Gynaecological Oncology Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

What is the most common type of malignant cervical lesion? At what age is it usually diagnosed?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (95%), followed by adenocarcinoma

50s

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2
Q

Where do the majority of cervical dysplasias and cancers arise?

A

The transformation zone of the cervix

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3
Q

What is the transformation zone and how does it arise?

A
  1. At birth, vagina lined with squamous epithelium - columnar epithelium lines only the endocervix and the central area of the ectocervix (original squamocolumnar junction)
  2. During puberty, oestrogen stimulates eversion of a single columnar layer –> exposed to acidic pH of vagina –> metaplasia (change from squamous to columnar) –> new squamocolumnar junction forms as a result
  3. TZ is the area located between the original and the current squamocolumnar junction
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4
Q

Describe the progression of cervical cancer.

A

Metaplasia –> HPV infection –> dysplasia –> carcinoma in situ –> invasion (growth by local extension) –> metastasis (occurs late)

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5
Q

With which HPV types is associated with a high risk cervical neoplasia?

A

16, 18

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6
Q

With which HPV types is associated with a low risk of cervical neoplasia?

A

6, 11

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7
Q

Describe the important aspects of the National HPV vaccine and the vaccination program (3)

A
  1. In Vic, free for Yr 7 boys and girls (12-13 yo) and Yr 9 boys (14-15 yo)
  2. Two types - Gardasil covers all four HPV types while Cervarix covers only two (16,18)
  3. 3 IM injections over a period of 6 months
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8
Q

When should the HPV vaccine ideally be administered?

A

Ideally, before onset of sexual activity HOWEVER vaccine is still indicated for sexually active females or those with a history of previous HPV infection or HPV-related disease

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9
Q

List 3 early and 3 late features of cervical cancer

A

Early: asymptomatic; discharge: initially watery, becoming brown or red; post-coital bleeding

Late: 80-90% present with bleeding (either post-coital, postmenopausal or irregular bleeding); pelvic or back pain (extension of tumour to pelvic walls); bladder/bowel symptoms

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10
Q

What are the cervical screening guidelines in the normal population of women?

A

In women over the age of 18 who have ever had sex, Pap smears required every 2 years even if they no longer have sex

(No advantages in doing more frequently, because cancer usually takes ~10 years to develop)

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11
Q

What are the cervical screening guidelines in those who’ve had a hysterectomy?

A

If total: vault smears

If partial: (i.e. cervix still there); Pap smear still required

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12
Q

When can regular cervical screening be stopped?

A

In those over the age of 70 and who’ve had two normal Pap smears in the last 5 years. They can still do so if they wish.

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13
Q

How is cervical cancer diagnosed? (2)

A
  1. Colposcopy - acetic acid wash applied to cervix dehydrates cells and reveals ‘acetowhite’ areas that correspond to increased nucleus-to-cytoplasm ratio (abnormal) - allows biopsy
  2. Cone biopsy or diagnostic excision (i.e. loop electrosurgical excision procedure)
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14
Q

How is cervical cancer treated?

A

Dependent on stage/size

Surgical - excision (cone, LEEP) or hysterectomy
Chemotherapy - for locally advanced or metastatic
Radiotherapy - for locally advanced disease

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15
Q

How are abnormal Pap tests managed in pregnancy? (3)

A
  1. Refer to colposcopy
  2. If diagnostic conization required, should be deferred until T2 to minimise risk of pregnancy loss
  3. Can deliver vaginally if invasive cancer ruled out
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16
Q

How is invasive cervical cancer managed in pregnancy? (In T1 vs T2/T3)

A

Depends on prognostic factors, degree of foetal maturity and patient wishes

General recommendations in T1: consider pregnancy termination, management with either radical surgery (hysterectomy vs. cervicectomy/trachelectomy)

In T2/T3 : delay of therapy until viable foetus and C/S for delivery with concurrent radical surgery or subsequent concurrent chemoradiation therapy

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17
Q

List 7 risk factors for epithelial ovarian cancers

A
  1. Nulliparity
  2. Early menarche/late menopause
  3. Increasing age
  4. Endometriosis
  5. Family history of breast, colon, endometrial, ovarian cancer
  6. PCOS
  7. IUD
18
Q

List 4 protective factors for epithelial ovarian cancers

A
  1. OCP
  2. Pregnancy/breast feeding
  3. Tubal ligation (recently questioned)
  4. Hysterectomy
19
Q

What is the common type of ovarian tumour?

A

Epithelial - most common subtype = serous

20
Q

What are the different types of ovarian tumours that can occur?

A
  1. Most common = epithelial
  2. Germ-cell
  3. Sex cord stromal
21
Q

Which tumour marker is used in detecting/screening for epithelial ovarian tumours?

22
Q

How do epithelial ovarian tumours present?

A

Most patients present with advanced stage disease - often asymptomatic until dissemination.

When present, symptoms may include:

  1. Vague abdominal symptoms - nausea, bloating, early satiety
  2. Symptoms of mass effect - increased abdominal girth (from ascites or tumour), frequency, constipation
  3. Post menopausal bleeding
23
Q

What should be done if a pap smear comes back as ‘unsatisfactory’?

A

Repeat smear in 6-12 weeks with correction, when possible, of the problem that caused the unsatisfactory smear

24
Q

What should be done if a Pap smear comes back showing LSIL?

A

Repeat pap in 12 months, unless over 30 without history of negative cytology in preceding 2-3 years, refer for immediate colposcopy or repeat smear in 6 months

Need two normal 12 monthly pap smears in a row - then back to 2 yearly schedule

25
What should be done if a Pap smear comes back showing HSIL?
Refer for immediate colposcopy +/- biopsy
26
How is HSIL treated once confirmed on biopsy?
Ablative: CO2, laser, cold coagulation, diathermy, cryotherapy Fertility sparing: excisional biopsy - LLETZ vs cone biopsy
27
When is a cone biopsy indicated? (3)
1. Failure to visualise the upper limit of the cervical transformation zone 2. Suspicion of an early invasive cancer on cytology, biopsy or colposcopic assessment 3. The suspected presence of an additional significant glandular abnormality (i.e. adenocarcinoma in situ) on cytology or biopsy
28
Once a HSIL is treated, what should be done?
Repeat smear and colposcopy in 4-6 months Repeat smear and HPV typing at 12 monthly until 2x negative (on smear and HPV typing) on consecutive occasions then return to 2 yearly schedule
29
What is the gold standard for assessment of a glandular cervical abnormality?
Cold-knife cone biopsy
30
How are uterine cancers classified?
Type I - endometroid adenocarcinoma; caused by excess oestrogen Type II - Serous, clear cell carcinoma; not oestrogen-related
31
What are the clinical features of Type I vs Type II uterine cancers?
Type I - postmenopausal bleeding in majority, abnormal uterine bleeding in majority of affected pre-menopausal women (menorrhagia, intermenstrual bleeding) Type II - may not present with bleeding in early stage, more likely to present with advanced stage disease with symptoms like ovarian cancer (i.e. bloating, bowel dysfunction, pelvic pressure)
32
How is suspected endometrial cancer evaluated? (4)
1. In women with reproductive age - urine or serum HCG to exclude pregnancy 2. FBE 3. U/S 4. Endometrial sampling - can be followed with a D & C
33
How can endometrial cancer be treated? (4)
1. Surgery - hysterectomy + bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy 2. Radiotherapy 3. Chemotherapy 4. Hormonal therapy e.g. provera or tamoxifen
34
What is a hyatidiform mole? Is it benign or malignant?
The sperm and egg cells have joined without the development of a baby in the uterus Benign but may spread to nearby tissues (invasive mole) or become malignant (gestational trophoblastic disease) (complete mole more likely to do this)
35
What are the two types of hydatidiform mole? Which is more common?
Complete - diffuse trophoblastic hyperplasia, hydropic villi, no foetal tissues or membranes present Partial - focal trophoblastic hyperplasia and hydropic villi, associated with non-viable foetus and placenta Complete is mor common
36
Which type of molar pregnancy has a higher likelihood of progression to malignancy?
Complete - 15-20% risk of progression
37
What's the genetic differences between a complete and partial mole?
Complete - 46 XX or 46 XY | Partial - Often triploid, usually related to single ovum fertilised by two sperm
38
What is the most common malignant vulvar lesion? What are some other causes?
90% squamous cell carcinoma. Remainder melanomas, basal cell carcinoma, Paget's disease
39
What are the risk factors for malignant vulvar lesions? (2)
1. HPV infection | 2. VIN (vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia): precancerous change
40
What is the pattern of spread of malignant vulvar lesions?
Usually inguinal
41
What is the least common site for carcinoma of the female reproductive system?
Fallopian tube - usually serous epithelial carcinoma
42
What are the risk factors for endometrial cancer?
COLD NUT Cancer (ovarian, breast, colon) Obesity Late menopause Diabetes mellitus Nulliparity Unopposed oestrogen: PCOS, anovulation, HRT Tamoxifen