 = moderate flow 4 = robust flow, easily seen
60
How many ORADS categories
0 = incomplete 1 = normal 2 = almost certainly benign 3 = low risk malignancy 4 = intermediate risk malignancy 5 = high risk
61
How many sub types in ORADS 2
Simple cyst Classic benign cyst (includes hemorrhagic, dermoid, endometrioma, paraovarian, peritoneal inclusion, hydrosalpinx) Non simple unilocular cyst, smooth inner margin