[GYNE] LE 4 STI/ INFERTILITY/VIOLENCE Flashcards
(99 cards)
Q: Which of the following is NOT progesterone-dependent?
A. Endometrial secretory transformation
B. Basal body temperature rise
C. Luteal phase support
D. Ultrasound monitoring
Ultrasound monitoring
Rationale: Ultrasound monitoring assesses follicular development and ovulation, but it is not affected by progesterone levels.
Q: What is the best evidence of ovulation?
A. LH surge
B. Progesterone rise
C. Pregnancy
D. Endometrial biopsy
Pregnancy
Rationale: Pregnancy is the definitive proof that ovulation has occurred and that fertilization was successful.
Q: What mid-luteal progesterone level is most indicative of conception?
A. 2 ng/mL
B. 5 ng/mL
C. 10 ng/mL
D. 15 ng/mL
10 ng/mL
Rationale: A mid-luteal serum progesterone level ≥10 ng/mL is a strong indicator of ovulation and probable conception.
Q: Which sperm parameter most directly correlates with fertilizing ability?
A. Motility
B. Count
C. Volume
D. Morphology
Morphology
Rationale: Sperm morphology—the shape and structure—best correlates with the ability to fertilize an egg.
Q: Which ovarian reserve test can be performed on any day of the menstrual cycle?
A. FSH
B. Estradiol
C. Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH)
D. LH
Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH)
Rationale: AMH levels remain stable and can be measured on any cycle day, making it an ideal test for ovarian reserve.
Q: Which antibody titer, when elevated, indicates tubal disease?
A. Rubella IgG
B. Hepatitis B surface antibody
C. Chlamydia trachomatis antibody
D. Toxoplasma antibody
Chlamydia trachomatis antibody
Rationale: Elevated Chlamydia antibodies are associated with previous infection, which can cause tubal damage and infertility.
Q: What is the best time in the menstrual cycle to perform a hysterosalpingogram (HSG)?
A. Day 1–2
B. Day 6–8
C. After ovulation
D. One week before menstruation
Day 6–8
Rationale: HSG is best done during the early proliferative phase (Day 6–8), when the endometrium is thin and there’s no risk of disturbing an early pregnancy.
Q: Interpret this hysterosalpingogram: contrast fills the uterus and flows freely through both fallopian tubes into the peritoneal cavity.
A. Patent bilateral fallopian tubes
B. Blocked proximal fallopian tubes
C. Blocked distal fallopian tubes
D. Normal ampullary fold
Patent bilateral fallopian tubes
Rationale: Free spillage of contrast bilaterally into the peritoneal cavity confirms tubal patency.
Q: Ovulation-inducing agent that competes with estrogen receptors?
A. Letrozole
B. Clomiphene citrate
C. GnRH
D. hCG
Clomiphene citrate
Rationale: Clomiphene citrate acts as an estrogen receptor antagonist, especially in the hypothalamus, promoting gonadotropin release.
Q: Which ovulation agent inhibits estrogen production, resulting in an increase in FSH levels?
A. Clomiphene citrate
B. GnRH
C. Letrozole
D. hCG
Letrozole
Rationale: Letrozole is an aromatase inhibitor that suppresses estrogen synthesis, thereby enhancing FSH release and follicular development.
Q: A 29-year-old nulligravid woman with a history of endometriosis has been trying to conceive for 7 months. Her partner is 45. What is the best advice?
A. Wait until 12 months of trying
B. Continue trying for 6 more months
C. Start fertility work-up as soon as possible
D. Start ovulation induction immediately
Start fertility work-up as soon as possible
Rationale: Endometriosis is a known cause of infertility, so couples do not need to wait 12 months to start a work-up.
Q: What is the usual fecundability rate for a normal couple?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
20%
Rationale: Fecundability refers to the monthly probability of conception, which is around 20% in normal couples.
Q: What is the most common cause of infertility?
A. Tubal disorders
B. Male factors
C. Ovulatory disorders
D. Endometriosis
Ovulatory disorders
Rationale: Ovulatory disorders account for the largest percentage (27%) of infertility cases, especially in women with PCOS.
Q: What is the best time to have sexual intercourse after a positive LH kit?
A. Same day only
B. Day before LH surge
C. The day of LH surge and the next day
D. 3 days after LH surge
The day of LH surge and the next day
Rationale: LH kits predict ovulation, which typically follows within 24–36 hours; these two days are the most fertile.
Q: When is the best time to perform an endometrial biopsy?
A. Day 7
B. Day 14
C. Day 21
D. Day 28
Day 21
Rationale: An endometrial biopsy is done on Day 21, during the luteal phase, to assess if secretory changes occurred—indicating ovulation.
Q: What is the expected histologic finding in the endometrium if a woman has ovulated?
A. Proliferative endometrium
B. Secretory endometrium
C. Atrophic endometrium
D. Non-specific endometritis
Secretory endometrium
Rationale: Secretory changes in the endometrium indicate progesterone influence and successful ovulation.
Q: Which of the following is NOT an indication for ovarian reserve testing?
A. Age >35
B. History of chemotherapy
C. Poor ovarian response to stimulation
D. History of heavy menstrual bleeding
History of heavy menstrual bleeding
Rationale: Ovarian reserve tests are indicated in women with age-related decline, prior ovarian surgery, or poor stimulation response, not heavy bleeding.
Q: A 35-year-old male has the following semen analysis: Sperm count = 39M, morphology = 1%, motility = 40%, volume = 1.5 mL. What is the interpretation?
A. Normal semen analysis
B. Low motility
C. Low volume
D. Low morphology (normal forms)
Low morphology (normal forms)
Rationale: A normal morphology threshold is usually ≥4%. 1% is low, which impacts fertilization potential despite normal count/motility.
Q: A 32-year-old with primary infertility, pelvic pain, nodular cul-de-sac, fixed retroverted uterus, and an 8×5 cm cystic adnexal mass. What is the most likely cause of infertility?
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. PCOS
C. Endometriosis
D. Tubal obstruction
Endometriosis
Rationale: This presentation is classic for endometriosis, which causes infertility due to anatomical distortion and inflammation affecting tubal/ovarian function.
Q: A 30-year-old G1P0 woman with PCOS, irregular menses, and poor response to past fertility treatments is being evaluated for secondary infertility. What detail in her history warrants an ovarian reserve test?
A. Age over 35
B. Irregular menses
C. History of curettage
D. Poor response to fertility treatment
Poor response to fertility treatment
Rationale: A poor ovarian response despite previous fertility treatments is a key indication to assess ovarian reserve.
Q: A 40-year-old couple with primary infertility for 10 years. Woman’s HSG shows bilateral tubal blockage; semen analysis shows 2 million sperm, 1% normal forms. What is the best management?
A. IUI
B. Ovulation induction
C. IVF
D. Expectant management
IVF
Rationale: In vitro fertilization (IVF) is indicated when there is bilateral tubal block and severe male factor infertility.
Q: Mrs. Cruz shows you a basal body temperature (BBT) chart with a monophasic pattern. What does this indicate?
A. Ovulation occurred
B. Luteal defect
C. Estrogen deficiency
D. Anovulation
Anovulation
Rationale: A monophasic BBT chart lacks the post-ovulatory temperature rise, suggesting that ovulation did not occur.
Q: A 25-year-old has a transvaginal ultrasound on Day 21. Which finding suggests ovulation has occurred?
A. Multiple small follicles
B. Thin endometrium
C. Corpus luteum
D. Dominant follicle
Corpus luteum
Rationale: Presence of a corpus luteum confirms that ovulation has occurred during that menstrual cycle.
Q: A 24-year-old cancer survivor treated with chemotherapy at age 18 is concerned about fertility. What is the best test to assess her chances of getting pregnant?
A. Endometrial biopsy
B. FSH on Day 3
C. Ovarian reserve test (e.g., AMH)
D. LH surge monitoring
Ovarian reserve test (e.g., AMH)
Rationale: Ovarian reserve testing, especially AMH levels, assesses remaining follicle pool, crucial for post-chemotherapy fertility assessment.