Haematology Flashcards

(101 cards)

1
Q

Describe the spectrum of symptoms a patient with anaemia might describe.

A
Asymptomatic 
Fatigue
Headaches, 
Faintness
Breathlessness
Angina
Intermittent Claudication
Palpitations
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2
Q

List the causes of a microcytic anaemia

A

Iron Deficiency
Thalassaemia
Sideroblastic Anaemia

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3
Q

List the causes of a normocytic anaemia

A
Acute Blood Loss
Anaemia of Chronic Disease
CKD
Marrow Infiltration, Fibrosis 
Myelomas
Mixed Defiecieny e.g. Iron and B12
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4
Q

List the causes of a macrocytic anaemia

A
Alcohol 
Haemorrhage/Haemolysis (increase reticulocytes)
Vit B12/Folate Deficiency 
Hypothyroidism
Pregnancy 
Drug Therapy
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5
Q

What test should always be done in a patient presenting with normocytic anaemia?

A

Urine and Serum Electrophoresis - looking for paraprotein for myeloma
Anaemia of chronic disease is a diagnosis on exclusion and should only be made if everything else has been ruled out.

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6
Q

Describe the causes of thrombocytopenia

A
DECREASED PRODUCTION
Haematinic Deficiency e.g. B12, Folate
Acute Leukaemia/Myelodysplastic Syndromes i.e. bone marrow failure
INCREASED CONSUMPTION
e.g. DIC, Sepsis
Immune Mediated e.g. ITP
Drug Induced
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7
Q

Describe the causes of thrombocytosis (high platelets) and how can we distinguish between them?

A

Can be reactive i.e. in response to infection
Can be due to a myeloproliferative neoplasm

History and Clinical Examination
Trend of platelet count (sudden increase suggests reactive,, more gradual increased suggests MPN)

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8
Q

Describe what a myeloproliferative neoplasm is.

A

Uncontrolled clonal proliferation of one or more of the cell lines in the bone marrow.

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9
Q

List some examples of Myeloproliferative Neoplasms

A
Polycythemia Vera
Essential Thrombocytopenia
Myelofibrosis
Chronic Myeloid Leukemia 
N.B. these conditions grouped together as there can be transition from one disease to another and they may also transform into AML
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10
Q

Describe what happens in Polycythemia Vera

A

Alteration in pluripotent progenitor cell
Leading to excessive proliferation of erythoid (RBCs), myeloid (basophil, neutrophil, eosinophiol, macrophage) and megakaryocytic (platelets)

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11
Q

What mutation is commonly associated with polycythemia vera

A

JAK-2 - means bone marrow is continuously signalled to produce cells with or without the presence of Epo

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12
Q

Describe the clinical features of polycythemia vera?

A

Insidious onset usually >60yrs
Tiredness, depression, vertigo, tinnitus and visual disturbance
Can also get hypertension, angina, intermittent claudication and a tendency to bleed
Severe itching after a hot bath or when patient is warm is common
Spleen in palpable in 70%, hepatomegaly 50%
Thrombosis and haemorrhage are the major complications

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13
Q

How to you diagnose polycythemia vera?

A

Increased haemoglobin
Presence of JAK2 kinase mutation (taken over from marrow biopsy)
Serum epo level below normal

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14
Q

How is polycythemia vera treated?

A

Aspirin to decrease stroke risk
Venesection weekly to decrease haematocrit
Chemo with hydroxycarbamite in some with HIGH HIGH platelets- can’t venesect platelets as made too quickly - slows down marrow function

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15
Q

Describe Essential Thrombocytopenia

A

ELEVATED PLATELET COUNT

normal WBCs and RBCs

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16
Q

How might be patients present with essential thrombocytopenia?

A

Asymptomatic incidental finding
Thrombo-embolic disease
Less commonly bleeding

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17
Q

Describe how you diagnose essential thrombocytopenia?

A

JAK-2 mutation in around 50%
If negative check for calreticulin or MPL
If these both negative - do bone marrow biopsy, will show increased megakaryocytes

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18
Q

How do you treat Essential Thrombocytopenia?

A

Aspirin to decrease stroke risk

Hydroxycarbamite

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19
Q

Describe Myelofibrosis

A

Get clonal proliferation of stem cells and myeloid metaplasia in the liver, spleen and other organs, with FIBROSIS in the bone marrow (hyperplasia of abrnomal megakaryocytes which release fibroblast stimulating factors

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20
Q

How does Myelofibrosis Present?

A

Insidiously with lethargy, weakness and weight loss
Abdominal fullness from splenomegaly
Bruising, bleeding and anaemia can occur
Severe pain related to respiration may indicate peri-splenitis secondary to splenic infarction

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21
Q

How is Myelofibrosis Diagnosed?

A

Leucoerythroblastic blood film - tear drop red cells
Anaemia, Thrombocytopenia, raised WCC
Bone marrow aspiration often unsuccessful due to nature of condition
JAK-2 mutation in 50%

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22
Q

What is the treatment of Myelofibrosis?

A

Supportive - blood transfusions, folic acid, analgesia
If spleen is painful and transfusion requirements are high a splenectomy may be performed
Tx of Disease - spectrum from observation alone - bone marrow transplant
New promising therapy with JAK inhibitors

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23
Q

Describe the chromosomal abnormality of CML

A

Philadelphia Chromosome
Long arm of chromosome 22 has been shortened by reciprocal translocation with chromosome 9
Puts the BCR:ABL genes together which causes upregulation of tyrosine kinase

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24
Q

Describe how patients with CML present?

A
Peak age 40-60
Some are asymptomatic OR
Symptomatic anaemia
Abdo discomfort sue to splenomegaly
Weight loss, fever, sweats
Headaches, visual disturbance, priapism due to leucostasis
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25
Describe how CML will progress if left untreated?
Will eventually be followed by a "blast crisis" transformation to acute leukemia or myelofirbosis
26
Describe how CML is diagnosed?
BLOOD TESTS normocytic anaemia, HIGH WCC, platelets can be increased or decreased BLOOD FILM Neutrophilia with spectrum of mature myeloid precursors BONE MARROW ASPIRATE Increase cells and increase myeloid precursors Cytogenetics reveals philadelphia chromosome
27
How is CML managed?
Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor - Imantinib Produces complete haematological response in 95% and complete cytogentic response in 80% can be used indefinitely, although should be stopped pre-conception Stem cell transplantation in those resistant
28
List the systemic effects of iron overload seen in haemochromotosis
Liver disease - hepatitis, fibrosis and cirrhosis (plus ↑risk of hepatocellular carcinoma) Pancreatic islet cell failure → Diabetes Accumulation in the heart → restrictive cardiomyopathy and heart failure (can be a big issue) Deposition in joints → arthritis and joint pain Deposition in skin → hyperpigmentation or "tanning" Deposition in pituitary gland → hypogonadotrophic (↓FSH and LH) hypogonadism (→ ↓ sex hormone synthesis in gonads). In men this presents as erectile dysfunction, subfertility and testicular atrophy. In women it presents as menstrual irregularity/amenorrhoea and anovulation → infertility. Both sexes may experience loss of axillary, pubic and limb hair.
29
Describe the mutation seen in over 95% of patients with haemochromatosis
HFE1
30
List some of the causes of B12 deficiency
Pernicious anaemia Diet (vegans at risk) Conditions affecting stomach/intestines e.g. crohns, gastrectomy Medications e.g. PPIs (stomach acid helps to break down animal proteins containing B12) Pregnancy Heavy Drinking
31
List some of the causes of Folate Deficinecy
Poor Diet (lacking green, leafy veg and brown rice) Malabsorption e.g. coeliac, crohns, Medication e.g. phenytoin, saulfasalazine, co-trimoxazole Pregnancy Heavy Drinking
32
What test is used to test for pernicious anaemia?
Intrinsic Factor Antibodies
33
How can alcohol ingestion lead to low platelets?
Signifcant alcohol intake --> liver pathology --> portal hypertension --> splenomegaly --> sequestration of platelets in spleen appearing as low platelet count Also alcohol - direct toxic effect on bone marrow can lead to decreased platelet production
34
When would you see macrocytic RBCs without significant anaemia?
Hypothyroid | Alcohol
35
Macrocytic Anaemia + High Reticulocyte Count + Jaundice.... makes you think of what diagnosis?
Haemolytic Anaemia
36
When someone presents with hereditary heamolysis, what three causes should you consider?
MEMBRANE - Hereditary Spherocytosis ENZYMES - G6PD Deficinecy HAEMOGLOBINOPATHY - Thalassaemia
37
Describe how patients with haemolytic anaemia usually present?
Due to constant breakdonw of RBCs, these patients have increased bone marrow activity to replace the RBCs they are loosing This is usually fine However, if triggering factor e.g. infection, virus, medication The patients can decompensate and quickly become acutely unwell with jaundice and anaemia
38
Describe the management of patients with haemolytic anaemia
Depends on severity Multiple hosppital admission with decompensation by age 5 - splenectomy would be considered (spleen breaksdonw RBCs, if remove spleen, RBCs not broken down, stops problem of haemolysis) In less severe patients jutch treat decompensated episodes and give folate supplementation (as bone marrow increase demand as constantly replacing RBCs)
39
Describe the complications associated with a splenectomy
Increased rsik of serious infection with encapsulated organisms e.g. haemophilus, streptococcus and meningococcus. These patients need to be on lifelong penicillin prophylaxis to prevent serious infection with these organisms
40
Describe the pathophysiology of anaemia seen in chronic kidney disease and how you would treat it
Kidney cells produce epo - stimulates cells of bone marrow to produce RBCs In CKD kidney cells become damaged, get decreased epo, bone marrow not stimulated to produce RBCs - get normocytic anaemia Give regular Epo injections
41
Describe what is seen on a leucoerythroblastic blood film and what it means
``` Nucleated RBCs (precursor to RBCs) and Myelocytes (precursor to granulcoytes - eosinophils and basophils) should not be seen in blood, should only be seen in bone marrow Also tear shaped RBCs - poikilocytes ``` Means myelofibrosis or metastatic cancer than has spread to bone marrow.
42
Describe Haemophilia A and its inheritance
Factor 8 Deficiency X-Linked Recessive Inheritance 1 in 5000 males affected
43
Describe the presentation of Haemophilia A
``` Depends on the residual factor 8 level SEVERE HAEMOPHILIA (5U/dL) Usually only associated with bleeding after injury or surgery. Diagnosis in often delayed until later in life. ```
44
What laboratory findings would you expect to see in a patient with haemophilia?
``` Prolonged APTT (measures intrinsic pathway) Decreased levels of Factor VIII ```
45
Describe how patients with Haemophilia are managed
Prophylactic prevention of bleeds through Factor 8 infusions 3x/week Prompt treatment of all bleeds with factor 8 In patients with mild haemophilia can give desmopressin - increase factor 8 release from endothelial cell stores, can increased circulating factor 8 by up to 4x - not effective in severe haemophilia)
46
Describe why it is important to know the carrier status of women with Haemophilia in the family
Up to 5% of women who carry hemophilia A have a factor 8 low enough to be considered as mild haemophilia They will bleed with trauma and need treatment to cover surgery
47
Describe Haemophilia B
Also known as Christmas Disease Deficiency of Factor 9 1 in 30,000 males affected X-Linked recessive inheritance
48
Describe clinical features of Haemophilia B
Exactly the same as Haemophilia A Have mild, moderate and severe forms, Increased APTT and decreased factor 9 in blood Treat with prophylactic doses of factor 9 twice weekly and factor 9 when bleeding Desmopressin not effective
49
Describe von Willebrands Disease
Defective Platelet Function + Factor 8 Deficinecy Both are due to a deficiency or abnormality of von Willebrand Factor (vWF) vWF plays a vital role in platelet adhesion to damaged subendothelium as well as stabilising factor 8 in plasma
50
Describe the different types of VWD and their mode of inheritance
``` TYPE 1 Mild quantitatiive defect, AD TYPE 2 Qualitative defect (2a, b and m = AD, 2n = AR) TYPE 3 Severe quantitative defect = AR ```
51
Describe the clinical features of VWD
``` Type 1 and 2 Bleeding follows minor trauma or surgery Epistaxis and Menorrhagia often occur Haemarthroses are uncommon Type 3 More severe bleeding (but rarely see joint and muscle bleeds seen in haemophilia A) ```
52
Describe the treatment of VWD
Desmopressin given prophylactically to increase levels of vWF and Factor 8 Pooled plasma concentrations containing vWF are given to patients who are bleeding or those who are undergoing surgery
53
Describe the causes of VITAMIN K deficiency
INADEQUATE STORES e.g. haemorrhagic disease of newborn or severe malnutrition MALABSORPTION e.g. cholestatic jaundice, leads to decreased bile salts in intestine, Vit K = a fat soluble vitamin ORAL ANTICOAGULATION with Vit K antagonists e.g. Warfarin
54
What are the consequences of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn and how are these avoided
Minor bleeding in first week of life = classical Severe bleeding e.g. intracranial hemorrhage in 2-26 weeks of life = late 1mg of IM Vitamin K is given to all neonates
55
List some common acquired coagulation disorders
Vitamin K Deficiency Liver Disease inc Vit K deficiency in cholestasis, reduced synthesis of coag factors, thrombocytopenia through splenomegaly DIC
56
Describe the pathophysiology of DIC
Occurs when the balance of procoagulant factors and anticoagulant factors is overwhelmed by a massive systemic procoagulant signal Widespread intravascular coagulation - get platelet and coagulation factor consumption, eventually run out - get BLEEDING. Mixture of initial thrombosis leading to organ failure - usually brain, skin and kidneys from thrombotic occlusion and hypoxia followed by bleeding tendancy
57
List some of the causes of DIC
``` Malignancy Sepsis (usually gram -ve's including meningococcal) Haemolytic transfusion reactions Obstetric causes e.g. placental abruption, amniotic fluid embolus and pre-eclampsia Trauma e.g. burns, surgery Other infections e.g. malaria falciparum Acute Liver Failure Snake Bites ```
58
Describe the blood test results you would see in a patient with severe DIC
Increased PT and APTT Decreased fibrinogen and clotting factors Increased D-Dimer Decreased platelets
59
What are the three major causes of bone marrow failure
1) Aplastic Anaemia 2) Megaloblastic Anaemia 3) Infiltration of marrow with malignant disease (can be haematological or non-haematological)
60
Describe a practical approach to pancytopenia
``` Any significant medications - review Abdominal Ultrasound - Spleen Check Haematinics - B12, folate for megaloblastic anaemia Bone Marrow Aspirate HYPOcellular = aplastic anaemia HYPERcellular = malignancy ```
61
Describe aplastic anaemia
Pancytopenia with hypocellularity of the bone marrow Usually acquired Due to a decrease in pluripotent stem cells and a fault in those remaining meaning that they cannot repopulate the bone marrow. Emergence of an abnormal clone may evolve into AML or myelodysplasia.
62
List the causes of aplastic anaemia
PRIMARY Inherited, Idiopathic Acquired (67% cases) SECONDARY Chemicals, Drugs e.g. chemotherapy, ionising radiation, insecticides, infections e.g. hepatitis, EBV, HIV, TB
63
What are the clinical manifestations of Bone Marrow Failure?
Anaemia - low RBCs Bleeding - low platelets Infection - low WCC
64
What investigation would you do in a patient with aplastic anaemia?
FBCs - pancytopenia Absence of reticulocytes (as bone marrow can't produce anything) Hypocellular aplastic bone marrow
65
Describe the treatment and prognosis of aplastic anaemia
1 - withdraw cause 2- supportive care e.g. RBC and platelet transfusions, avoiding infection whilst neutropenic 3- bone marrow transplant 4 - immunosupression Prognosis is variable - ranges from rapid spontaneous remission to a persistent progressive pancytopenia which may result in death from infection or hemorrhage Determinants of prognosis are severity of pancytopenia and cellularity of bone marrow.
66
Describe megaloblastic anaemia
Characterized by immature RBCs in the bone marrow with delayed nuclear maturation because of defective DNA synthesis = MEGALOBLASTS
67
How does megaloblastic anaemia lead to pancytopenia and bone marrow failure?
B12 and folate are needed for synthesis of all DNA in all cells of the body. RBCs first affected, then platelets and white cells will be affected - leading to pancytopenia and bone marrow failure.
68
What non-haemotologoical malignancies commonly metastasize to the bone marrow
Breast, lung, prostate, renal, thyroid and melanoma | essentially same as bone - paired and midline organs + melanoma
69
What is the peak age of onset for the acute leukemias?
AML - adults, peak age 65 | ALL - childhood
70
Describe the B symptoms of lymphoma and leukemia
Fever Weight Loss Night Sweats
71
Describe some common sites of tissue infiltration of leukemia
CNS - (cause of 50% child deaths) Testes - swollen testes may be only presentation in young boy Gums, skin Thymus - SOB, tracheal narrowing, widened mediastinum on CXR - needs urgent intubation Lymph nodes, bones
72
Patients with acute leukemia will have low RBCs and platelets but a high WCC, why is this?
"Blasts" - all immature white cells | Will be seen on blood film
73
What will the bone marrow film in a patient with acute leukemia look like?
Increased cellularity Decreased erythropoesis Decreased megakaryocytes Replacement by blast cells > 20% - often approaching 100%
74
Neutropenic sepsis is diagnosed in any patient who.....
Has a neutrophil count
75
Describe the urgent actions you would do, if diagnosed a patient with neutropenic sepsis
See immediately and admit Look for source of infection (although not always obvious in these patients) Take FBC, U&Es, BLOOD CULTURES, and CXR Start IVT - need lots of fluid (2-3L over first 6-8 hrs) GIVE IMMEDIATE BROAD SPECTRUM ANTIBIOTICS E.G. PIP TAZ Monitor very closely and watch vital signs for evidence of deterioration If these patients develop septic shock then the mortality is very high
76
Define Thrombus and Embolus
A THROMBUS is a solid mass formed in the circulation from the constituents of blood during life An EMBOLUS is a part of a thrombus that has broken off and blocks a smaller blood vessel downstream
77
List some of the rsik factors for venous thromboembolic disease
Increasing age, BMI >30, Immbobility, Recent Long Haul Flight, Pregnancy and the Puerperium, Oestrogen therapy e.g. COCP, HRT, Thrombophilia, Recent Surgery, Malignancy, Anti-Phopholipid Syndrome
78
Describe Thrombophilia
A term describing inherited or acquired defects in haemastasis leading to a predisposition to venous or arterial thrombosis
79
What are the naturally occurring anticoagulants and what clotting factors do they inhibit
Protein C and Protein S - work as a complex to inhibit factor 5 and factor 8 Anti-thrombin - inhibits all other factors
80
Describe Virchows Triad of Thrombus Formation
HYPERCOAGULABLE STATE VASCULAR WALL INJURY CIRCULATORY STASIS
81
What is Factor V Leiden
Factor V Leiden differs from normal Factor V by a single point mutation This variation makes Factor V less likely to be cleaved by activated protein C Leads to a slowing of the inactivation of Factor Va, and therefore a tendency to form clots Acts synergistically with other risk factors
82
How common is Factor V Leiden
Found in 2-3% of normal population and 20-30% of patients with VTE
83
Describe the inheritance of Protein C and S Deficiency and how it might present
Autosomal Dominant Inheritance If HOMOZYGOUS - causes neonatal purpura fulminans, which is fatal without immediate replacement therapy If HETEROZYGOUS -may present with DVT in young adults
84
Describe how you would go about diagnosing a DVT in a patient with suggestive symptoms
Review History and Examination - try and exclude other causes Use the Wells Score to calculate risk of DVT If Wells score suggests high risk (>2) then perform a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan and a D-dimer test If ultrasound cannot be done and D-Dimer is high - give interim parenteral anti-coagulation until ultrasound can be performed.
85
Describe how you would go about diagnosing a PE in patients with suggestive symptoms
Medical History, Examination, CXR Calculate their risk of PE using the Wells score for PE If Wells score suggests PE is likely (>4) order a CTPA, if this cannot be done immediately give parenteral anticoagulation in the interim If Wells score suggests not likely - do D-dimer test. If D-dimer positive, do CTPA
86
List some of the causes of an isolated thrombocytopenia
``` Infections (bacterial and viral) Immune mediated destruction Congenital Disease Gestational Thrombocytopenia Splenomegaly Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome Drugs ```
87
What cells are classically seen on the blood film of a patient with Hodgkin Lymphoma
Reed Sternberg Cells
88
What are rouleaux? And in what condition might they be present on the blood film?
Stacks or Aggregations of RBCs Occur when plasma protein levels are high e,g, paraprotein in myeloma
89
Describe some of the ways that Myeloma can present?
Hypercaclcaemia & Bone Pain Myeloma - overexpression of RANKL, RANKL activates osteoclasts, which resprob bone. Get lytic bone lesions "punched out" and hypercalcaemia Anaemia -from replacement of normal bone marrow by tumour cells and inhibition of normal red cell production Renal Failure - due to high plasma proteins (paraprotein)
90
What are auer rods? And in what conditions would they be seen on the blood film?
Clumps of granular material that form long needles in the cytoplasm of leukemic blasts. Seen in AML Myeloproliferative Syndromes
91
In any patients presenting with confusion, dehydration, nausea and vomiting what diagnosis should always be thought of
HYPERcalcaemia
92
In a patient who presents lymphadenopathy when should they be referred to a specialist?
Any patient with a lymph node >1cm that has lasted for >6 weeks Any patient with generalised lymphadenopathy i.e. in two or more non-contiguous areas If they have supraclavicular lymph nodes (v.concerning)
93
What initial investigations should be done in a patient presenting with lymphadenopathy?
FBC, U&Es, LFTs, ESR Monospot - for infectious mononucleosis Viral Screen - HIV, Hep B and Hep c - all can cause lymphadenopathy
94
What additional investigations should then be done, if above negative.
Blood Film (although a lot of lymphomas have abnormal blood film) Cell Surface Markers - immunophenotyping Lactate Dehydrogenase = non-specific marker for cell turnover - although if high in the case of this history and examination - probably means lymphoma CXR - to check for mediastinal widening TISSUE - FNA not enough, need excision biopsy or multiple needle cores.
95
Whats the difference in management in HIGH grade and LOW grade lymphomas
HIGH grade Includes Hodgkins - need chemotherapy urgently and are curable LOW grade Watch and wait, do not need to treat low grade if patient is asymptomatic. Only treat when patient has symptoms. If treat low grade can get patients into remission, but they will relapse. Cannot cure it.
96
Describe the Ann Arbour Staging System for Lymphoma
``` STAGE 1 One LN region or organ STAGE 2 Two or more LN regions on the same side of the diphragm STAGE 3 LN regions on both sides of the diphragm STAGE 4 Extranodal, diffuse involvement of non-lyphatic organs/tissues e.g. bone marrow, lung, liver ```
97
Describe Tumour Lysis Syndrome and its sequale
Occurs if treatment triggers a massive breakdown on tumour cells. Leads to INCREASED serum levels of urate, potassium and phosphate And secondary HYPOcalcaemia Can lead to cardiac arrythmias and seizures Urate deposition in the renal tubules can cause renal failure (hyperuricaemic nephropathy)
98
Describe how tumour lysis syndrome is prevented?
Vigourous hydration to maintain high urine outputs | Allopurinol can be given before treatment to protect the kidneys
99
How do LMWH work?
Inactivates Factor Xa
100
How does unfractionated heparin work?
``` Binds antithrombin (an endogenous inhibitor of coagulation) Which increases its ability to inhibit thrombin, Factor Xa and Factor IXa ```
101
How do you monitor Heparin?
APTT