Haematological changes in systemic disease Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

What can be the first presentation of cancer?

A

Anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 4 main types of anemia associated with cancer/systemic disease?

A
  • Iron deficiency anemia - Anaemia of chronic disease - Leucoerythroblastic anaemia - Haemolytic anaemias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What two types of cancer can also cause secondary polycythemia?

A

Renal cell cancer and liver cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the most common cause of Fe deficiency anaemia?

A

Occult blood loss e.g. GI cancers, urinary tract cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the laboratory findings for Fe deficiency anaemia?

A
  • Reduced ferritin - Transferrin saturation - Low Hb - Low MCV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is leuco-erythroblastic anemia?

A

Red cell and white cell precursor anaemia. Causes a variable degree of anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What the morphological features of leuco-erythroblastic anaemia on a blood film?

A
  • Tear drop red blood cells (aniso and poikilocytosis)
  • Nucleated RBCs
  • Immature myeloid cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does this blood film show?

A

Leuco-erythroblastic anaemia

  • tear drop poikilocytes
  • Nucleated red blood cells
  • myelocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 3 main causes of bone marrow infiltration that causes a leucoerythroblastic film?

A
  • Cancer - haemopoietic e.g leukemia/lymphoma/myeloma. Or non-haempoitetic e.g. breast/bronchus/prostate
  • severe infection e.g. miliary TB, severe fungal infection
  • myleofibrosis - massive splenomegaly, dry tap on BM aspirate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the most common distinguishing features of haemolysis? (any aetiology)

A
  • anaemia - though may be compensated
  • reticulocytosis
  • raised bilirubin (unconjugated)
  • raised LDH - intracellular enzyme
  • Reduced haptoglobins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two pathogenic groups of haemolytic anaemias?

A
  • Inherited - defects of the red cell
  • Acquired - defects of the environment in which the red cell finds itself. Can be immune or non-immune
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What test can distinguish between immune and non-immune types of acquired haemolytic anaemias?

A

Direct Antiglobulin (DAT or Coombs test)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. What are findings on haematological studies are associated with auto-immune haemolysis?
  2. What can be the underlying cause of auto-immune haemoloysis?
A
  1. Anaemia, reticulocytosis, raised unconjugated bilirubin, raised LDH, Positive DAT
  2. Idiopathic or underlying lymphoma/CLL/SLE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the two main causes of acquired haemolytic anaemia/non-immune/DAT negative?

A
  • Infection - malaria
  • Micro-angiopathic Haemolytic anaemia (MAHA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. What are the main findings in blood studies for MAHA?
  2. What conditions are MAHA associated with?
A
  1. Red cell fragments, low platelets, DIC/bleeding
  2. Underlying adenocarcinoma and Haemolytic Uremic syndrome (E.coli infection)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does this blood film show?

A

MAHA - Micro-angio-pathic haemolytic anaemia

  • red cell fragments
  • thrombocytopenia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Micro angiopathy can happen because of malignancy e.g. adenocarcinomas.

Describe the underlying mechanism

A
  • Adenocarcinoma, low grade DIC
  • Platelet consumption occurs
  • Leading to fibrin deposition and degradation
  • Red cell fragmentation occurs - microangiopat
  • Bleeding occurs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the two main causes of true polycythemia in cancer?

A

True polycythemia is raised red cell mass

  1. Secondary raised EPO appropriate/inappropriate e.g. hepatocellular cancer, bronchial cancer, renal cancer
  2. Polycythemia vera (PV) e.g. Clonal myleoproliferative disorder acquired mutations in JAK2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What types of white blood cells are there?

A
  1. Normal mature phagocytes - neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils
  2. monocytes
  3. immunocytes - T and B lymphocytes, NK cells

Immature - blasts present in a small percentage. Many immature cells are not normal

20
Q

What does this blood film show?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

  • WBC increased mature cells
21
Q

What does this blood film show?

A

Acute myeloid leukemia

  • WBC increased immature cells
22
Q

What can cause neutrophilia?

A
  • Corticosteroids
  • Underlying neoplasia
  • Tissue inflammation e.g. colitis, pancreatitis
  • myeloproliferative/leukaemic disorders
  • infection
23
Q

Most localised and systemic infections cause a neutrophilia. Which infections characteristically do not cause a neutrophilia?

A
  • Brucella
  • Typhoid
  • many viral infections
24
Q

What are the differences between

  1. Reactive neutrophilia
  2. Malignant neutrophilia?
A
  1. Reactive neutrophilia - reaction and increase in neutrophils in response to infection/inflammation. Presence bands and toxic granulation
  2. Malignant neutrophilia - neutrophilia, basophilia, plus immature cells myleocytes, and splenomegaly. This suggests a myleoproliferative (CML)

*neutroPENIA plus myeloblasts - AML - Acute Myeloid Leukemia

25
What does this show?
Reactive neutrophilia * Nuclear polymorphs * neutrophilia * toxic granulation
26
What does this blood film show?
Chronic Myeloid Leukemia * Neutrophilia * Basophilia * Immature cells such as myleocytes * splenomegaly
27
What can cause a reactive eosinophilia?
* Parasitic infection * Allergic diseases e.g. asthma, rheumatoid * Underlying neoplasms esp. Hodgkin's, T-cell NHL * Drugs - reaction erythema multiforme
28
What are the underlying cause of Chronic Eosinophilic leukemia?
Eosinophils form part of the 'clone'. FIP1L1-PDGFRa fusion gene
29
What conditions/chronic infections/ haematological disorders can moncytosis be seen?
* TB, Brucella, typhoid * Viral, CMV, Varicella zoster * Sarcoidosis * Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (MDS)
30
What in the following categories causes an elevated neutropil count? 1. Infection 2. Inflammation 3. Neoplasia 4. Myeloproliferative
1. Bacterial infections 2. Auto-immune and Tissue necrosis 3. All types 4. CML
31
What in the following categories causes an elevated eosinophil count? 1. Infection 2. Inflammation 3. Neoplasia 4. Myeloproliferative
1. Parasitic infections 2. Allergic e.g. asthma, atopy, drug reactions 3. Hodgkin's and NHL 4. N/A
32
What in the following categories causes an elevated Basophil count? 1. Infection 2. Inflammation 3. Neoplasia 4. Myeloproliferative
1. Pox viruses 2. N/A 3. N/A 4. CML
33
What in the following categories causes an elevated monocyte count? 1. Infection 2. Inflammation 3. Neoplasia 4. Myeloproliferative
1. Chronic e.g. TB, Brucella 2. N/A 3. N/A 4. CMML
34
What is the difference between a secondary and primary lymphocytosis?
SECONDARY lymphocytosis - is reactive, and is a polyclonal response to an infection or chronic inflammation PRIMARY lymphocytosis - is a monoclonal lymphoid proliferation, as seen in CLL, NHL
35
What are the causes of a reactive lymphocytosis?
* EBV, CMV, Toxoplasma * Infectious hepatitis, rubella, herpes infections * Autoimmune disorders * Sarcoidosis
36
What conditions has the following lymphocytes? 1. Normal blood film 2. Infective mononucleosis 3. CLL and NHL 4. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
1. Normal blood - mature lymphocytes 2. IM - Recactive/atypical lymphocytes 3. CLL and NHL - small lymphocytes and smear cells 4. ALL - Lymphoblasts
37
1. What does this blood film show? 2. What could this be a sign of?
1. Lymphocytosis 2. Could be EBV infection or early CLL
38
What does this blood film show?
CLL - Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
39
What does this blood film show?
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia presence of lymphoblasts
40
What does flow cytometry show?
Known as immunophenotyping - flow cytometry looks at the antigens expressed on the cells. Blue - CD4 Green - CD34 Purple - CD7
41
Is EBV monoclonal or polyclonal?
Polyclonal, and B cells so amount of kappa and lambda light chains are normal, and in usual proportions
42
What are the 2 different light chains that B cells can have?
Kappa and Lambda
43
Is CLL monoclonal or polyclonal?
CLL is monoclonal. One mother B cell with the mutation will proliferate meaning only one of the light chains, either kappa or lambda will be produced. This means that one light chain is measured to be a lot higher than the other. This is usually a sign of a worse prognosis.
44
What is the diagnosis? 39 year old woman Had breast cancer over 4 years ago Presents with jaundice and hepatomegaly Hb = 87 Bilirubin = 50, conjugated (elevated) DAT negative Blood film - nucleated red blood cells
Bone marrow metastases from breast cancer
45
What is the diagnosis? ## Footnote 45 year old male 3 week history of sore throat Recent episode of shingles EBV IgG serology positive FBC: Raised lymphocytes, normal neutrophils Blood film: Reactive lymphocytes, no abnormal cells Monoclonal
Mature B cells, monoclonal CLL
46