Haem - step 2 Flashcards

(63 cards)

1
Q

apart from vWF what other factor is abnormal in von willebrands disease

A

factor VIII

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2
Q

management of follicular lymphoma

A

conservative with close follow-up

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3
Q

management of CLL

A

is asymptomatic - watch and wait
if asymptomatic - bruton tyrosine kinase inhibitors

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4
Q

deficiency of what co-factor is found in vW disease

A

ristocetin

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5
Q

1st line treatment for symptomatiic von willebrands

A

desmopressin (promotes release of vW from endothelial cells)

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6
Q

risk factors for AML

A

male sex
age > 60yrs
prior chemotherapy or radiotherapy
down syndrome
smoking

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7
Q

antidote for tissue plasminogen actiavtor (TPa) toxicity

A

aminocaproic acid
tranexamic acid
FFP

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8
Q

if someone develops heparin induced thromocytopenia, what alternative is often used

A

direct throbin inhibitor - Argatroban

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9
Q

antidote for DOAC

A

andexanet alfa for factor Xa inhibitor
idacrizumab for dabigatran

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10
Q

platelet count levels indicative of platelet replacement

A

plt < 10,000 if not bleeding
plt < 20,000 if bleeding
plt < 50,000 prior to procedure

1 bag of plt increases plt by 6000

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11
Q

inheritance of haemophillia

A

haemophillia A - factor VIII deficiency (most common) X linked recessive

haemophillia B - factor IX deficiency - x linked recessive

haemophillia C - factor XI deficiency - autosomal recessive. most common in jews.

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12
Q

best initial and most accurate tests for haemophillia

A

best initial: mixing study (mix patients plasma with normal plasma which will correct deficiency).

  • if it doesnt correct then its an autoimmune/accquired haemophilia due to the presence of antibodies that will target the normal plasma factors

most accurate: specific factor assays (VII)

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13
Q

what is the blood product of choice if severe bleeding in haemophilia and the specific factor is not available

A

cryoprecipitate
more concentrated source of factor VIII and fibronectin compared to FFP

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14
Q

what is Heyde syndrome

A

multi-system disorder characterised by aortic stenosis, GI bleeding and acquired von willebrands disease

vWd occurs from the increased circulatory shear forces and subsequent cleavage and loss of vW factor

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15
Q

what medication can worsen von willebrands

A

aspirin

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16
Q

what type of von willebrands doesnt respond to desmopressin and how is it treated

A

type 2 (qualitative defects in vW factor)

treat with replacement therapy of vW factor and factor VIII

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17
Q

inheritance pattern of von willebrands disease

A

type 1 and 2 - autosomal dominant
type 3 - autosomal recessive

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18
Q

how can liver cirrhosis can a hypercoaguable state

A

liver is responsible for the synthesis of protein C and S
protein C and S deficiency = hypercoaguable

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19
Q

APC resistance test

A

activated protein C resistance test

used for diagnosing factor V leiden

point mutation in factor V renders it resistant to being activated/broken down by activated protein C

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20
Q

patient is started on dalteparin due to immobility as an inpatient. 5 days later develops skin necrosis at the site of infusion and has now a sore swollen calf. ?diagnosis ?treatment

A

heparin induced thrombocytopenia II
(HIT type 2)

autoimmune reaction against platelet factor 4 antibody against heparin-prostaglandin 4 antigen
symptoms occur 5-10 days after starting heparin

rarely causes bleeding. usually causes PE/DVT’s

manage with discontinuing heparin and start a non-heparin anticoagulant

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21
Q

best initial and most accurate tests for heparin induced thromboytopenia

A

best initial: evidence of HIT platelet factor 4 antibody

accurate: functional assay with serotonin release assay

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22
Q

APTT and PT in antiphospholipid syndrome

A

normal PT but paradoxical prolonged PTT

PTT doesnt correct with mixing study due to presence of antibodies

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23
Q

heparin induced thrombocytopenia type I vs type II presentation

A

type I occurs 1-2 days after starting heparin, smaller decrease in plt, usually mild

type II occurs 5-10 days after starting, more profound drop in plt, can cause skin necrosis and thrombosis. due to platelet factor 4 antibody against heparin prostaglandin 4

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24
Q

liver disease and DIC have similar lab values. how can it be differentiated?

A

DIC will have a low factor VIII level

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25
mainstay of treatment for DIC
plasma exchange steroid sand rituximab can be added to decreased microthrombus formation platelets are contraindicated as coagulation factors will use up platelets worsening the condition
26
PT, APTT, fibrinogen, Plt, haptoglobin and LDH in HUS and TTP
normal PT, APTT and fibrinogen low platelets LDH elevated haptoglobin decreased
27
prolonged PT, APTT, normal platelets, bleeding time and fibrinogen ?diagnosis
vitamin K deficiency
28
what additional tests should be carried out in patients with ITP
hepatitis B and C HIV h.pylori direct antiglobulin test
29
when is treatment indicated in ITP
Plt <30,000 or clinically significant bleeding 1st line: steroids or IVIG if this fails, consider anti-D (Rh) immunoglobulin, rituximab, thrombopoeitin (TPO) receptor agonists (plt >30,000 and asymptomatic dont require tx)
30
best next step if patient is experiencing diarrhoea with iron replacement for iron deficiency anaemia
alternate days of iron replacement
31
concomittant use of what medication can affect iron supplement absorption
antacids
32
TIBC iron deficiency vs anaemia chronic disease
low in chronic disease elevated in Fe deficiency
33
microcytic anaemia with an elevated serum iron
sideroblastic anaemia also increased ferritin and low/normal TIBC
34
what is the Mentzer index
used to differentiate between iron deficiency anaemia and thalassaemia MCV/RBC index < 13 = thalassaemia index > 13 = iron deficiency anaemia
35
features of fanconi anaemia on examination
aplastic anaemia cafe au lait spots short stature radial/thumb hypoplasia/aplasia
36
patient from eastern europe is started on iron supplementation for iron deficiency anaemia but doesnt repsond ?diagnosis
beta thalassaemia minor
37
anaemia with bone marrow showing hypocellularity replaced by fat
aplastic anaemia
38
most accurate test for diagnosing G6PD deficiency
G6PD levels 1-2 months after acute attack as levels are usually normal during acute attack
39
most accurate test for paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
CD55/CD59 absence via flow cytometry
40
best initial treatment for paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
steroids allogenic bone marrow transplant is curative 2nd line: eculizumab - if receiving this then require n.meningitis vaccine
41
common complication of hereditary spherocytosis
gallstones
42
most accurate diagnostic test for hereditary spherocytosis
eosin-5 maleimide flow cytometry (replaced osmotic fragility test) and acidified glycerol lysis test
43
treatment for hereditary spherocytosis
splenectomy + long term folic acid replacement
44
treatment for cold and warm haemolytic anaemia
mild AIHA: no treatment cold: - severe = avoid exposure to cold + rituximab (anti-CD20) warm: - steroids - recurrent = splenectomy - severe = IVIG
45
what test can be carried out to determine whether B12 / folate deficiency is dietary or malabsorption
schillings test measures absorption of cobalamin through ingestion of radiolabeled cobalamin with and within intrinsic factor
46
signs/sympotms of acute intermittent porphyria
abdominal pain port wine coloured urine polyneuropathy psychiatric issues
47
what can exacerbate acute intermittent porphyria attacks
alcohol starvation drugs that induce CYP450
48
signs/sympotms of porphyria cutaneous tarda
skin blistering, photosensitivity tea coloured urine hyperpigmentation exacerbated by alcohol
49
management of acute intermittent prophyria vs porphyria cutanea tards
AIP: haem + glucose PCT: phlebotomy, sun avoidance and antmalarials (hydroxychloroquine)
50
EPO and haematocrit finding in polycythaemia vera
EPO reduced haematocrit >60%
51
difference in labs between polycythaemia vera vs relative polycythaemia
relative polycythaemia will have normal/raised EPO and 02 low PCV will have low EPO and raised 02
52
treatment for polycythaemia vera
phlebotomy + aspirin provide symptom relief and prevent thrombosis hydroxyurea reduces cell counts hydroxyurea resistant can be treated with JAK inhibitor - ruxolitinib
53
most common cause of megaloblastic anaemia in a patient with alcohol overuse
folate deficiency no hypersegemented neutrophils on bone marrow
54
felty syndrome
neutropenia + splenomegaly + rheumatoid arthritis
55
abx for neutropenic sepsis
antipseudomonal betalactam i.e. cefepime, tazobactam, meropenem, imipenem + vanc if risk of MSRA (indwelling catheters, pneumonia, cutaneous abscess)
56
neutropenic septic patient, started on IV abx but fever has persisted for 72 hours. next step?
add antifungal agent i.e. amphotericin B
57
CSF showing eosinophilli ?cause
drug reaction or coccodioidomycosis infection
58
haematuria + eosinophillia ?cause
schistosomiasis
59
on electrophoresis, HbS of what percentage indicates sickle cell disease vs trait
if HbS is <50% then likely sickle trait and will be asymptomatic
60
how to differentiate between ITP and TTP on clinical presentation
both will present with thrombocytopenia and petechiae but TTP wil have renal failure, fever and neurological decline also TTP will also have schistocytes on smear
61
treatment for haemolytic disease of newborn due to Rh incompatability
exchange transfusion with match Rh negative blood
62
2nd line therapy for ITP if steroids fail to improve symptoms/plt count
rituximab or thrombopoetin agonists i.e. romiplostim
63
patient presents with peripheral neuropathy, fatigue, and hyperpigmentation. Examination shows splenomegaly. labs show elevated random glucose, elevated Ca and elevated TSH. ?diagnosis ?investigation
POEMS syndrome polyneuropathy (hands, feet) organomegaly endocrinopathy (diabetes, thyroid, adrenal insufficiency) monoclonal protein skin changes protein electrophoresis to confirm presence of monoclonal protein