Gynecology Flashcards

1
Q

1) Conception, Implantation, Placentation

  • Where does fertilization occur?
  • What is 16 cell stage called?
  • What happens during placentation?
A

-Fallopian tube

-Morula

  • Trophoblasts create placental disc and chorionic membranes
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2
Q

2) Gyn evaluation

  • Goal of colpopscopy?
  • Pap smear?
  • Why more white with acetic acid?
A
  • Distinguish normal from abnormal appearing tissue
  • Look for changes in the cells that show cancerous or precancerous lesions
  • Higher nuclear density (biopsy)
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3
Q

2) Bimanual examination:

A
  • Size, nature of uterus, adnexal masses
  • Mobility and tenderness
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4
Q

2) Obstetric evaluation

  • First visit?
  • and then?
  • Naegele´s rule?
A
  • Bw week 6 and 8
  • Until w28: every 4th
  • Until w35: every 2nd
  • Until birth: weekly
  • To calculate due date:
    First day of last mens - 3 months + 7 days (add 1 year)
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5
Q

2) Obstetric evaluation

  • Gravidity (G)?
  • Parity?
  • Low levels HCG?
  • High levels HCG?
  • Which 3 tests is important to perform?
A
  • Total number of pregnancies
  • TPAL
    T: term delivered
    P: premature delivered
    A: abortions #
    L: Living children
  • Ectopic pregnancy, abortion, inaccurate dates
  • Multiple gestation, molar pregnancy, trisomy 21, inaccurate dates
  • Urinalysis, urine culture and dental examination
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6
Q

3) Endocrinology

  • List hormones
A
  • hCG
  • Estrogen
  • Progesterone
  • hPL
  • Prolactin
  • Oxytocin
  • Relaxin
  • Cortisol
  • Thyroid - TSH, T4
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7
Q

6) Changes in pregnancy

  • Which three physiological changes are seen in the circulatory system?
A
  • Increased metabolic demands
  • Expansion of vascular channels
  • Increase in steroid hormones
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8
Q

6) Changes in pregnancy

  • Which three factors are involved when there are changes seen in the respiratory system?
A
  • The mechanical effect of the enlarging uterus
  • The increased total body O2 consumption
  • The respiratory stimulant effects of progesterone
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9
Q

8) HTN

  • Diagnosis og HTN
  • How do we classify it?
A
  • 140/90 mmHg
  • Preexisting or gestational
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10
Q

8) HTN

  • What is transient HTN?
  • What is essential HTN?
A
  • Transient: >140/90 occurring before 20 weeks of gestation, non-sustained with no symptoms
  • Essential: >140/90 occurring before 20 weeks of gestation, and persisting 7 weeks postpartum
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11
Q

8) HTN

  • Essential HTN can lead to?
  • Treatment of essential HTN?
A
  • Gestational HTN, abruptio placenta, IUGR, intrauterine fetal demise
  • alpha-methyldopa, beta-blockers or Ca-channel blockers
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12
Q

8) HTN

  • What is gestational HTN?
  • What is preeclampsia?
A
  • Gestational: >140/90 developing after 20 weeks of gestation and return to normal after 12 weeks postpartum

(tx. same as essential)

  • Preeclampsia: developing after 20 weeks.

Mild: >140/90 mmHg + proteinuria (300mg/day)

Severe: >140/90 mmHg + proteinuria >5g/day

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13
Q

8) HTN

What is eclampsia?

A

Unexplained general seizures in a woman with preeclampsia

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14
Q

8) HTN

Risk factors for preeclampsia?

A
  • Nulliparity
  • Multifetal pregnancy
  • Family history
  • First conception with a new partner
  • <18 or >35
  • DM
  • Obesity
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15
Q

8) HTN

  • Triad of preeclampsia?
  • Other symptoms?
A

1) New onset HTN
2) Proteinuria
3) Edema (non-dependent)

  • Headache
  • Petechiae and other signs of coagulopathy
  • Nausea, vomiting
    Vasospasm:
  • Visual disturbance
  • RUQ pain (due to liver)
  • Oliguria w/ proteinuria
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16
Q

8) HTN

  • Tx other than delivery?
A
  • g. age >37 weeks: Magnesium sulfate and deliver
  • g. age <37 weeks: risk/benefit. If premature but can be delivered give CS, magnesium and b-blocker/ca-ch. bl.
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17
Q

8) HTN

  • What is HELLP syndrome?
  • Stand for?
  • Most common presenting sign?
A
  • A variant of severe preeclampsia w/ high mortality
    (HTN may be absent)
  • Hemolysis, elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets
  • Epigatric/RUQ pain
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18
Q

8) HTN

Symptoms of HELLP

A
  • Blurry vision
  • Chest pain
  • Headache, fatigue
  • Nausea
  • Quiet weight gain and swelling
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19
Q

8) HTN

What is the Mississippi classification?

A

LDH > 600 U/L +
ASAT and/or ALAT > 40 U/L +

Class I: platelets < 50.000
Class II: 50.000-100.000
Class III: 100.000-150.000

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20
Q

9) Pregnancy sy

Which 3 categories do we divide into?

A

1) Presumptive
2) Probable
3) Definite

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21
Q

9)

What are presumtive signs associated with primarily?

What presumptive signs do we have?

A
  • Primarily those associated with skin and mucous membrane changes
  • Discoloration and cyanosis of the vulva, vagina and cervix
  • Pigmentation of the skin and abodmen
  • Nausea, vomiting
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22
Q

What is chadwick´s sign?

A

Bluish discoloration of the cervix and the vagina due to pelvic engorgement (6th week)

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23
Q

What are probable signs of pregnancy?

A
  • Uterine enlargement
  • Breast engorgement
  • Piscacek sign
  • Goodell´s sign
  • Hegar´s sign
  • Positive home urine pregnancy test
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24
Q

What is Piscacek sign?

A

Soft prominence over the site of implantation

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25
Q

What is Goodell´s sign?

A

Softening of the cervix (4-6 weeks)

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26
Q

What is Hegar´s sign?

A

Softening of the cervical isthmus (6-8 weeks)

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27
Q

What are definite signs of pregnancy?

A

Detection of fetal heart beat

Detection of movement

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28
Q

Late signs and symptoms in pregnancy?

A

Difficulty sleeping
IVC sy.
Galactorrhea
Edema
Fetal movement
Constipation
Weight gain
Tachypnea

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29
Q

When can you usually feel fetal movement?

A

After 18-20 weeks

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30
Q

What is normal weight gain?

A

9-14 kg

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31
Q

How do you determine gestational age with US?

A

Measure crown-rump length between 6-11th week

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32
Q

Triple marker screen test:

Down syndrome

A

afp: low
Estriol: low
hCG: high

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33
Q

Triple marker screen test:

Edwards sy.

A

afp: low
Estriol: low
hCG: low

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34
Q

Triple marker screen test:

NT defect

A

afp: high
Estriol: N/A
hCG: N/A

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35
Q

What does Nuchal tranlucency test measure?

A

Thickness of nuchal fold

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36
Q

Gestational diabetes screening?
GBS screening?

A

24-28 weeks
35-37 weeks

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37
Q

Which classification is used for GDM?

A

White classification

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38
Q

When is the GDM screening?

A

24-28 weeks

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39
Q

What is step 1 in GDM testing?

What is abnormal?

A
  • 50 g, 1hr oral glucose challenge test OGCT
  • > 7.2-7.8 mmol/L
    if higher than 11.1 mmol/L, OGTT not necessary
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40
Q

What is step 2 in GDM testing?

A

Measure fasting first, then:
3h, 100g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)

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41
Q

When is the patient diagnosed w GDM?

A

> = 2 abnormal values:

Fasting >= 5.3 mmol/L
1h >= 10 mmol/L
2h >= 8.6 mmol/L
3h >= 7.8 mmol/L

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42
Q

Poorly controlled preexisting diabetes during organogenesis may lead to?

Poorly controlled diabetes later in pregnancy may lead to?

A
  • congenital malformations, spontaneous abortion
  • fetal macrosomia, preeclampsia, spontaneous abortion, shoulder dystocia, arrested labor
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43
Q

After kidney transplant which condittions must be present?

A

1) Kidney has been in place for two years
2) Normal renal function
3) No episodes of rejection
4) Normal BP

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44
Q

What risks are related to UTI or asymptomatic bacteriuria?

A

Increases risk of preterm labor
Premature rupture of membranes

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45
Q

Tx for asymptomatic baceriuria?

A

Oral nitrofurantoin

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46
Q

Tx UTI pregnancy?

A

Cephalexin
Nitrofurantoin
TMP/SMX (avoid: 1st trim/3rd trim)

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47
Q

What is hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

persisten nausea and vomiting in pregnancy associated w/ ketosis and loss of >5% pre-pregnancy body weight

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48
Q

Gastrointestinal disorders in pregnancy?

A
  • Hyperemesis gravidarum
  • GERD
  • Mendelson syndrome
  • IBD
  • Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
49
Q

Definition of anemia in pregnancy

A

Hb <10 g/dl and Hct <30%

50
Q

What does folate deficiency lead to?

A

NT defect

51
Q

What is Virchows triad?

A

Stasis
Endothelial injury
Hypercoagulability

52
Q

Etiologies of spontaneous abortion

A

Chromosomal abnormalities
Immunological rejection
Infections - TORCH
DM, HT, Renal, hypothyr., SLE
Lifestyle
Uterine abnormalities e.g adhesions, fibroids

53
Q

Definitions:

Abortion
Fetal demise
Preterm delivery

A
  • death of fetus before week 24
  • death of fetus after week 24
  • passage of live fetus bw 24-37 weeks
54
Q

Types of abortion

A

Threatened
Inevitable
Complete
Incomplete
Missed

55
Q

Fetal complications from preterm birth?

A

Low birth weight
IRDS
Necrotizing enterocolitis
intraventricular hemorrhage
sepsis

56
Q

Definition of IUGR?

A

When the birth weight of a newborn is <10th percentile for a given gestational age, due to a pathological process

57
Q

What types of IUGR?

A

Symmetrical and asymmetrical

58
Q

Typical appearance in IUGR?

A

-Big head, long nails, scaphoid abdomen
- Thin thighs, decreased fold thickness
- Wide skull sutures, big fontanelles, shortened crown-heel lenght
- Brain and heart large in proprtion to weight

59
Q

Which parameter is especially important in IUGR?

A

Abdominal circumference

60
Q

What is 1st stage of labor?

A

From onset of delivery to full dilation of cervix (10 cm)

contractions get progressively more intense and closer together

Latent phase: irregular. Every 5-30´, 60-90 sec, cervix becomes 4 cm

Active phase: Regular. Every 2-3´, 45 sec

50 mmHg

61
Q

What is 2nd stage of labor?

Three P´s?

A

“pushing stage”
Every 3´, 45 sec, 75 mmHg

Influencing factors:
Power
Passenger
Passage

62
Q

Cardinal movements of labor?

A

Descent
Engagement
Flexion
Internal rotation
Extension
Restitution
Expulsion

63
Q

What is stage 3 of labor? Duration?

Stage 4?

A

Delivery of placenta, 5-30´

Adaption to blood loss
Start of uterine involution

64
Q

What are active phase disorders?

A

1) Protraction disorders
2) Arrest disorders

65
Q

What is active phase arrest? And why?

A

No dilation for 2hrs
Due to inadequate uterine contractions

66
Q

What are second stage disorders?

A

Disproportion fetus-pelvis
Reduced pushing efforts

67
Q

Causes of uterine dysfunction?

A

Epidural
Chorioamnionitis
Primigravida
Myomas
Nervousness

68
Q

What is hypotonic uterine dysfunction?
Tx?

A

Contraction pressure is insufficient

Amniotomy
Oxytocin
Assisted vaginal delivery
C-section

69
Q

Hypertonic contractions types?

Treatment?

A

1) colicky uterus w/ uncoordinated contractions
2) Hyperactive lower segment

Analgesics
Nifedipine (tocolytic)
Mobilize patient

70
Q

What is normal fetal position?

A

longitudinal cephalic, vertex, occipitoanterior

71
Q

Shoulder dystocia maneuvers?

A

McRoberts
Rubin
Wood screw
Gunn-Zavanellie

72
Q

Definition of labor

A

Progressive cervical effacement and dilation, resulting from regular uterine contractions that occur at least every 3 minutes and last 30-60 second

73
Q

When is the highest chance for thromboembolism?

A

After 6 weeks

74
Q

Regional anesthesia?

A

Lumbar epidural
Spinal injection

75
Q

Local anesthesia?

A

Pudendal block
Paracervical block

76
Q

3 types of breech?

A

Frank breech
Incomplete breech/footling
Complete breech

77
Q

What is malpresentation of the fetus?

A

Breech, face, and brow presentation

78
Q

Diagnostic tests for PROM?

A

Nitrazine paper test
Fern test
AmniSure test

79
Q

What is placenta accreta/ increta, and percreta?

A

Abnormal attachement of the placenta through the uterine myometrium

accreta - superficial
increta - extend into myometrium
percreta - extend through uterine serosa

80
Q

Abnormalities of twinning process

A
  • Interplacental vascular anastomosis
  • Twin-twin transfusion syndrome
  • Fetal malformations
  • Umbilical cord abnormalities
  • Retained dead fetus syndrome
81
Q

Most common risk for placental abruption?

A

Maternal HTN

82
Q

Most common cause of DIC in pregnancy?

A

Placental abruption

83
Q

Functions of amniotic fluid:

A

1) space for movement
2) permits fetal swallowing
3) Guards against cord compression
4) Trauma protection

84
Q

Polyhydramnios etiologies

A

Fetal malformation (especially those w swallow dysfunction)
Maternal DM
Multiple gestation
Fetal disorders
Idiopathic

85
Q

Oligohydramnios etiologies

A

Uteroplacental deficiency
Drugs
Post-term preg
PROM
Fetal malformations (especially those w decreased urine output)
Fetal groth restriction
Idiopathic

86
Q

Causes of PPH

A

Uterine atony
Laceration
Retained placenta
DIC

(4T´s: tone, trauma, tissue, thrombin)

87
Q

TORCHeS?

A

Toxoplasmosis
Others (Listeria, HBV, Coxackie, VZV, HIV, Parvo)
Rubella
CMV
HSV
Syphilis

88
Q

Congenital rubella syndrome

A

IUGR
Microcephaly
Meningoencephalitis
Cataracts
Cardiac defects
Hearing loss
Retinopathy
Bone radiolucency

89
Q

CMV symptoms neonate

A

IUGR
Petechial rash
Periventricular calcification
Sensorineural hearing loss

90
Q

Viral infections

A

Rubella
CMV
VZV
HSV
HBV
HIV
Zika

91
Q

What does cardiotocography do?

A

Monitor fetal wellbeing and allow early detection of fetal distress

92
Q

Non invasive testing in prenatal genetic counsling

A

US
MRI
Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT)
Triple/quad biochemical screening

93
Q

Invasive testing in prenatal genetic counsling

A

Amniocentesis
Chorionic villous sampling
Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling
Fetal tissue sampling

94
Q

4 questions in genetic counsling?

A

What is the disease in question?
How severe is it?
How is it inherited?
How can it be prevented?

95
Q

How to confirm an intrauterine pregnancy?

A

Presence of a yolk sac

96
Q

Pathological puerperium
-> psychological

A

Postpartum blues
Postpartum depression
Postpartum psychosis

97
Q

Pathological puerperium
-> GI/urinary

A

Diastasis recti
Pelvic atrophy
Hemorrhoids
Urinary retention

98
Q

What is the most common puerperal infection and what are the pathogens?

A

Endometritis
E. Coli, Proteus, Klebsiella

99
Q

Puerpural sepsis tx.?

A

Clindamycin and piperacillin i.v

100
Q

Baby at birth:
Weight
Length
HC
AC

A

2500-4290 g
44-54 cm
32-38 cm
17-24 cm

101
Q

APGAR score + what gives top score?

A

Appearance - Pink
Pulse >100 bpm
Grimace - Cries and pulls away
Activity - Active movement
Respiration - Strong cry

102
Q

Reasons for 2ndary amenorrhea?

A

Pregnancy
Hypothyrodism
Antidopamine meds
Prolactinoma

Hypothalamus: anorexia, stress, severe chronic disease…

103
Q

PCOS

A

mild obesity
chronic anovulation
signs of androgen excess

104
Q

Barrier and chemical contraceptives

A

Spermacides
Condoms
Diaphragm
Vasectomy
Tubal ligation

105
Q

Inflammatory disorders of vulva and vagina

A

Bacterial vaginosis
Trichomoniasis
Vulvovaginal candidiasis

106
Q

syphilis stage 2

A

Maculopapular rash
Condyloma lata

107
Q

Lichen planus P´s

A

Pruritic
Purple
Polygonal planar papules and plaques
+ Wickham striae

108
Q

Benign lesions of vulva

A

Vitiligo
Lichen planus
Lichen simplex
Vuvlovaginal atrophy
Seborrheic dermatitis
Psoriasis
Pigmented lesions - dd melanoma
Acanthosis nigricans
Ulcerations and fissures

Epidermal cyst
Vulvar vestibular papillomatosis
Fordyce spots
Fox-fordyce disease

109
Q

Benign lesions of the vagina

A

Epithelial changes
ulcerations and fistulas
Cystic masses
- Gartner duct cysts
- Bartholin cyst

110
Q

Vulvar precanc. conditions

A

Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia
Pagets disease

111
Q

Vulvar cancer staging

A

FIGO

0: in situ
Ia: <2cm
Ib: >2cm
II: Extend to adjacent perineum i.e urethra, vagina, anus
III: LN involvement inguinal + femoral
IVa: Rectum/bladder
IVb: Distant mets incl. Pelvic LN

112
Q

Malignant transformation of vagina

A

Vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia
Vaginal cancer

113
Q

Benign disease of the uterus

A

Uterine fibroids - leiomyomas
Endometrial polyps
Cervical polyps
Nabothian cysts

114
Q

Ovarian tumors of epithelial origin

A

Serous
Mucinous
Endometroid
Clear cell

115
Q

Ovarian tumors of germ cell origin

A

Dysgerminomas
Immature teratomas

116
Q

Ovarian tumors of gonadostromal origin

A

Granulosa cell tumors
Thecomas
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors

117
Q

Common sites for endometriotic implants?

A

Ovaries (most common)
Douglas pouch
Fallopian tube
Bladder
Cervix
Peritoneum
Extrapelvic organs

118
Q
A