Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

UCLMS Yr 1 Mod 1: Foundations of Health and Medical Practice > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 components of whole blood

A

Red Cells
Platelets
Plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 3 types of plasma used for blood transfusions

A

Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)
Cryoprecipitate
Plasma for fractionation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What 3 components can be collected from plasma fractionation

A

Albumin
Coagulation factors
Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 3 cellular components of blood

A

Red Cells
White Cells
Platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where are the cellular components of blood mainly produced

A

Bone Marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many ml of RBC are in a unit for blood transfusions

A

280ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What temperature are RBC stored at

A

4 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How long can RBCs be stored for

A

35 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the name of the fluid medium used to store RBCs

A

Additive fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are is the alternative name for Red Blood Cells

A

Eurythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the alternative name for platelets

A

Thrombocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How are thrombocytes obtained

A

From pooling platelets extracted from whole blood donations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many Donors = 1 Pool

A

4 Donors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is aphaeresis

A

Cell Separator machine used to obtain thrombocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What temperature are platelets stored at

A

room temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is done to prevent platelets from clumping together

A

They are agitated on a plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How long do platelets last, and why not longer

A

7 days, due to risk of bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is required and not required when transiting platelets

A

Correct blood group, no crossmatching required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where are the plasma components of the blood made

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the 3 plasma components of blood

A

clotting factors
albumin
immunoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is FFP used for

A

Good source of coagulation factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is required and not required when administering FFP

A

Same blood group, no cross-match required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How much is one unit from one donor

A

300ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what temperature is FFP stored at

A

-30 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how long can FFP be stored for

A

up to 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How long does it take to thaw FFP

A

20-30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

FFP must be given ASAP, why

A

coagulation factors degenerate over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the average dose of FFP in ml/kg

A

12-15ml/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is cryoprecipitate obtained, and why is it obtained in this way

A

by thawing plasma slowly to precipitate out the higher molecular weight proteins in the plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what temperature is FFP defrosted to obtain cryoprecipitate, and for how long

A

4-8 degrees C overnight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are 2 examples of higher molecular weight proteins in plasma

A

Fibrinogen

Factor VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are Cryoprecipitate a source for during haemorrhage

A

Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What temperature is cryoprecipitate stored at

A

-30 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How long is Cryoprecipitate stored for

A

1 Year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the standard dose of cryoprecipitate

A

10 donors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the 2 indications where cryoprecipitate should be used

A

Massive bleeding, where fibrinogen is low

Hypofibrinogenaemia (Rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the three blood groups

A

A
B
O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Blood groups are …… on the blood cell surface

A

antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of inheritance are blood groups A and B

A

Co-dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What type of inheritance is Blood group O

A

Recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What determines the antigens on the red cell surface

A

Genetically determined, occur through the presence/absence of certain enzymes acting on the O antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What blood group does a person with only the Gal Transferase enzyme have

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What blood group does a person with the GalNAc Transferase enzyme have

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What blood group does a person with both GalNAc and Gal Transferase enzymes have

A

AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What blood group does a person with neither the GalNAc and Gal transferase enzymes have

A

O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How how long before birth do ABO antibodies form

A

3-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What type of antigen are the ABO antibodies, and what 2 things can they do

A

IgM
Agglutinate
Activate compliment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What 2 things are unusual about the ABO antibodies

A

They are naturally occurring

Develop antibodies to antigens you don’t have

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the antigens on Red cells in blood group A

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the antigens on Red cells in blood group B

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the antigens on Red cells in blood group AB

A

A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the antigens on Red cells in blood group O

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What antibodies are present in plasma for those with blood group A

A

Anti-B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What antibodies are present in plasma for those with blood group B

A

Anti-A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What antibodies are present in plasma for those with blood group AB

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What antibodies are present in plasma for those with blood group O

A

Anti-A and Anti-B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which blood group is the universal recipient

A

AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which blood group is the universal donor

A

O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What percentage of people are Rhesus positive

A

85%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What percentage of people are Rhesus negative

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What determines Rhesus positive/negative

A

Two Genes, D and d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which alleles code for Rhesus positive

A

DD or Dd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which alleles code for Rhesus negative

A

dd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What 2 things are anti globulin tests used for

A

Cross-matching to ensure donor compatibility

Investigate haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What two things are a Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) used for

A

To detect the cause of haemolytic anaemia investigator transfusion reaction
Diagnose haemolytic disease in a newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is a Direct Antiglobiuin test also know as

A

Coombs Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What does the DAT determine

A

If there are any antibodies on the red cell surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What happens during a DAT

A

Anti-globulin is added to the patient red cells

Red cell aggregation occurs is antibodies are present on the red cell surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the Indirect Antiglobulin test used to detect

A

Antibodies directed against red blood cell antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What 2 things is an Indirect Antiglobulin test used in preparation for

A

Blood Transfusion

Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What temperature are the test RBC incubated at during an IAT

A

37 Degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Why is Antiglobulin added during a DAT or IAT

A

To detect any antibody present on the red cell surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How is the Indirect Antiglobulin test performed

A

Patient serum containing antibody is added to test RBCs
These are incubated at 37 Degrees C
Antiglobulin is added to see for agglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

During an DAT or IAT, what does agglutination mean

A

Red Cells are coated with a particular antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the 2 main functions of the coagulation system

A

Control of bleeding

Allow vessels to be repaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is primary Haemostasis

A

Formation of platelet plug and vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is secondary haemostasis

A

Coagulation factors are activated, and thrombin in generated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What does thrombin convert fibrinogen into

A

fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What stabilises the soluble clot formed by fibrin

A

Factor XIII (8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What process breaks down fibrin

A

fibrinolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the 5 steps in primary haemostasis, starting from injured blood vessel

A 
Injured Blood Vessel
Exposure of collagen 
Platelet adhesion
Activation and degranulation of platelets
aggregation of platelets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is von Willebrand factor used for

A

Platelet adhesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the 3 stages of secondary haemostasis

A

Initiation
Propagation
Amplification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What 3 conversions happen during initiation

A

Factor VIIa and Tissue Factor combine to form TF-VIIa complex
TF-VIIa complex converts IX to IXa
TF-VIIa complex converts X to Xa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What 3 conversions happen during propagation

A

Factor XI converted to XIa
XIa converts IX to IXa
IXa and VIIIa convert X to Xa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What 2 conversions happen during amplification

A

Xa converts II to IIa

IIa converts fibrinogen to soluble fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is an alternative name for Factor II

A

Prothrombin

88
Q

What is an alternative name for Factor IIa

A

Thrombin

89
Q

Which factor converts Soluble fibrin into insoluble cross-linked fibrin

A

Factor XIIIa (8a)

90
Q

During secondary haemostasis, which 3 stages require Calcium 2+ ions

A

Conversion of IX to IXa
Conversion of X to Xa
Conversion of II to IIa

91
Q

During secondary haemostasis, which 2 stages require Platelet phospholipid

A

Conversion of X to Xa

Conversion of II to IIa

92
Q

What are 3 examples of natural anticoagulants

A

Antithrombin
Protein C
Protein S

93
Q

How is the coagulation system controlled

A

Inhibition on thrombin formation and breakdown of fibrin clots

94
Q

What 2 factors does antithrombin inhibit

A

Factor Xa and Thrombin

95
Q

What 2 factors does protein S and activated protein C inhibit

A

Factors V and VIII

96
Q

During fibrinolysis, what is plasminogen converted into

A

plasmin

97
Q

What does plasmin do during fibrinolysis

A

converts fibrin into fibrin degradation products

98
Q

What does Alteplase (t-Pa) do

A

thrmobolyse (break down) the patient clot

99
Q

Which test would be used to investigate possible defects in primary haemostasis

A

PFA-100

100
Q

What 3 things usually causes defects in primary haemostasis

A

Platelet number
Platelet function
von Willebrand disease

101
Q

What is thrombocytopenia

A

Low platelets

102
Q

What characterises primary haemostasis defects

A

muco-cutaneous bleeding

103
Q

What are 9 examples of muco-cutaneous bleeding

A 
Easy/spontaneous blruising
Petechiae/purpura
Epistaxis (Nose Bleeds)
Menorrhagia (heavy periods)
Prolonged bleeding following minor trauma
Operative bleeding
Intramuscular haematoma (rare)
Intracranial haemorrhage (rare)
Join bleeds (very rare)
104
Q

What are 4 examples of causes for acquired secondary haemostasis

A

Liver Disease
drugs
Vitamin K deficiency
Consumption

105
Q

What is an example of a Vitamin K dependant factor

A

VII

106
Q

How does warfare act in treating Vitamin K Deficiency

A

Prevents Vitamin K recycling

107
Q

What are 2 examples of deficient factors causing inherited haemophilia

A

Factor VII and IX deficiency

108
Q

Which Factor deficiency causes Haemophilia A deficiency

A

Factor VIII (8)

109
Q

Which factor deficiency causes Haemophilia B

A

Factor IX Deficiency

110
Q

How is Haemophilia inherited

A

Sex Linkage

111
Q

Which chromosome is haemophilia carried on

A

X chromosome

112
Q

Which type of haemophilia is more common

A

Haemophilia A

113
Q

Which pathway are Factors VIII and IX involved in

A

Intrinsic pathway

114
Q

What do deficiencies in factors VIII and IX result in, with respect to the intrinsic pathway

A

Prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time

115
Q

What is given to severe haemophiliacs prophylactically

A

Regular coagulation factors

116
Q

What 3 things constitute an abnormal coagulation screening

A

APTT prolonged
PT Normal
TT Normal

117
Q

What pathway is APTT

A

Intrinsic Pathway

118
Q

What pathway is PT

A

Extrinsic Pathway

119
Q

What pathway is TT

A

Final Common Pathway

120
Q

What does APTT stand for

A

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time

121
Q

What does PT stand for

A

Prothrombin Time

122
Q

What does TT stand for

A

Thrombin Time

123
Q

What is used to treat Bleeding Disorders as a general measure

A

Tranexamic Acid

124
Q

What does tranexamic acid do

A

Inhibit break down of blood clots (fibrinolysis)

125
Q

What is Venous Thromboembolism (VTE)

A

When Thrombosis blood clots affect the arterial system

126
Q

What are 5 risk factors for VTE

A 
Increasing age
Obesity
Dehydration
Significantly reduced mobility
Abnormal clotting conditions
127
Q

What is thrombophilia

A

tendency to thrombosis

128
Q

What is the name given to the administration of drugs to prevent VTE

A

Thromboprophylaxis

129
Q

What e the 3 categories in Virchrow’s Triad

A

Blood Hypercoagulability
Venous Stasis/Abnormal Flow
Injury to the Vessel Wall

130
Q

Where is the most common location for a VTE

A

Lower limb in the legs

131
Q

What are the 3 most common symptoms of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)

A

Pain
Swelling
Erythema

132
Q

What is the most serious for of VTE

A

Pulmonary Embolism

133
Q

What are 3 common symptoms of Pulmonary Embolisms

A

Shortness of Breath
Chest Pain
Haemoptysis (coughing up blood)

134
Q

How do Pulmonary Embolisms form

A

Clot forms, usually in a deep vein

Clot becomes dislodged and moves to the pulmonary arteries

135
Q

After 2 years, what are the chances of a recurrent VTE

A

20%

136
Q

After 10 Years, what are the chances of recurrent VTE

A

30%

137
Q

What are the chances of post-thrombotic syndrome aft DVT

A

Around 20%

138
Q

What are the chances of pulmonary hypertension after Pulmonary Embolism

A

up to 4%

139
Q

What are the 2 broad goals of treating VTE

A

Stop the Thrombus getting worse

Prevent the recurrence of the thrombus

140
Q

What is used mainly to treat VTE

A

Anticoagulant

141
Q

What is given to treat VTE in selected scenarios

A

Thrombolysis

142
Q

What are anticoagulants and thrombolysis associated with

A

Bleeding

143
Q

Name 3 examples of anticoagulants

A

Heparin
Direct Oral Anticoagulants (DOACs)
Warfarin

144
Q

What are two ways of thromboprophylaxis, giving an example for each

A

Drugs - Heparin

Mechanical - Compression Stockings

145
Q

What is Anaemia

A

The number of red blood cells, or their oxygen-carrying capacity is insufficient to meet physiological needs

146
Q

What is the commonest cause of anaemia worldwide

A

Iron Deficiency

147
Q

What is the daily production of RBCs

A

200 billion

148
Q

What is the lifespan of a RBC

A

120 days

149
Q

How many RBCs are destroyed each second

A

2.5 million

150
Q

What is a reticulocyte

A

immature RBC

151
Q

What is the 1 main difference between the reticulocyte and the mature RBC

A

Reticulocyte has RNA

152
Q

What is the name of the Blood Stem Cell

A

Hemoatopoic Stem Cell

153
Q

What is the major function of the RBC

A

Oxygen Carrier

154
Q

What is the structure of haemoglobin (4)

A

Tetramer of 4 global folded proteins
2x alpha chains
2x beta chains
4 Haem groups

155
Q

What 2 components make up the Haem group

A

Iron

Porphyrin Ring

156
Q

What is the oxygen delivery equation

A

DO2 = Q x (Hb x SaO2 x 1.34 +(PaO2 x 0.003))

DO2 = Oxygen Delivery
Q = Cardiac Output
Hb = Haemoglobin
SaO2 = Arterial O2 Saturation
(PaO2 x 0.003) = Amount of O2 dissolved in the blood
157
Q

What is erythropoiesis

A

The generation of Red Blood Cells

158
Q

What are the 3 stages to recover from Low blood O2 Level

A

Kidneys increase production of erythropoietin
Stem Cells increase Red Cell production
O2 blood levels return to normal

159
Q

Where is erythropoietin produced

A

Kindeys

160
Q

What disease can impact the levels of erythropoietin

A

Chronic Kidney Disease

161
Q

What is Normoxia

A

Normal Blood Oxygen Levels

162
Q

What is Hypoxia

A

Low Blood Oxygen Levels

163
Q

Which transcription factor increases the production of erythropoietin

A

HIF-1a (alpha)

164
Q

Which protein is the signal transducer for erythropoietin

A

JAK2

165
Q

What breaks down RBCs

A

Mcrophages

166
Q

Where are RBCs broken down (3)

A

Spleen
Liver
Red Bone Marrow

167
Q

What are RBCs broken down into

A

Haem

Globin

168
Q

What happens to the broken down Globin

A

Broken down further into amino acids, which are then re-used for protein synthesis

169
Q

What happens to the broken down haem

A

Fe3+ extracted

170
Q

What protein transfers the iron from the haem

A

Transferrin

171
Q

What does Fe3+ and Transferrin become in the liver

A

Ferratin

172
Q

Where does Transferrin transport Fe3+

A

Back to the Red Bone Marrow

173
Q

What 5 ingredients are required for erythropoiesis in the Red Bone Marrow

A 
Fe3+
Globin
Vitamin B12
Folic Acid
Erythropoitin
174
Q

What is billirubin fromed from

A

broken down haem

175
Q

Where is bilirubin formed

A

Liver

176
Q

What issue can stimulate the production of erythropoietin

A

Hypoxia

177
Q

What is the average range of Hb levels in adult males

A

135-170 g/l

178
Q

What is the average range of Hb levels in adult females

A

115-150 g/l

179
Q

In Anaemia, what component of blood is at the highest proportions

A

Plasma

180
Q

In Polycythemia, what component of blood is at the highest proportions

A

Haemocrit

181
Q

What are the components measured in a full blood count

A

Haemoglobin
White Cell Count
Platelet Count

182
Q

What are the 4 Red Cell Indicies

A

Mean Cell Volume
Red Cell Distribution Width
Packed Cell Volume
Red Cell Count

183
Q

How is the Haemoglobin levels measured and expressed

A

Photometric method

expressed as a concentration g/L

184
Q

How are white cells identified and expressed

A

Any cell with a nucleus is assumed to be a white blood cell

Expressed as n x10^9 /L

185
Q

How are red cells and platelets identified, differentiated and expressed

A

Cells without a nucleus are considered Red Cells or Platelets
Differentiated by Size
RBC Expressed as n x10^12/L
Plts expressed as n x10^9/L

186
Q

What are the three MCV subclasses of anaemia

A

Microcytic
Normocytic
Macrocytic

187
Q

What is the MCV of microcytic cells

A

MCV <80fl

188
Q

What is the MCV of normocytic cells

A

MCV 80-100fl

189
Q

What is the MCV of macrocytic cells

A

MCV >100fl

190
Q

What does a normal Red Cell distribution width mean (within the reference range of 11-15%)

A

There is a uniform cell population (all the cells are a similar size)

191
Q

What does an abnormal Red Cell Distribution width mean

A

Both large and small cells are present

192
Q

What 3 things is the packed Cell Volume derived from

A

Haemoglobin
Red Cell Count
Mean Cell Volume

193
Q

What is used to differentiate Reticulocyte from an erythrocyte

A

Reticulocytes have RNA

194
Q

What are 2 typical identifiers of iron deficiency anaemia blood films

A

Pencil Cell

Hypochromic Cell

195
Q

What is typical of sickle cell anaemia blood films

A

Notable sickle-shaped red cells

196
Q

What is typical of megaloblastic anaemia blood films

A

Hypersegmented nucleophile (due to B12 deficiency)

197
Q

What is typical of haemolytic anaemia (G6PD deficiency)

A

Cytoplasm pertrusion

198
Q

What is typical of Autoimmune Haemolytic anaemia blood films

A

Darker, solid RBCs

199
Q

What is typical of thalassaemia blood films

A

Pale RBCs with ringed cytoplasm

200
Q

What are 5 examples of inadequate RBC production

A 
Haematinic Deficiency
Reduced Globin Chain Production
Bone Marrow Failure
Inability to utilize Iron
Insufficient EPO Production
201
Q

What is Iron required for

A

Haem production

202
Q

What is B12 and Folate required for

A

DNA production

203
Q

Which compounds are deficient in Haematinic deficiency

A

Fe and B12/Folate

204
Q

What si reduced globin chain production

A

Problem with the globin genes, leading to thalassaemias

205
Q

What are the 13 Common symptoms for anaemia

A 
Yellowing Eyes
Paleness
Cold Skin
Yellowing Skin
Shortness of Breath
Weakness
Changed stool colour
Fatigue
Dizziness
Low Blood Pressure
Heart Palpitations
Rapid Heart Rate
Enlarged Spleen
206
Q

What are the 4 symptoms of sever anaemia

A

Fainting
Chest Pain
Angina
Heart Attack

207
Q

What are the changes in Full Blood count and Red Cell Indices in Iron Deficiency Anaemia

A 
Lowered Haemoglobin
Increased Platelet Count
decreased MCV (microcytic)
increased Red Cell Distribution Width
Decreased PCV
Decreased Red Cell Count
208
Q

What is anisopoikilocytosis

A

shape variation

209
Q

What is anisocytosis

A

Size Variation

210
Q

What are the changes in Full Blood count and Red Cell Indices in B12 or Folate Deficiency

A 
Reduced Haemoglobin
Normal/Lower Platelet Count
Increased MCV (Macrocytic)
Increased Red Cell Distribution Volume
Reduced PCV
Reduced Red Cell Count
211
Q

What are the changes in Full Blood count and Red Cell Indices in Acute and Chronic Haemorrhage

A 
Reduced haemoglobin 
Normal/raised platelets
Increased Red Cell Distribution Width
Reduced PCV
Reduced Red Cell Count
212
Q

What are the differences between Acute and Chronic Haemorrage

A

Normal MCV in Acute

Lowered MCV in Chronic

213
Q

What can Chronic Blood Loss Lead to

A

Iron Deficiency

214
Q

What are the changes in Full Blood count and Red Cell Indices in Haemolysis

A

Lowered Haemoglobin
Normal or Lowered Platelet count
Lowered/Normal/Raised MCV
Raised RCDW

215
Q

What causes the Sickle Cell Shape in sickle cell anaemia

A

Single base substitution causes the Beta Subunit of haemoglobin to have a different shape, leading to polymerisation of the Haem, and the sickle-cell shape

216
Q

What are the changes in Full Blood count and Red Cell Indices in Anaemia of Chronic Diseas

A

Lowered Haemoglobin

UCLMS Yr 1 Mod 1: Foundations of Health and Medical Practice (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions